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Regents Chemistry June 2022 exam

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which subatomic particles are matched with their charges?

a)

Protons are positive and neutrons are negative.

b)

Protons are positive and electrons are negative

c)

Protons are negative and neutrons have no charge.

d)

Protons are negative and electrons have no charge.

2.

Which conclusion directly resulted from the “gold foil experiment”?

a)

Atoms are mostly empty space.

b)

Atoms are hard, indivisible spheres.

c)

Electrons are located in shells.

d)

Electrons have a small mass.

3.

The bright-line spectrum of an element is produced when excited-state electrons

a)

absorb energy and move to higher energy states

b)

absorb energy and move to lower energy states

c)

release energy and move to higher energy states

d)

release energy and move to lower energy states

4.

The elements on the Periodic Table of the Elements are arranged in order of increasing

a)

atomic mass

b)

atomic number

c)

mass number

d)

oxidation state

5.

Atoms of which element in Group 15 have the greatest electronegativity?

a)

As

b)

Bi

c)

N

d)

P

6.

Which term represents the simplest whole number ratio of atoms of the elements in a compound?

a)

atomic mass

b)

formula mass

c)

empirical formula

d)

structural formula

7.

How many electrons are shared in a triple bond between two atoms?

a)

6

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

8.

Given the equation representing a reaction:

Cl2 → Cl + Cl

What occurs during this reaction?

a)

Energy is released as a bond is broken

b)

Energy is released as a bond is formed.

c)

Energy is absorbed as a bond is broken.

d)

Energy is absorbed as a bond is formed.

9.

Krypton atoms in the ground state tend not to bond with other atoms because their

a)

second electron shell contains eight electrons

b)

third electron shell contains eighteen electrons

c)

innermost electron shell contains two electrons

d)

outermost electron shell contains eight electrons

10.

All matter can be classified as

a)

an element

b)

a compound

c)

a mixture or an element

d)

a mixture or a substance

11.

Which sample at STP has the same chemical properties as 10. grams of Al(s) at STP?

a)

10. grams of Si(s)

b)

10. grams of Na(s)

c)

5 grams of Al(s)

d)

5 grams of Mg(s)

12.

Which sample of matter can not be broken down by a chemical change?

a)

antimony

b)

ethanol

c)

methane

d)

water

13.

Based on Table F, which 10.-gram sample, when thoroughly mixed with 1 liter of water at room temperature, forms a heterogeneous mixture?

a)

ammonium chloride, NH4Cl

b)

potassium iodide, KI

c)

silver bromide, AgBr

d)

sodium nitrate, NaNO3

14.

Compared to a 1.0 M NaCl(aq) solution at 1.0 atm, a 2.0 M NaCl(aq) solution at 1.0 atm has

a)

a lower boiling point and a lower freezing point

b)

a lower boiling point and a higher freezing point

c)

a higher boiling point and a lower freezing point

d)

a higher boiling point and a higher freezing point

15.

Which list includes three forms of energy?

a)

temperature, chemical, thermal

b)

temperature, thermal, alkalinity

c)

electromagnetic, nuclear, chemical

d)

electromagnetic, alkalinity, nuclear

16.

Under which conditions of pressure and temperature is a real gas most like an ideal gas?

a)

low pressure and low temperature

b)

low pressure and high temperature

c)

high pressure and low temperature

d)

high pressure and high temperature

17.

Which sample of argon gas has the same number of atoms as a 100.-milliliter sample of helium gas at 1.0 atm and 300. K?

a)

50. mL at 1.0 atm and 300. K

b)

50. mL at 0.5 atm and 300. K

c)

100. mL at 0.5 atm and 300. K

d)

100. mL at 1.0 atm and 300. K

18.

Which process is a chemical change?

a)

condensation of H2O(g)

b)

synthesis of MgO(s)

c)

evaporation of C2H5OH(l)

d)

sublimation of CO2(s)

19.

Which property is determined by the structure, arrangement, and interactions of the molecules of a substance at a given temperature and pressure?

a)

atomic radius

b)

half-life

c)

formula mass

d)

physical state

20.

A collision between reactant particles is most likely to result in a reaction when the particles have proper orientation and proper

a)

charge

b)

energy

c)

mass

d)

radius

21.

Given the equation representing a system at equilibrium:

2NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g)

Which statement describes this reaction at equilibrium?

a)

The concentration of the reactant and the product must be equal.

b)

The concentration of the reactant and the product must be constant.

c)

The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are increasing.

d)

The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are decreasing.

22.

Which phrase describes the effect of adding a catalyst to a chemical reaction in order to increase the reaction rate?

a)

provides a different reaction pathway with a lower activation energy

b)

provides a different reaction pathway with a higher activation energy

c)

uses the same reaction pathway with a higher activation energy

d)

uses the same reaction pathway with a lower activation energy

23.

Systems in nature tend to undergo changes toward

a)

lower energy and less disorder

b)

lower energy and greater disorder

c)

higher energy and less disorder

d)

higher energy and greater disorder

24.

Which element must be present in an organic compound?

a)

carbon

b)

sulfur

c)

nitrogen

d)

oxygen

25.

Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?

a)

C2H2

b)

C2H4

c)

C6H10

d)

C6H14

26.

