Worksheets060 Operational Procedure
Total questions: 61
Worksheet time: 31mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The term "flight time" is defined as...
a)
a. the period from the start of the take-off run to the final touchdown when landing.
b)
b. . the total time from the first aircraft movement until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight.
c)
c. the period from engine start for the purpose of taking off to leaving the aircraft after engine shutdown.
d)
d. the total time from the first take-off until the last landing in conjunction with one or more consecutive flights.
2.
What should be considered regarding a scheduled flight over water, when land cannot be reached in case of an emergency landing?
a)
a. Contact to the nearest ATC shall consist during the whole flight
b)
b. . For all passengers there must be life jackets or lifeboats present
c)
c. The flight plan has to contain the exact waypoints
d)
d. Transponder code 7600 has to be set during the whole flight
3.
How can the pilot of an an engine-driven aircraft minimise the noise emission during descent and approach?
a)
a. Low approach with minimum power setting, late configuration and steep approach, adherence to established arrival routes
b)
b. Descent and approach in landing configuration while maintaining a descent angle of 3°, direct approach whenever possible
c)
c. Normal approach with normal power setting, configuration prior to initiating descent, shortest possible arrival route
d)
d. . High approach with minimum power setting, late descent, late configuration, adherence to established arrival routes
4.
How should departures near villages be carried out?
a)
a. Slow with a low propeller rotation speed
b)
b. Climb and changes in direction should be done as slow as possible
c)
c. Low and fast between the villages
d)
d. . Villages should be circumnavigated and crossed in a sufficient altitude
5.
Why is it dangerous to pump the throttle for engine start in cold weather?
a)
a. . It may cause a carburettor fire
b)
b. Carburettor icing can occur
c)
c. The oil will become diluted
d)
d. The engine might start with not enough power
6.
May an engine, which previously was on fire, be restarted?
a)
a. Yes, but only on the ground for the purpose of taxiing
b)
b. . No, the risk of a reignition of the fire would be too high
c)
c. Yes, but only if the cause of the fire was a carburettor fire during engine start
d)
d. Yes, if the aircraft is flying at a safe altitude
7.
Which gas is most dangerous during an engine fire?
a)
a. Nitrogen
b)
b. . Carbon monoxide
c)
c. Carbon dioxide
d)
d. Oxygen
8.
What should be the first action in case of a cable fire during a flight?
a)
a. Open cabin ventialtion
b)
b. Open the windows
c)
c. . Turn off the master switch
d)
d. Close the fuel valve
9.
What extinguishing agent is the least suitable for an aircraft fire?
a)
a. . Water
b)
b. Powder
c)
c. Halon
d)
d. Foam
10.
In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An electrical fire is suspected. Which action, with respect to the pilot's operating manual, should be taken?
a)
a. Turn off the heat
b)
b. Use the fire extinguisher
c)
c. Shut down the engine
d)
d. . Turn off the master switch
11.
In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An engine fire is suspected. Which action, with respect to the pilot's operating manual, should be taken?
a)
a. Shut down the engine
b)
b. . Turn off the heat
c)
c. Use the fire extinguisher
d)
d. Turn off the master switch
12.
A wind shear is...
a)
a. a wind speed change of more than 15 kt.
b)
b. a meteorological downslope wind phenomenon in the alps.
c)
c. . a vertical or horizontal change of wind speed and wind direction.
d)
d. a slow increase of the wind speed in altitudes above 13000 ft.
13.
Which weather phenomenon is typically associated with wind shear?
a)
a. Invernal warm front.
b)
b. Fog.
c)
c. . Thunderstorms.
d)
d. Stable high pressure areas.
14.
During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing headwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?
a)
a. Path is higher, IAS decreases
b)
b. Path is lower, IAS increases
c)
c. . Path is lower, IAS decreases
d)
d. Path is higher, IAS increases
15.
During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with an increasing headwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?
a)
a. . Path is higher, IAS increases
b)
b. Path is higher, IAS decreases
c)
c. Path is lower, IAS decreases
d)
d. Path is lower, IAS increases
16.
After take-off an aeroplane gets into a wind shear with decreasing headwind. As a result...
a)
a. the true airspeed (TAS) will increase.
b)
b. the aeroplane flies above the estimated climb path.
c)
c. . the aeroplane flies below the estimated climb path.
d)
d. the ground speed (GS) will decrease.
17.
