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Chemistry - Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cr2O72-(aq) + Fe2+(aq) ---> Cr3+(aq) + Fe3+(aq)


Which species is being reduced in the equation above?

a)

Cr2O72-

b)

Fe2+

c)

Cr3+

d)

Fe3+

2.

Which species is the strongest reducing agent?

a)

Cl-

b)

Br-

c)

I-

d)

Cl2

3.

The equation for the reaction between chlorine gas and water is

Cl2  (g) + H2O (l) ⟺\Longleftrightarrow   HCl (aq) + HClO (aq)

This is a ______.

a)

hydrolysis reaction

b)

substitution reaction

c)

disproportionation reaction

d)

displacement reaction

4.

Z forms white precipitate with silver nitrate solution.

White precipitate is then dissolved in excess ammonia solution.

Solid Z is ____

a)

KI

b)

KCl

c)

KBr

d)

KBrO3

5.

Write the products of electrolysis when dilute sulphuric acid is electrolysed using Platinum electrodes.

a)

O2 , H2

b)

O2,N2

c)

N2,H2

d)

SO2,H2

6.

type of reaction occurs in the formation of Nylon 6,6 polymer

a)

addition

b)

combination

c)

condensation

d)

distillation

7.

Predict the number of ions produced per formula unit in an aqueous solution

of [Ni(en)3]Cl2

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

1

8.

The acidic strength of halogen acids varies in the order

a)

HF>HCl>HBr>HI

b)

HI>HF>HCl>HBr

c)

HI>HBr>HCl>HF

d)

HBr>HI>HCL>HF

9.

when a freshly precipitated Fe(OH)3 is shaken with a little

amount of dilute solution of FeCl3.

a)

COAGULATION OCCURES

b)

path of light is visible

c)

peptization occures

d)

a new compound is formed

10.

the number of lone pairs on central atom in XeF4 ARE

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

11.

Solutions of two electrolytes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are diluted. The limiting molar conductivity of ‘’A increases to a smaller extent while that of ‘B’ increases to a much larger extent comparatively. Which of the two is a strong electrolyte

a)

A

b)

B

c)

their neighBour means C

d)

BOTH A and B

12.
Silver nitrate and sodium phosphate are reacted in equal amounts of 200 g each. How many grams of silver phosphate are produced? 
3AgNO3  + Na3(PO4)  --->  Ag3(PO4)  + 3NaNO3
a)
164 g
b)
64 g
c)
146 g
d)
164 moles
13.

A sample of silver contains 5.71 x 1022 atoms. How many moles of silver are present?

a)

3.43 x 1046 moles

b)

0.0529 moles

c)

0.0948 moles

d)

10.5 moles

14.
If it takes 50 mL of 0.5 M Ca(OH)2 to neutralize 125 mL of sulfuric acid, what is the concentration of the acid?
a)
0.2 M
b)
5 M
c)
0.5 M
15.
Which type of titration is shown by this titration curve?
a)
Titration of a strong acid by a strong base 
b)
Titration of a weak acid by a strong base 
c)
Titration of a strong base by a strong acid 
d)
Titration of a weak base by a strong acid
16.
Select the correct order of waves on the Electromagnetic Spectrum
a)
Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
b)
Gamma, X-ray, Ultra, Vis, Infra, Micro, Radio
c)
Vis, Micro, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma, Radio
d)
Micro, Radio, Vis, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
17.

Calculate de-Broglie wavelength of an electron moving with velocity  10710^7  m/s.

a)

10 A°10\ A^{\degree}  

b)

5 m

c)

0.73 A°0.73\ A\degree  

d)

0.72 m

18.

If a proton and an electron have same energy, then which one is correct?

a)
b)
c)
d)
19.

Which one is correct Schrodinger time dependent equation?

a)

H = E

b)

H = Eψ

c)

Hψ = ψ

d)

Hψ = Eψ

20.

Two metals X and Y have work function 2 eV and 5 eV respectively . when these metals are irradiated with light of wavelength 400nm, the emission of photoelectron will take place from metal Y only and not from metal X. [use hc = 1240 eV nm]

a)

True

b)

False

21.
A surface has a work function of 4 x 10⁻¹⁹ J
What is the cut off wavelength?
h = 6.6 x 10⁻³⁴ Js
c = 3 x 10⁸ ms⁻¹
a)
6.0 x 10⁻¹⁴ m
b)
700nm
c)
5 x 10⁻⁷ m
d)
3 x 10⁻⁶ m
22.

