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SOAL PFC APS MEI 2023

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When emergency is declared by an aircraft, the ATS unit should take appropriate action, except:

a)

Decide upon the most appropriate type of assistance which can be rendered

b)

  Enlist the aid of any other ATS unit or other services which may be able to provide assistance to the aircraft;

c)

  Provide the crew with any information requested as well as any additional relevant information, such as detail on suitable aerodromes, minimum safe altitude,

d)

Requested the crew to change of radio frequency and SSR Code

2.

what should pilot do to confirming a report of an incident or for making the initial report on such an incident if it had not been possible to report it by radio

 

a)

report to the operator

b)

Promptly as possible after landing submit a completed air traffic incident report form

c)

Asking the cronological event to the controller.

d)

All the answer are false

3.

What is emergency frequency ?

a)

121.6 Mhz

b)

118.8 Mhz

c)

121.5 Mhz

d)

122.2 Mhz

4.

What is STCA Parameters used in the ATS System Tanjungpinang

a)

STCA Vertical separation : 900ft

b)

STCA Horizontal separation : 10 nm

c)

STCA Time to Prediction : 30 seconds before violation phase

d)

All correct

5.

Surveillance of separation between arriving and departing aircraft in Tanjungpinang is

 

a)

  10 NM and vertical separation 1000ft

b)

10 NM and vertical separation 1500ft

c)

15 NM and vertical separation 1000ft

d)

15 NM and vertical separation 1500ft

6.

Minimum visibility permitted for aircraft that will perform ILS Approach Runway 04 Hang Nadim is:

a)

  1500 M

b)

  1200 M

c)

1000 M

d)

800 M

7.

VFR flight transponders without SSR allocation is

 

a)

2200

b)

4501

c)

  2000

d)

1200

8.

Which one is the correct answer for separation based on wake turbulence? (preceeding – succeeding

 

a)

Heavy-Heavy (3 Nm)

b)

Heavy- Medium (4 NM)

c)

Medium – Light (5 NM)

d)

Medium – Light (4 NM)

9.

What is the Minimum visibility for takeoff and landing VFR flight

a)

4000M

b)

4500 M

c)

3800 M

d)

4800 M

10.

Essential traffic information shall include, except :

 

a)

Direction of flight

b)

type of aircraft

c)

ETA for reporting point nearest the point

d)

Route of flight

11.

Minimum Obstacle Clearance (MOC) above Mount Bintan is

a)

  1000 ft

b)

1500 ft

c)

2000 ft

d)

2500 ft

12.

Horizontal separation between the dumping fuel aircraft and the aircraft behind it is?

a)

10 minutes or 100 NM

b)

12 minutes or 70 NM

c)

15 minutes or 50 NM

d)

100 NM or more

13.

Vertical separation between the dumping fuel aircraft and the aircraft below is?

a)

2000 feet

b)

3000 feet

c)

4000 feet

d)

5000 feet

14.

What is the first stages of emergency phase?

a)

Alert phase

b)

Uncertainty phase

c)

Distress phase

d)

Stimulation phase

15.

A situation wherein there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or required immediate assistance is?

a)

Alert phase

b)

Uncertainty phase

c)

Distress phase

d)

  Fatigue

16.

Standard clearances for departing aircraft shall certain the following items, except:

a)

Aircraft identification/ call sign

b)

Clearance limit, normally destination of aerodrome

c)

  Designator of the assigned STAR

d)

Allocated SSR code

17.

Communication Failure Procedures When the visual meteorological conditions are:

a)

Continuing flight in visual meteorological conditions

b)

  Arriving at the near suitable airport;

c)

Reporting the arrival of the fast ways to scouting unit Air Traffic controller;

d)

all answer are incorrect

18.

Before starting duty, a Controller must know the data such as:

 

a)

Read the log-book ( report from the previous shift )

b)

Checking the facility / equipment in the tower including check time

c)

Understand and know the situation of the active traffic

d)

All answer are correct

19.

Regarding to the ICAO Recommendation, the English language proficiency of Air Traffic Controllers at the extended (level 5) should be evaluated at least :

a)

once every three years.

b)

once every four years

c)

once every five years

d)

once every six years

20.

The distress signal and distress message to be sent by aircraft in distress should be on the following :

 

a)

The air ground radio frequency in use at that time

b)

500 Khz

c)

121.5 Mhz

d)

119.2 Mhz

21.

Ground equipment consists of two highly directional transmitting systems and two marker beacons aligned along the approach, this equipment is the ICAO standard, non-visual aid to final approach and landing :

 

a)

  instrument landing system.

b)

automated systems

c)

radar presentation equipment

d)

communication equipment

22.

The minimum information available for display to the ATC shall contain :

 

a)

radar position Indications

b)

radar map information

c)

Any information from Mode A, Mode C and Mode S

d)

all answer are correct

23.

Provision of navigational guidance to aircraft in the form of specific headings, based on the use of radar:

a)

radar display

b)

radar vectoring

c)

radar monitoring

d)

radar service

24.

Regarding Meteorology information, the type of information received is :

a)

SIGMET Information

b)

AIRMET Information

c)

Aerodrome warnings

d)

all answer are correct

25.

When emergency is declared by an aircraft, the ATS unit should take appropriate action, except:

 

a)

Decide upon the most appropriate type of assistance which can be rendered

b)

  Enlist the aid of any other ATS unit or other services which may be able to provide assistance to the aircraft;

c)

Provide the crew with any information requested as well as any additional relevant information, such as detail on suitable aerodromes, minimum safe altitude,

d)

Requested the crew to change of radio frequency and SSR Code

26.

what should pilot do to confirming a report of an incident or for making the initial report on such an incident if it had not been possible to report it by radio

a)

report to the operator

b)

Promptly as possible after landing submit a completed air traffic incident report form

c)

Asking the cronological event to the controller.

d)

Not blamming any one

27.