Which phenomenon may be expected at point 2 of the microburst? See figure (OPR-001)
a)
a. Increase of airspeed
b)
b. Constant rate of descent
c)
c. . Decrease of climb rate
d)
d. Decrease of descent rate
18.
Which phenomenon may be expected at point 3 of the miroburst? See figure (OPR-001)
a)
a. Increase in airspeed
b)
b. Decrease in climb rate
c)
c. Constant rate of descent
d)
d. . Decrease in airspeed
19.
How can a wind shear encounter in flight be avoided?
a)
a. Avoid areas of precipitation, particularly during winter, and choose low flight altitudes
b)
b. Avoid thermally active areas, particularly during summer, or stay below these areas
c)
c. . Avoid take-off and landing during the passage of heavy showers or thunderstorms
d)
d. Avoid take-offs and landings in mountainous terrain and stay in flat country whenever possible
20.
Immediately after lift-off, a microburst is entered inadvertently. Which action might avoid an unintentional descent?
a)
a. Set maximum power, maintain present aircraft configuration, pick up speed in an attempt to leave the area of the microburst as fast as possible
b)
b. Set maximum power, retract landing gear and flaps, pick up speed and perform a left or a right turn in an attempt to leave the area of the microburst on the shortest way
c)
c. . Set maximum power, maintain present aircraft configuration, climb at the best rate of climb speed
d)
d. Set maximum power, retract landing gear and flaps, increase pitch until attaining optimum climb speed
21.
Wake turbulences develop during take-off just as the aeroplane...
a)
a. accelerates.
b)
b. lifts off with the main gear.
c)
c. reaches an altitude of 15 ft.
d)
d. . lifts off with the front gear.
22.
Wake turbulence is particularly strong...
a)
a. . at a high aeroplane weight.
b)
b. when flying with low throttle.
c)
c. at a low aeroplane weight.
d)
d. when flying with high throttle.
23.
Two aircraft of the same type, same grossweight and same configuration fly at different airspeeds. Which aircraft will cause more severe wake turbulence?
a)
a. The aircraft flying at higher speed.
b)
b. The aircraft flying at lower altitude.
c)
c. The aircraft flying at higher altitude.
d)
d. . The aircraft flying at slower speed.
24.
With only a slight crosswind, what is the danger at take-off after the departure of a heavy aeroplane?
a)
a. Wake turbulence twisting transverse to the runway.
b)
b. . Wake turbulence on or near the runway.
c)
c. Wake turbulence is amplified and distorted.
d)
d. Wake turbulence rotate faster and higher.
25.
What should be observed when taxiing behind a commercial airliner?
a)
a. To avoid wake turbulence, a minimum distance of 300 m should be maintained
b)
b. To avoid the jet blast, a minimum distance of 600 m should be maintained
c)
c. . To avoid the jet blast, a minimum distance of 200 m should be maintained
d)
d. To avoid wake turbulence, a minimum distance of 700 m should be maintained
26.
A technical fault requires an emergency off-field landing. Which steps, with respect to the pilot's operating handbook, are necessary?
a)
a. . Locate a suitable landing area, plan the approach, complete the applicable emergency procedure, declare an emergency, start and concentrate on the approach in due time.
b)
b. Inform air traffic control and request technical support, check the pilot's operating handbook for a reference on the matter and execute an emergency landing.
c)
c. Declare an emergency, complete the applicable emergency procedure, cover as much distance towards the airport as possible to be closer to the rescue forces.
d)
d. Reduce speed and configure the aircraft for landing in an attempt to gain time, declare an emergency, complete the applicable emergency procedure and execute an emergency landing.
27.
Which method is appropriate to approach an unprepared landing field?
a)
a. Flat direct approach to ensure visual ground contact
b)
b. . Terrain investigation to determine approach points and landing
c)
c. Steep approach to keep the noise level low
d)
d. Fast approach, performance check, and landing within a quick stop
28.
An emergency landing is a landing...
a)
a. conducted in an attempt to keep up safety regarding an aircraft and its occupants.
b)
b. conducted without power from the engine.
c)
c. . conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land.
d)
d. conducted with the flaps retracted.
29.
A precautionary landing is a landing...
a)
a. . conducted in an attempt to sustain flight safety.
b)
b. conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land.
c)
c. conducted with the flaps retracted.
d)
d. conducted without power from the engine.
30.
How does the pilot prepare for a VFR flight over a large distance of water, when it is unlikely that land can be reached in case of an engine failure?
a)
a. File a flight plan including the exact way-points.
b)
b. Be prepared to fly with transponder only.
c)
c. Maintain continuous radio contact with ATC.
d)
d. . Carry life vests or a life raft for all occupants.