The spectral line in hydrogen spectrum obtained when the electron jumps from n=5 to n=2 energy level belongs to:

a)

Lyman series

b)

Balmer series

c)

Paschen series

d)

Pfund series

23.

What are the possible values of the magnetic quantum number for an electron in a 3p orbital?

a)

-3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3

b)

-2, -1, 0, +1, +2

c)

-1, 0, +1

d)

0

24.

The correct electronic configuration of Cr (Z=24) is

a)

[Ar] 3d 5 4s 1

b)

[Ar] 3d 4 4s 2

c)

[Ar] 3d 9 4s 2

d)

[Ar] 3d 10 4s 1

25.

The radius of first orbit of hydrogen is 0.53 Å. The radius of second orbit would be

a)

1.06 Å

b)

0.26 Å

c)

0.53 Å

d)

2.12 Å

26.

The sub-shell with n=6, l=2 can accomodate a maximum of

a)

10 electrons

b)

12 electrons

c)

36 electrons

d)

72 electrons

27.

This element has the lowest electron affinity

a)

magnesium

b)

sodium

c)

silicon

d)

sulfur

28.

Which metal ion (cation) is the smallest

a)

oxide ion (oxygen ion)

b)

nitride ion (nitrogen ion)

c)

aluminum ion

d)

magnesium ion

29.

Which of the following molecule is not polar?

a)

NH3

b)

NF3

c)

BF3

d)

CHCl3

30.

Which of the following statement is correct about CO32- ?

a)

The hybridisation of central atom is Sp3

b)

Its canonical structure has one C--O single bond and two C=O double bonds

c)

All C--O bond lengths bond lengths are equal

d)

Canonical structures are less stable

31.

Which of the following statement is not correct from the view point of molecular orbital theory?

a)

Be2 is not a stable molecule

b)

He2 is not a stable molecule

c)

Bond strength of N2 is maximum amongst the homonuclear diatomic molecules belonging to the second period.

d)

The order of energies of molecular orbitals in N2 molecule is

σ2s < σ* 2s < σ2pz < (π2pX = π2pY) < (π*2pX = π*2pY) < σ*2pz

32.

Which of the following pair is expected to have the same bond order?

a)

O2 , N2

b)

O2+, N2–

c)

O2 – , N2+

d)

O2–, N2–

33.

H2O and CH4 have almost similar mass but H2O has higher boiling point than CH4. Explain.

a)

H2O is a polar molecules whereas CH4 is a nonpolar molecules.

b)

H2O has hydrogen bonding whereas CH4 has only weak van der waals forces.

c)

H2O has dipole-dipole interactions whereas CH4 has only weak van der waals forces.

d)

H2O has bigger size than CH4 .

34.

The strongest intermolecular forces present between HCl molecules is

a)

dipole-dipole interaction

b)

dispersion forces

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

covalent bond

35.

What is the effect of increasing the pressure on the following equilibrium: 2NO(g) + O2 (g) ⇌2NO2(g)?

a)

The yield of NO2 increases

b)

The yield of NO2 decreases

c)

The reaction is slower

d)

The concentration of O2 increases.

36.
At what time the reaction reached equilibrium?
a)
t1
b)
t2
c)
t3
d)
t4
37.
Which of the two graphs reaches equilibrium?
a)
The left one.
b)
The right one.
c)
Both of them.
d)
Neither.
38.

How do catalysts increase the rate of reaction?

a)

The frequency of collisions is the increased

b)

The activation energy is lowered.

c)

The energy of collisions is increased

d)

Both the frequency and energy of collisions is increased

39.

If the reaction quotient, Q has a bigger value than the related equilibrium constant, K, _________

a)

the reaction is at equilibrium and no change will occur.

b)

the reaction is not at equilibrium, reaction shift to the right and will make more products.

c)

the reaction is not at equilibrium, reaction shift to the left and will make more reactants.

d)

the value of K will increase until it is equal to Q.

