WorksheetsEarth - Final Exam Full Review
Total questions: 60
Worksheet time: 34mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The planet below is orbiting the Sun. The two sweeps are on opposite sides of the Sun and are labeled t. Though the orbital distance covered in each sweep is different, the time interval for each sweep is the same. Areas A and B are bounded by the arcs of the planet’s sweep in time, t, and the lines between the endpoints of the arc and the center of the Sun. What is the relationship between Area A and Area B:
a)
Area A is the same size as Area B
b)
Area A is twice as big as Area B
c)
Area A is 50% larger than Area B
d)
Area A is 50% smaller than Area B
2.
Earth travels on an elliptical orbit around the Sun. When Earth is at the point labeled on the diagram, it moves most quickly in its orbit. Which BEST explains this more rapid motion of Earth?
a)
The Sun’s gravitational pull on the Earth is strongest at this point
b)
Earth is closest to the Sun’s magnetic field at this point
c)
Earth is closest to the Sun’s radioactivity at this point
d)
The amount of solar heat reaching Earth is greatest at this point
3.
If it is Summer in the Northern hemisphere, which statement is true?
a)
It is winter in the Southern hemisphere due to the tilt of the Earth on its axis
b)
Earth has changed the tilt of its axis by 20 degrees due to its revolution
c)
It is summer in the Southern hemisphere due to the tilt of the Earth on its axis
d)
Earth has reached its closest point to the Sun due to its revolution
4.
Most asteroids of our galaxy are found between ___________ and ___________.
a)
Mars and Jupiter
b)
Mars and Earth
c)
Jupiter and Earth
d)
Jupiter and Mercury
5.
What would be the MOST likely result if the angle of the axis of Earth decreased to zero?
a)
There would be no occurrence of different seasons.
b)
Intensity of sunlight would be the same in all places.
c)
Days would be longer than nights all through the year.
d)
There would be no changing of the phases of the moon.
6.
Which best describes how energy from the sun helps to maintain life on Earth?
a)
It heats the Earth's atmosphere and surface, which helps stabilize temperatures on Earth and creates environments more favorable for life to exist.
b)
It forms the ocean’s water and the oxygen in the atmosphere that organisms need for life functions.
c)
It prevents the destruction of the magnetic field around Earth that protects all life forms
d)
It is absorbed by Earth’s mantle, which drives plate tectonics to form new land masses for organisms to live.
7.
How does the energy produced by the sun travel to Earth?
a)
by the radiation of electromagnetic waves through space
b)
by the magnetic fields between the sun and Earth
c)
by the convection of heat through particles in space
d)
by the process of conduction of heat between the sun and Earth
8.
Which condition is necessary for metamorphic rocks to form?
a)
Extreme pressure and heating
b)
Rapid burial of sediments
c)
Slow cooling of magma
d)
Constant weathering and erosion
9.
What type of soil is found at 20% clay, 40% silt, and 40% sand?
a)
Loam
b)
Silty clay
c)
Silt loam
d)
Clay
10.
Which statement about the formation of a rock is best supported by the rock cycle?
a)
Sediment must be compacted and cemented before it can change to sedimentary rock.
b)
Sedimentary rock must melt before it can change to metamorphic rock.
c)
Metamorphic rock must melt before it can change to sedimentary rock.
d)
Magma must be weathered before it can change to metamorphic rock.
11.
The process of restoring an area of land to a more natural, productive state is called:
a)
land reclamation.
b)
erosion
c)
nutrient depletion.
d)
desertification
12.
In many parts of the world, land that is too dry for farming is used for grazing livestock. Overgrazing of these lands destroys the native plants and breaks down the natural soil covering. How does overgrazing result in desertification?
a)
By increasing the rate at which topsoil is eroded
b)
By allowing nonnative species to colonize the land
c)
By reducing the food available to livestock
d)
By causing the land to absorb rainfall more quickly
13.