Communication Failure warning in ATC system will be shown on Radar screen with track label:

 

a)

“RF” with red blink;

b)

“HJ” with red blink;

c)

“EM” with red blink;

d)

  “MC” with red blink;

28.

Hijacked warning in ATC system will be shown on Radar screen with track label:

 

a)

“RF” with red blink

b)

“HJ” with red blink

c)

“EM” with red blink

d)

“MC” with red blink;

29.

Medium Term Conflict Detection out of segment AFL and CFL warning in ATC system will be shown on Radar screen with track label:

 

a)

  “HJ” with red blink

b)

“EM” with red blink

c)

  “MC” with yellow blink

d)

“LB” with yellow blink;

30.

Minimum Safe Altitude Warning in ATC system will be shown on Radar screen with track label:

a)

“HJ” with red blink and yellow blink (prediction);

b)

“EM” with red blink and yellow blink (violation);

c)

“AW” with yellow blink (Prediction) and red blink (Violation);

d)

“LB” with yellow blink ;

31.

RAM (Route Adherence Monitoring) in ATC system will be shown on Radar screen with track label:

a)

  “RF” with red blink

b)

EM” with yellow blin

c)

“RO” with yellow blink

d)

“LB” with yellow blink;

32.

There has been no contact with an aircraft in flight within 30 minutes after the time which the aircraft should have made communication with the appropriate aeronautical station, the ATS unit concerned. That emergency condition is:

 

a)

Alert phase

b)

Distress phase

c)

Uncertainty phase

d)

Alerfa

33.

Speed control should not be given aircraft in position

a)

A. Holding point

b)

B. Aircraft in find position with distance less than 4 NM from touchdown

c)

C. Aircraft following STAR

d)

A and B are true

34.

If track label “EM” with red color shown on radar screen means:

 

a)

Aircraft on Hijacked condition;

b)

Aircraft on Emergency condition

c)

Aircraft on Communication Failed condition

d)

Minimum safe altitude warning, when traffic is predicted to enter restricted area

35.

If track label “AW” with yellow color shown on radar screen means:

 

a)

Aircraft on Hijacked condition

b)

Aircraft on Emergency condition

c)

Aircraft on Communication Failed condition

d)

Minimum safe altitude warning, when traffic is predicted to enter terrain area;

36.

    Mode A code for special purposes to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to communication failure :

a)

7600

b)

  7500

c)

7400

d)

7000

37.

Vertical limit Tanjungpinang North CTR is

a)

GND/WTR – 6.000’

b)

GND/WTR – 3.000’

c)

3.000’ – 6.000’

d)

3.000’ – 10.000’

38.

What is the meaning of radar vectoring?

a)

An extrapolation of aircraft position by the computer based upon radar information and used by the computer for tracking purposes.

b)

Provision  of  navigational  guidance  to  aircraft  in  the  form  of specific headings, based on the use of radar

c)

The separation used when aircraft position information is derived from radar sources

d)

The  use  of  radar  for  the  purpose  of  providing  aircraft  with information  and  advice  relative  to  significant  deviations  from  nominal  flight path, including deviations from the terms of their air traffic control clearances

39.

Minimum establish final course for VOR Approach RWY 22 Batam is …

a)

  5 NM final course

b)

Position on final

c)

7 NM final course

d)

All answers is wrong

40.

The lower limit flight altitude when the aircraft holding in BAVAL will be:

 

a)

2000 FT  

b)

2500 FT

c)

3000 FT

d)

3500FT

41.

What is the lower limit of TPG VOR for Holding condition ?

a)

2000 ft

b)

3000 ft

c)

2500 ft

d)

3500 ft

42.

EAT (Expected Approach Time) calculation for runway 04 and 22 Tanjungpinang must be given to aircraft with interval of ….

a)

3 minutes

b)

4 minutes

c)

5 minutes

d)

7 minutes

43.

Visibility minimum RWY 22 BTM is..

a)

  2000 m

b)

2500 m

c)

2200 m

d)

2400 m

44.

What is the way point for ATS Route L504?

a)

Hosba

b)

Surga

c)

Obdos

d)

Tusnu

45.

What is the way point for ATS Route W22?

a)

NE

b)

Mibel

c)

Tusnu

d)

Kirda

46.

Visibility minimum for take-off IFR Flight type of aircraft helicopter is…

a)

500 m

b)

300 m

c)

800 m

d)

5 km

47.

 

Route of flight aircraft from WIDD going to WIII is….

a)

W22,W24,W26

b)

B470,W24,W26

c)

G579,G580,W26

d)

G579,W26,W22

48.

When two aircraft having similiar call sign , ATC should ...

a)

APP / TMA can’t instruct the aircraft to replace RTF call sign, for reasons of safety, when there are similarities between the two aircraft callsign or more that will cause confusion;

b)

  Each callsign changes are permanently and apply to the area of ​​authority.

c)

For avoid confusion, APP / TMA must determine which aircraft will be instructed to change the callsign;

d)

APP / TMA shouldn’t ensure the best use in accordance with FPL callsign after TANJUNGPINANG transferred to the Director, unless it has been coordinated in advance;

49.

Short –term conflict alert (STCA) Horizontal separation is …

a)

5 NM

b)

7 NM

c)

4 NM

d)

  2 NM

50.

Short term conflict alert (SCTA) Vertical Separation is…

a)

600 ft

b)

   700 ft

c)

  900 ft

d)

  900 ft