40.
What is the rate equation of following chemical reaction?
2NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O
a)
Rate = k.[NaOH]2.[H2SO4]
b)
Rate = k.[NaOH].[H2SO4]
c)
Rate = k.[NaOH]2
d)
Rate = k.[NaOH]2.[H2SO4]2
41.
To slow down a chemical reaction you will do one of the following:
a)
Place the reactants in hot water
b)
Place the products in ice bath
c)
Place the reactants in a ice bath
d)
Keep stirring the reactants with a stirring rod
42.

Given the following rate law,

rate = k[A]2[B]

if [A] were doubled, what must happen to [B] to keep the rate constant?

a)

[B] must tripled

b)

[B] must double

c)

[B] must be havled

d)

[B] must be quartered

43.

What letter represents the activation energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

44.
Carbon atom undergo
a)
sp hybridization
b)
sp2 hybridization
c)
sp3 hybridization
d)
dsp3 hybridization
45.
Xe atom undergo
a)
sp hybridization
b)
sp2 hybridization
c)
sp3 hybridization
d)
dsp3 hybridization
46.
Molecule shown below is in
a)
E isomer
b)
Z isomer
c)
Trans isomer
d)
Cis isomer
47.

Which molecule does not shown geometric isomerism?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

None of the above

48.
How many chiral center is found in CH3CH(CI)CH(Br)CH3?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
49.

Ethene is devoid of any alpha hydrogen so hyperconjugation is not possible.

a)

True

b)

False

50.
If a molecule contains polar bonds, the molecule MAY OR MAY NOT be polar overall. 
a)
True 
b)
False
51.
Which of these forces applies to all molecules
a)
London Dispersion
b)
Dipole dipole
c)
Hydrogen Bonding
d)
Covalent bonding
52.
The following statement is true for hydrogen bonding EXCEPT
a)
It is a dipole dipole forces of attraction
b)
Electronegative element like N, O and F must be present
c)
Hydogen bonding is stronger than covalent bonding
d)
ESF attraction bet H atom with lone pair electron from N,O,F
53.

An electrophile is a Lewis...............

a)

Base

b)

Acid

c)

Radical

d)

Anion

54.

Which type of reaction is this

a)

SN1

b)

SN2

c)

E1

d)

None

55.

Which of the following statements regarding the E2 mechanism is wrong?

a)

Reactions by the E2 mechanism are always bimolecular.

b)

Reactions by the E2 mechanism are generally second order.

c)

Reactions by the E2 mechanism usually occur in one step.

d)

Reactions by the E2 mechanism usually occur in two steps.

56.

Which is the main product of the following reaction?

a)
b)
c)
d)
57.

Elimination reactions of cis- and trans-1-bromo-2-methylcyclohexanes with NaOEt in EtOH can give the same or different main product, 1-methylcyclohexene (1) or 3-methylcyclohexene (2). Which of (a)-(d) indicates the main products?

a)

1 both from the cis and trans substrates

b)

2 both from the cis and trans substrates

c)

1 from the cis and 2 from the trans substrate

d)

2 from the cis and 1 from the trans substrate

58.

Which of the following statements regarding mechanisms of elimination reaction is wrong?

a)

The E1 mechanism does not require a base.

b)

The E2 mechanism generally occurs under highly basic conditions.

c)

The E2 mechanism is stereospecific.

d)

The E1cB mechanism is usually unimolecular in the rate-determining step but leads to a second order rate law.

59.
Based on Markovnikov's rule which is the major product shown in diagram.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
Both
d)
None of the above
60.
Based on Markovnikov's rule, A is the major product because
a)
greater positive inductive effect due to 1° carbocation form
b)
greater positive inductive effect due to 2° carbocation form
c)
greater positive inductive effect due to 3° carbocation form
d)
None of the above
61.
Reaction between Benzene + Br2 is called
a)
Electrophilic addition
b)
Electrophilic substitution
c)
Nucleophilic addition
d)
Nucleophilic substitution
62.
Benzene undergo electrophilic substitution NOT addition because
a)
Stability of benzene ring
b)
Stability due to delocalization of π electron in benzene
c)
Delocalization of π electron in benzene
d)
Benzene is unreactive
63.
Benzene undergo nitration reaction. What are the reagents needed?
a)
Concentrated nitric acid
b)
Concentrated nitric and sulfuric acid at room temperature
c)
Concentrated nitric and sulfuric acid at 50C
d)
Concentrated nitric and sulfuric acid at high temperature
64.