Which is one way poor use of fertilizers in agriculture can affect the environment?
a)
It can cause pollution of water in lakes and rivers
b)
It can cause an increase in greenhouse gases
c)
It can reduce the amount of sediment in local waterways
d)
It can increase the ability of many species to find suitable habitats
14.
How are surface mining and peat harvesting similar in the way that they effect the environment?
a)
Both remove vegetation in the area, destroying habitats
b)
Both increase air pollution, causing acid rain
c)
Both flood the area with water, decreasing soil erosion
d)
Both release carbon dioxide, decreasing global temperatures
15.
All energy resources have benefits, risks, and drawbacks. Which two resources present the MOST dangerous risks and consequences for the environment during their acquisition (retrieval)?
a)
Oil and Coal
b)
Coal and Solar Energy
c)
Geothermal energy and oil
d)
Solar energy and geothermal energy
16.
While on a trip to Peru, Carlos saw that a mountainside had been terraced by the ancient Inca Indians. The Incas had terraced the side of the mountain to grow food. Which other purpose did the terracing of the mountain serve?
a)
It helped control erosion.
b)
It prevented flooding.
c)
It provided a transportation system
d)
It encouraged wild plant growth.
17.
One kind of evidence that supports Wegener’s hypothesis is that ____
a)
Fossils of the same organism have been found on different continents
b)
The same magnetic directions exist on different continents
c)
Major rivers on different continents match
d)
Land bridges still exist that connect major continents
18.
Wegener’s continental drift hypothesis stated that all the continents once joined together to form ____.
a)
one major supercontinent
b)
2 major supercontinents
c)
two major supercontinents and three smaller continents
d)
three major supercontinents
19.
Determine the contour interval for the topographic map:
a)
20 meters
b)
15 meters
c)
10 meters
d)
5 meters
20.
What type of boundary occurs where two plates move together, causing one plate to descend into the mantle beneath the other plate?
a)
Convergent boundary
b)
Divergent boundary
c)
transform fault boundary
d)
transitional boundary
21.
New ocean crust is formed at ___.
a)
Divergent boundary
b)
Convergent boundary
c)
Continental volcanic arcs
d)
transform fault boundaries
22.
Which provides the best explanation of the mechanism that causes these “plates” to move across the Earth's surface?
a)
convection currents in the mantle
b)
faulting of the lithosphere
c)
the spin of the Earth on its axis
d)
prevailing wind belts of the troposphere
23.
Most of the active volcanoes on Earth are located in a belt known as the ____.
a)
Ring of Fire
b)
Bermuda Triangle
c)
Continental drift
d)
100 major plates
24.
The diagram below represents the intensity of the shaking that occurs on different Earth surfaces during the same earthquake. The greatest earthquake hazard to homes exists when they are built on:
a)
Silt and Mud
b)
Coarse Sediments
c)
Sedimentary Rock
d)
Hard Igneous Rock
25.
What would be most effective in minimizing the potential damage caused by an earthquake?
a)
Building structure that withstand ground vibrations.
b)
Installing sirens in areas prone to earthquakes
c)
Increasing the amount of concrete during road building
d)
Requiring the recycling of metal and wood products
26.
Which part of Earth's interior is inferred to have convection currents that cause tectonic plates to move?
a)
Astehnosphere
b)
Outer Core
c)
Inner Core
d)
Ridgid Mantle
27.
Base your answer on the diagram below, which shows models of two types of earthquake waves. Model A best represents the motion of earthquake waves called
a)
P-waves (compressional waves) that travel faster than S-waves (shear waves) shown in model B
b)
P-waves (compressional waves) that travel slower than S-waves (shear waves) shown in model B
c)
S-waves (shear waves) that travel faster than P-waves (compressional waves) shown in model B
d)
S-waves (shear waves) that travel slower than P-waves (compressional waves) shown in model B
28.
The circles on the map below show the distances from three seismic stations, X, Y, and Z, to the epicenter of an earthquake. Which location is closest to the earthquake epicenter?
a)
B
b)
C
c)
D
d)
A
29.