31.
In case of an emergency ditching, the life vests have to be inflated...
a)
a. after disembarking the aircraft at a safe distance of about 10 m.
b)
b. during disembarking the aircraft.
c)
c. before disembarking the aircraft.
d)
d. . after disembarking the aircraft.
32.
What are the effects of wet grass on the take-off and landing distance?
a)
a. Decrease of the take-off distance and increase of the landing distance
b)
b. Decrease of the take-off distance and decrease of the landing distance
c)
c. . Increase of the take-off distance and increase of the landing distance
d)
d. Increase of the take-off distance and decrease of the landing distance
33.
Under which circumstances may a runway be considered to be contaminated?
a)
a. When more than 50 % of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by water, slush, snow or ice more than 3 mm deep
b)
b. . When more than 25 % of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by water, slush, snow or ice more than 3 mm deep
c)
c. When 75 % of the required runway length and width are covered by contaminants such as snow, frost, ice or sand
d)
d. When more than 50 % of the required runway length and width are covered by contaminants such as snow, frost, ice or sand
34.
Wet snow on a runway can lead to...
a)
a. . increased rolling resistance during take-off.
b)
b. reduced rolling resistance during take-off.
c)
c. an increase in lift.
d)
d. a decrease in lift.
35.
Which danger exists after a heavy rain shower for a landing aircraft?
a)
a. . Longer braking distance due to aquaplaning
b)
b. Decreased braking distance due to aquaplaning
c)
c. Displacement of the tire slip marking
d)
d. Difficult flare due to glare
36.
How should a landing on a contaminated runway be conducted if it proves to be inevitable?
a)
a. . Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down firmly with minimum speed, brake carefully
b)
b. Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use minimum flaps, touch down softly with positive pitch and minimum speed, do not apply brakes
c)
c. Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down with negative pitch and minimum speed, brake carefully
d)
d. Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use minimum flaps, touch down softly with minimum speed, do not apply brakes
37.
Which of the items below may have an influence on the noise perceived by a person on the ground? 1) Engine power setting 2) Propeller revolutions per minute 3) Position of the landing gear 4) Flap position 5) Flight track 6) Height above ground 7) Flight rules
a)
a. .1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
b)
b. 1, 5, 6
c)
c. 1, 5, 6, 7
d)
d. 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
38.
When should turns at low altitudes above villages be avoided with regard to noise abatement procedures?
a)
a. In horizontal flight
b)
b. . In climb
c)
c. During the approach
d)
d. In descent
39.
Which kind of engine is susceptible to carburettor fire?
a)
a. Turbine engines
b)
b. . Piston engines
c)
c. Electric motors
d)
d. Turboprop engines
40.
Which danger exists during engine start?
a)
a. Smoke emission
b)
b. . Carburettor fire
c)
c. Sparking
d)
d. Cable fire
41.
Smoke enters the cockpit during an engine fire. Which actions have to be taken immediately?
a)
a. . Switching off the heating and the ventilating system
b)
b. Switching off the pitot and front window heating
c)
c. Switching off the avionics and the cabin lighting
d)
d. Switching off the master switch and the ignition
42.
In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An electrical fire is suspected. Which action, with respect to the pilot's operating manual, should be taken?
a)
a. Turn off the heat
b)
b. Use the fire extinguisher
c)
c. Shut down the engine
d)
d. . Turn off the master switch
43.
In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An engine fire is suspected. Which action, with respect to the pilot's operating manual, should be taken?
a)
a. . Turn off the heat
b)
b. Shut down the engine
c)
c. Turn off the master switch
d)
d. Use the fire extinguisher
44.
Which of the following weather phenomena is most hazardous during approach and landing close to frontal thunderstorms?
a)
a. Precipitation
b)
b. Decrease in temperature
c)
c. Falling pressure
d)
d. . Gusts
45.
What action should be taken when entering a windshear? 1. Reduce speed 2. Retract gear and flaps 3. Maintain current configuration 4. Adjust thrust
a)
a. . 3 and 4
b)
b. 1 and 3
c)
c. 1 and 2
d)
d. 2 and 4
46.
After lift-off, a much stronger than expected airspeed rise is experienced during the initial climb phase. What may be expected if the aeroplane entered a microburst?
a)
a. An increased climb rate and airspeed
b)
b. . A decreased climb rate and airspeed
c)
c. An increased climb rate and decreased airspeed
d)
d. A decreased climb rate and increased airspeed
47.