The tail of a surfactant molecule is oil-loving or known as ________?

a)

hydrophile

b)

lipophobic

c)

lipophilic

d)

hydrophilic

65.

The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison to those shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles __________________.

a)

exhibit enormous surface area.

b)

remain suspended in the dispersion medium.

c)

form lyophilic colloids.

d)

are comparatively less in number.

66.

In physisorption adsorbent does not show specificity for any particular gas because ______________.

a)

involved van der Waals forces are universal.

b)

gases involved behave like ideal gases.

c)

enthalpy of adsorption is low.

d)

it is a reversible process.

67.

Bredig's arc method is used for the preparation of colloidal soln of:

a)

Metal like silver, gold, etc

b)

Organic compounds

c)

Two liquids

d)

Inorganic compounds

68.

Select the FALSE statement about adsorption.

a)

The value of adsorption enthalpy of physical adsorption is less than chemical adsorption.

b)

Physical adsorption occurs due to Van der Waals'forces.

c)

Chemical adsorption decreases at high temperature and low pressure.

d)

Physical adsorption is reversible.

69.

Which plot is the adsorption isobar for chemisorption x is the amount of gas adsorbed on the mass m at temperature T at constant pressure?

a)
b)
c)
d)
70.

Glutamine has two pKa (2.17 and 9.13). Which one is the major form of glutamine at pH = 1.5?

a)
b)
71.

Which of the following are true for isoelectric focusing?

a)

proteins separate according to their isoelectric point

b)

proteins stop migrating at the isoelectric point

c)

All the proteins move from Anode to Cathode

d)

no further procedure is necessary to separate the proteins

72.

Assertion : A gas with higher critical temperature gets adsorbed to more extent than a gas with lower critical temperature.

Reason : The easily liquifiable gases get adsorbed to more extent.

a)

assertion is true but the reason is false

b)

assertion is false but the reason in true.

c)

both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of assertion

d)

If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.

73.

A process during which the temperature of a sample of gas doesn't change is called a​ (a)   process

Choose from the below words
isothermal
isobaric
isochoric
adaibatic
74.

Consider the pV diagram shown. Consider the magnitude of work done on the gas during each process AB, BC, CD and DA. Reorder the magnitude of work done from least to greatest.

a)

A to B

b)

B to C

c)

C to D

d)

D to A

1)
2)
3)
4)
75.

A sample of an ideal gas can be taken from state A to state B through one of two processes A→Y→B or A→X→BA\rightarrow Y\rightarrow B\ or\ A\rightarrow X\rightarrow B , as shown in the pV diagram. Which of the following will be the same for both processes?

a)

The average kinetic energy of the gas

b)

The temperature of the gas at the end of the process

c)

The thermal energy transferred to the gas by heating

d)

The work done on the gas

76.

which of the following laws is applicable for the behaviour of perfect gas...

a)

Boyle's law

b)

Charle's Law

c)

Gas Lussac law

d)

All of the above

77.

Transfer of heat from low temperature to high temperature is

a)

None of these

b)

Possible by doing some external work

c)

Possible by keeping both the bodies in contact

d)

Impossible

78.

A piece of ice is added to water in a cup. The entropy

a)

decreased

b)

increased

c)

no change

d)

decreases then increases.

79.

The gaseous layer which protects human life from on earth uv radiation is

a)

Oxygen

b)

ozone

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Carbondioxide

80.

Intensive property of a system is one whose value

a)

depends on the mass of the system, like volume

b)

does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.

c)

is not dependent on the path followed but on the state

d)

is dependent on the path followed and not on the state

81.

Work done in a free expansion process is

a)

+ ve

b)

-ve

c)

zero

d)

maximum

82.

vrms, vave, and vmp are root mean square, average, and most probable speeds of molecules of a gas obeying Maxwellian velocity distribution. Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

vrms<vave<vmp

b)

vrms>vave>vmp

c)

vmp>vrms>vave

d)

vmp<vrms<vave

83.

The universal gas constant is:

a)

Cp/Cv

b)

Cp-Cv

c)

Cp+Cv

d)

Cv/Cp

84.