An earthquake’s epicenter is _
a)
The place on the surface directly above the focus
b)
A spot halfway between the focus and the surface
c)
The spot below the focus
d)
Any spot along the nearest fault
30.
A fault is_
a)
A fracture in the Earth where movement has occurred
b)
The place on Earth’s surface where structures move during an earthquake
c)
Another name for an earthquake
d)
A place on Earth where earthquakes cannot occur
31.
The map below shows the large delta that formed as the Mississippi River emptied into the Gulf of Mexico. Which process was primarily responsible for the formation of the delta?
a)
deposition of sediment
b)
glacial erosion
c)
cementation of sediment
d)
mass movement
32.
Water warmed by solar energy near the equator expands and is less dense than cold water. Cold water at poles is denser, and sinks, and moves very slowly beneath warmer ocean water toward the equator. The reason for this is because
a)
Warm molecules rise and cold molecules fall creating convection currents throughout the oceans around the globe.
b)
Cold molecules rise and warm molecules fall
c)
Cold molecules override warm molecules causing them to expand
d)
Warm molecules shrink causing cold molecules to push them out to deeper waters
33.
A community decides to upgrade its water purification and management systems. What lasting impact could this have on available freshwater?
a)
It could cause an increase in the freshwater supply
b)
It could cause a decrease in water demand
c)
It could cause a decrease in the water levels
d)
It could cause an increase in waterborne diseases
34.
Why would an environmental group be against building a landfill in an area?
a)
The landfill could leak and contaminate the local water supply.
b)
Methane gas from the landfill could help generate electricity.
c)
The landfill would attract too many scavenging birds.
d)
The smell of a landfill would keep many native animals away.
35.
The drilling for freshwater increases along a coastal area. What is a likely consequence of this action?
a)
An intrusion of salt water into aquifers.
b)
The loss of water resources in estuaries.
c)
The destruction of estuaries because of an increase in sea levels.
d)
A decrease in salt concentration in inlet waterways
36.
The ozone layer helps life on Earth because ozone
a)
absorbs damaging ultraviolet radiation from the Sun
b)
modifies the normal El Niño weather pattern
c)
reflects insolation from the Sun
d)
deflects winds from a straight line to a curved path
37.
Which is s a major source of air pollution?
a)
Small farms raising large numbers of animals such as cows and pigs.
b)
Planting more trees in forest areas
c)
Building dams for hydroelectric plants
d)
The production of energy using solar and nuclear power
38.
As altitude _________ in the atmosphere, air pressure ______________.
a)
increases; decreases
b)
increases; increases
c)
decreases; decreases
d)
altitude and air pressure are unrelated
39.
Which is most likely to produce acid rain?
a)
Burning of coal for fuel
b)
deforestation of an area
c)
formation of a national park
d)
production of nuclear power
40.
Global warming affects sea levels. Which of these is a likely consequence if the trend of global warming continues in coming decades?
a)
Melting glaciers will cause flooding of coastal towns and cities
b)
Melting glaciers will reduce lake sizes in mountainous regions.
c)
Evaporation will increase land areas in U-shaped valleys, as fjords dry up.
d)
Evaporation will enlarge land areas near coastlines, as sea levels drop
41.
What is the latitude and longitude at the center of the hurricane?
a)
26° N 81° W
b)
26° N 89° W
c)
34° N 81° W
d)
34° N 89° W
42.
When compared to current average conditions, which term would BEST describe conditions in Earth’s lower atmosphere if greenhouse gases were absent?
a)
Cooler
b)
Denser
c)
Wetter
d)
Cloudier
43.
When visiting the beach, Felicity observed that a breeze blew in from the ocean during the day and out toward the ocean at night. Which factor is most responsible for the direction of land and sea breezes in coastal regions?
a)
the uneven heating between the land and water
b)
the revolution of Earth around the Sun
c)
the gravitational pull of Earth on the atmosphere
d)
the daily rise and fall of tides in a regular pattern
44.