Wake turbulence is caused by...
a)
a. . pressure compensation at the wingtip of an aerofoil.
b)
b. turbulence at the downwind side of a mountain range.
c)
c. jet blast behind a turbine engine.
d)
d. wind shear at the wingtip of an aerofoil.
48.
Wake turbulence is particularly strong...
a)
a. when flying at high speeds.
b)
b. when flying at high altitudes.
c)
c. . when flying at low speeds.
d)
d. when flying at low altitudes.
49.
The intensity of wake turbulence depends on...
a)
a. the propeller pitch.
b)
b. the altitude of the aeroplane.
c)
c. the temperature.
d)
d. . the weight of the aeroplane.
50.
A light aircraft intends to land behind a commercial airliner belonging to wake turbulence category "medium" or "heavy" on a long runway. How can the wake turbulence of the commercial aircraft be avoided?
a)
a. By making a shallow approach and a very short landing. The light aircraft should be able to stop before reaching the airliner's touchdown point
b)
b. By making a shallow approach and a long landing, touching down behind the touchdown point of the airliner's nose gear
c)
c. . By making a steep approach and a long landing, touching down behind the touchdown point of the airliner's nose gear
d)
d. By making a steep approach and a very short landing. The light aircraft should be able to stop before reaching the airliner's touchdown point
51.
Which area is suitable for an off-field landing?
a)
a. Glade with long dry grass
b)
b. Sports area in a village
c)
c. Plowed field
d)
d. . Harvested cornfield
52.
A landing conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land is a / an...
a)
a. . emergency landing.
b)
b. precautionary landing.
c)
c. urgent landing.
d)
d. field or out landing.
53.
Which of the following landing areas is most suitable for an off-field landing?
a)
a. A meadow without livestock
b)
b. A field with ripe waving crops
c)
c. . A light brown field with short crops
d)
d. A lake with an undisturbed surface
54.
After a precautionary landing the brakes and wheels are very hot. In which way should the pilot approach them?
a)
a. . From the front or back side
b)
b. At an angle of 45°
c)
c. From the right or left side
d)
d. From the front, right or left side
55.
What needs to be observed in conjunction with overheated brakes?
a)
a. . The affected tyres may burst in axial direction
b)
b. The affected brakes need to be cooled down with halon
c)
c. The wheel fairing shall be taken off to increase the cooldown
d)
d. The affected tyres may burst in radial direction or direction of rotation
56.
What minimum coverage with ice or snow must be given to call a runway "contaminated"?
a)
a. 10 %
b)
b. 50 %
c)
c. 75 %
d)
d. . 25 %
57.
What danger does standing water on the runway pose to aircraft?
a)
a. Decreased rolling resistance during take-off
b)
b. A decrease in lift
c)
c. . Increased rolling resistance during take-off
d)
d. An increase in lift
58.
Which would be the correct reaction when hydroplaning is suspected upon landing?
a)
a. Cross rudder and aileron controls in order to use the aircraft fuselage to brake aerodynamically
b)
b. Apply maximum braking to reduce aircraft speed to less than hydroplaning speed, then continue normal ground roll
c)
c. . If all wheels are in motion, brake moderately. Maintain directional control by aerodynamic means
d)
d. Add power and use flaps and spoilers to brake aerodynamically
59.
What does the brake coefficient specify?
a)
a. The proportion between brake force applied and landing distance
b)
b. . The proportion between friction force and contact pressing force between two objects
c)
c. The proportion between Coriolis force and contact pressing force between two objects
d)
d. The proportion between brake force applied and landing ground roll
60.
How should a landing on a contaminated runway be conducted if it proves to be inevitable?
a)
a. Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use minimum flaps, touch down softly with positive pitch and minimum speed, do not apply brakes
b)
b. Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down with negative pitch and minimum speed, brake carefully
c)
c. . Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down firmly with minimum speed, brake carefully
d)
d. Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use minimum flaps, touch down softly with minimum speed, do not apply brakes
61.
During final approach, the glider pilot realizes a very bumpy surface on a selected off-field landing site. What technique may be recommended for landing?
a)
a. Approach with increased speed, push elevetor upon first ground contact
b)
b. . Touch down with minimum speed, keep elevator pulled until full stop
c)
c. Approach with increased speed, avoid using wheel brakes
d)
d. Touch down with minimum speed, compensate different ground levels with power lever
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