Which is a test for a C=O?

a)

Bromine water

b)

Fehling's solution

c)

Acidified potassium dichromate (VI)

d)

2,4-DNPH (Brady's reagent)

85.

Name this molecule:

a)

Pentanoic acid

b)

2-hydroxy-2-methylbutan3-one

c)

3-hydroxy-3-methylbutane-2-one

d)

2-oxo-3-methylbutan-3-ol

86.

Which of the following reagents will oxidise propan-1-ol to propanal (tick all that apply)?

a)

Acidified potassium dichromate (VI)

b)

2,4-DNPH (Brady's reagent)

c)

Fehling's solution

d)

PCl5 (phosphorus pentachloride)

87.
1. Iodoform test: Pale yellow ppt
2. Fehling's test: No observable change
3. 2,4-DNPH: yellow ppt
Which compound will have the above observations?
a)
CH3CH2CHO
b)
C6H5CHO
c)
CH3CH2COCH3
d)
CH3COOH
88.

If propanal reacts with KCN in acidic conditions, which of the following is true?

a)

The product is not chiral

b)

A racemic mixture of the R and S enantiomers is formed

c)

Only the R enantiomer forms

d)

Only the S enantiomer forms

89.

Which of the following is the most acidic?

a)
b)
c)
d)
90.

What will be formed if butanone is reacted with LiAlH4 in dry ether?

a)

Butanoic acid

b)

Butan-1-ol

c)

Butan-2-ol

d)

Butanal

91.

Compound X dissolves in an aqueous sodium hydroxide solution but does not dissolves in an aqueous sodium carbonate solution. Compound X maybe

a)
b)
c)
d)
92.

Glucose is an example of a naturally occurring aldehyde. Which is not true about glucose?

a)

Glucose can be reduced.

b)

Glucose reacts with alkaline iodine.

c)

Glucose can undergo polymerisation.

d)

Glucose reacts with 2 , 4-dinitrophenylhydrazine.

93.

An ester extracted from bananas has the structural formula, CH3COOCH2CH(CH3)CH2CH3.

What are the products formed if the ester is reacted with LiAlH4 followed by hydrolysis?

a)

CH3CHO and HOCH2CH(CH3) CH2CH3

b)

CH3COOH and HOCH2CH(CH3) CH2CH3

c)

CH3OH and HOCH2CH2CH (CH3) CH2CH3

d)

CH3CH2OH and HOCH2CH(CH3) CH2CH3

94.

1 - Hexanamine and aniline are amines. Which statements are true about the amines?

Ⅰ. 1 - Hexanamine is a weaker base compared to aniline.

Ⅱ. 1 - Hexanamine has a higher boiling point compared to aniline.

Ⅲ. Both amines produce primary amides when reacting with acyl chloride.

Ⅳ. Both amines act as nucleophiles.

a)

Ⅰ and Ⅲ

b)

Ⅰ and Ⅳ

c)

Ⅱ and Ⅲ

d)

Ⅱ and Ⅳ

95.

Brown ring test is used for the confirmation of

a)

Acetate

b)

chloride

c)

sulphate

d)

nitrate

96.

Green tinted ash is obtained for

a)

Aluminium

b)

zinc

c)

Magnesium

d)

Calcium

97.

Use the balanced equation to answer the following question.

4 NH3 + 5 O2 → 4 NO + 6 H2O

How many grams of nitrogen monoxide (NO) will be produced from 2.50 moles of oxygen (O2)?

Molar Mass NO: 30.01 g/mol Molar Mass O2: 32.00 g/mol

a)

60.0 g NO

b)

64,.0 g NO

c)

2.00 g NO

d)

75.0 g NO

98.

Consider these generic equations:

2X + 3Y→2Z, ΔH=?

2X + 2Y→2Z, ΔH=−600kJ

2Z + Y→2Z, ΔH=−200kJ  

What is the missing ΔH?

a)

300 kJ

b)

-300 kJ

c)

800 kJ

d)

-800 kJ

99.

Which reaction is not an electrophilic addition ?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

100.

Bromine reacts with ethene to form 1, 2-dibromoethane.

What is the correct description of the organic intermediate in this reaction ?

a)

It has a negative charge

b)

It is a free radical

c)

It is a nucleophile

d)

It is an electrophile

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