Which is an example of competition in an ecosystem?
a)
Two species of insects that feed on the same rare plant
b)
A bobcat and a jackrabbit
c)
An African lioness feeding her cubs
d)
A tick living on a dog
45.
As human populations increase, more shelter is needed. Increasing shelter often requires making a trade-off with another resource. In which case is a food resource decreased to increase a shelter resource?
a)
Farmland is converted into house lots.
b)
Old-growth timber is cut to build houses.
c)
Corn is made into ethanol for cars instead of food
d)
Wind power generated on farmland provides electricity for a factory.
46.
In 1958, a geochemist began measuring the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere. The data collected are organized in the graph below. What conclusion can be scientifically made from the data on this graph?
a)
The amount of CO2 in the atmosphere is increasing
b)
CO2 levels are balanced because they increase and decrease.
c)
The line has so many variations that no conclusion can be made.
d)
The amount of CO2 in the atmosphere changes because of humans.
47.
Which of the following would increase a person ecological footprint? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
a)
Using only the amount of water needed
b)
Insulating homes to reduce the amount of energy needed to heat or cool a house
c)
Driving personal cars rather than using public transportation
d)
Recycling paper and plastic bottles
e)
A school system turning on all the heat in the building when it is 70 degrees outside.
48.
The photo shows an area of heavy growth of kudzu and introduced vine species commonly found in NC. Based on your observations of the photo, what is the effect of kudzu on the habitat?
a)
The kudzu is overcrowding the native plant species.
b)
The kudzu is providing habitat for many other species of plants.
c)
The kudzu is slow-growing and has beneficial effects for native plants.
d)
The kudzu was introduced with a good understanding of NC ecology.
49.
During which season does city B usually experience the month with the highest average precipitation?
a)
Summer
b)
Spring
c)
Winter
d)
Fall
50.
The chart shows some of the inhabitants of a wetland community and their food sources. Fishing has removed most of the adult bass from the wetland community. Based on the information in the chart, which of these would MOST likely occur?
a)
Sunfish would become overpopulated.
b)
Young bass would migrate to other areas.
c)
Snails would feed to find another food source.
d)
Minnows would have more difficulty reproducing.
51.
A fault is
(a)
(a)
Choose from the below words
A fracture in the Earth where movement has occurred
A place on Earth where earthquakes cannot occur
The place on Earth’s surface where structures move during an earthquake
Another name for an earthquake
52.
A minimum of (a) seismic stations are needed to determine the location of an earthquake’s epicenter.
Choose from the below words
3
2
4
5
53.
Base your answer on the diagram below, which represents seismic stations A, B, and C. The distance from each station to an earthquake’s epicenter is plotted. The epicenter is closest to point:
A
B
C
D
54.
The circles on the map show the distances from three seismic stations, X, Y, and Z, to the epicenter of an earthquake. Which location is closest to the earthquake epicenter?
A
B
C
D
55.
An earthquake’s epicenter is
(a)
(a)
Choose from the below words
The place on the surface directly above the focus
A spot halfway between the focus and the surface
The spot below the focus
Any spot along the nearest fault
56.
The figure below is an illustration of
(a) , which occurs beneath tectonic plates and causes them to move.
Choose from the below words
Convection Currents
Ring of Fire
Osmosis
S waves
57.
The supercontinent in the continental drift hypothesis was called .
(a)
Choose from the below words
Pangaea
Panthalassa
Mesosaurus
Africa
58.
Which of the following is at approximately 60 degrees S, 40 degrees W?
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
59.
Which geological feature is found where two continental plates converge?
a)
Mountains
b)
Volcanoes
c)
Trenches
d)
Ridges
60.
Choose the 2 continents that fit best together:
a)
South America & Africa
b)
North America & Australia
c)
Europe & South America
d)
Antarctica & North America
100 %