Which reaction occurs at the anode in an electrochemical cell?

a)

saponification

b)

oxidation

c)

esterification

d)

reduction

27.

Which statement describes the two types of reactions that occur in operating electrochemical cells?

a)

Nonspontaneous reactions occur in voltaic cells, and spontaneous reactions occur in electrolytic cells.

b)

Nonspontaneous reactions occur in electrolytic cells, and nonspontaneous reactions occur in voltaic cells.

c)

Spontaneous reactions occur in voltaic cells, and nonspontaneous reactions occur in electrolytic cells.

d)

Spontaneous reactions occur in electrolytic cells, and spontaneous reactions occur in voltaic cells.

28.

Which term describes an acid according to one acid-base theory?

a)

H+ acceptor

b)

H+ donor

c)

H2 acceptor

d)

H2 donor

29.

Which emission will be released from an unstable Fe-53 nucleus?

a)

an alpha particle

b)

a beta particle

c)

a positron

d)

a proton

30.

What is a potential risk associated with radioactive isotopes?

a)

biological exposure

b)

curing of diseases

c)

industrial measurements

d)

tracing chemical processes

31.

Which electron configuration represents the electrons of a phosphorus atom in an excited state?

a)

2-8-5

b)

2-8-6

c)

2-7-6

d)

2-7-4

32.

A 26.7-gram sample of which element has a volume of 3.00 cubic centimeters at room temperature?

a)

Cr

b)

Cd

c)

Nb

d)

Ni

33.

Which element is a nonmetal and solid at STP?

a)

lead

b)

nitrogen

c)

sodium

d)

sulfur

34.

What is the molecular formula for CH3CH2COOCH3?

a)

C2H4O

b)

C2H4O2

c)

C4H8O

d)

C4H8O2

35.

A substance conducts electricity in the liquid phase but not in the solid phase. This substance can be classified as

a)

covalent

b)

ionic

c)

metallic

d)

molecular

36.

A student measured the melting point of a sample of gallium to be 309 K. Based on Table T, which numerical setup can be used to calculate the student’s percent error?

a)

309K−303K303K×100\frac{309K-303K}{303K}\times100

b)

309K−303K309K×100\frac{309K-303K}{309K}\times100

c)

303K309K×100\frac{303K}{309K}\times100

d)

309K303K×100\frac{309K}{303K}\times100

37.

Which chemical bond is most polar?

a)

a O–H bond in H2O

b)

a S–H bond in H2S

c)

a Se–H bond in H2Se

d)

a Te–H bond in H2Te

38.

What is the amount of heat required to melt 43 grams of solid magnesium oxide at its melting point? The heat of fusion is 1.9 x 103 J/g.

a)

2.3 x102 J

b)

4.4 x 101 J

c)

8.2 x104 J

d)

3.4 x105 J

39.

Given the diagram of a laboratory apparatus:

This apparatus is used for which process?

a)

filtration

b)

distillation

c)

chromatography

d)

electrolysis

40.

Solid aluminum has a specific heat capacity of 0.90 J/g•K. How many joules of heat are absorbed to raise the temperature of 24.0 grams of aluminum from 300. K to 350. K?

a)

22 J

b)

45 J

c)

1100 J

d)

1200 J

41.

Based on Table G, which solute sample in 100.g of water at 40.°C can produce a solution equilibrium in a closed system?

a)

10. g KClO3

b)

25 g NaCl

c)

45 g KCl

d)

55 g KNO3

42.

Given the equation representing a system at equilibrium:

2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + energy

Which change favors the forward reaction?

a)

increasing the concentration of O2(g)

b)

increasing the temperature

c)

decreasing the pressure

d)

decreasing the concentration of SO2(g)

43.

When ice, H2O(s), melts at 0°C, entropy increases because the

a)

average kinetic energy of the particles increases

b)

average kinetic energy of the particles decreases

c)

particle arrangement is more random

d)

particle arrangement is less random

44.

At STP, propanal and propanone have different chemical properties due to their different

a)

molecular masses

b)

empirical formulas

c)

percent compositions

d)

functional groups

45.

Given the formula for a compound:

What is the IUPAC name of the compound?

a)

2,3-dimethyloctane

b)

2,3-dimethylhexane

c)

4,5-dimethyloctane

d)

4,5-dimethylhexane

46.

Given the formula representing a compound:

This compound is classified as an

a)

amide

b)

amine

c)

ester

d)

ether

47.

Which substance is an electrolyte?

a)

H2

b)

HCl

c)

C6H14

d)

C6H12O6

48.

An indicator is added to an aqueous solution with a pH value of 5.6. Which indicator is paired with its observed color in this solution?

a)

Methyl orange is yellow

b)

Phenolphthalein is pink.

c)

Bromcresol green is yellow

d)

Thymol blue is blue

49.

Solution A has a pH value of 2.0 and solution B has a pH value of 4.0. How many times greater is the hydronium ion concentration in solution A than the hydronium ion concentration in solution B?

a)

10

b)

2

c)

100

d)

4

50.

Which net change occurs in both nuclear fission and nuclear fusion reactions?

a)

Mass is converted to energy

b)

Energy is converted to mass

c)

Small nuclei form a larger nucleus

d)

A large nucleus forms smaller nuclei