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A&P Test 3

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?

a)

shoulder bones

b)

thigh bones

c)

foot bones

d)

vertebral column

2.

Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton?

a)

allows for the movement of the wrist and hand

b)

protects nerves and blood vessels at the elbow

c)

supports trunk of body

d)

allows for movements of the ankle and foot

3.

The axial skeleton ____.

a)

consists of 126 bones

b)

forms the vertical axis of the body

c)

includes all bones of the body trunk and limbs

d)

includes only the bones of the lower limbs

4.

Which of the following is a bone of the brain case?

a)

parietal bone

b)

zygomatic bone

c)

maxillary bone

d)

lacrimal bone

5.

The lambdoid suture joins the parietal bone to the ________.

a)

frontal bone

b)

occipital bone

c)

other parietal bone

d)

temporal bone

6.

The middle cranial fossa ________.

a)
  1. is bounded anteriorly by the petrous ridge

b)
  1. is bounded anteriorly by the petrous ridge

c)

is divided at the midline by a small area of the ethmoid bone

d)
  1. has the foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, and foramen spinosum

7.

The paranasal sinuses are ________.

a)
  1. air-filled spaces found within the frontal, maxilla, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones only

b)
  1. air-filled spaces found within all bones of the skull

c)
  1. not connected to the nasal cavity

d)
  1. divided at the midline by the nasal septum

8.

Parts of the sphenoid bone include the ________.

a)
  1. sella turcica

b)
  1. squamous portion

c)
  1. glabella

d)
  1. zygomatic process

9.

The bony openings of the skull include the ________.

a)
  1. carotid canal, which is located in the anterior cranial fossa

b)
  1. superior orbital fissure, which is located at the superior margin of the anterior orbit

c)
  1. mental foramen, which is located just below the orbit

d)
  1. hypoglossal canal, which is located in the posterior cranial fossa

10.

The cervical region of the vertebral column consists of ________.

a)
  1. seven vertebrae

b)
  1. 12 vertebrae

c)
  1. five vertebrae

d)
  1. a single bone derived from the fusion of five vertebrae

11.

The primary curvatures of the vertebral column ________.

a)
  1. include the lumbar curve

b)
  1. are remnants of the original fetal curvature

c)
  1. include the cervical curve

d)
  1. develop after the time of birth

12.

A typical vertebra has ________.

a)
  1. a vertebral foramen that passes through the body

b)
  1. a superior articular process that projects downward to articulate with the superior portion of the next lower vertebra

c)
  1. lamina that spans between the transverse process and spinous process

d)
  1. a pair of laterally projecting spinous processes

13.

A typical lumbar vertebra has ________.

a)
  1. a short, rounded spinous process

b)
  1. a bifid spinous process

c)
  1. articulation sites for ribs

d)
  1. a transverse foramen

14.

Which is found only in the cervical region of the vertebral column?

a)
  1. nuchal ligament

b)
  1. ligamentum flavum

c)
  1. supraspinous ligament

d)
  1. anterior longitudinal ligament

15.

The sternum ________.

a)
  1. consists of only two parts, the manubrium and xiphoid process

b)
  1. has the sternal angle located between the manubrium and body

c)
  1. receives direct attachments from the costal cartilages of all 12 pairs of ribs

d)
  1. articulates directly with the thoracic vertebrae

16.

The sternal angle is the ________.

a)
  1. junction between the body and xiphoid process

b)
  1. site for attachment of the clavicle

c)
  1. site for attachment of the floating ribs

d)
  1. junction between the manubrium and body

17.

The tubercle of a rib ________.

a)
  1. is for articulation with the transverse process of a thoracic vertebra

b)
  1. is for articulation with the body of a thoracic vertebra

c)
  1. provides for passage of blood vessels and a nerve

d)
  1. is the area of greatest rib curvature

18.

True ribs are ________.

a)
  1. ribs 8–12

b)
  1. attached via their costal cartilage to the next higher rib

c)
  1. made entirely of bone, and thus do not have a costal cartilage

d)
  1. attached via their costal cartilage directly to the sternum

19.

Embryonic development of the axial skeleton involves ________.

a)
  1. intramembranous ossification, which forms the facial bones.

b)
  1. endochondral ossification, which forms the ribs and sternum

c)
  1. the notochord, which produces the cartilage models for the vertebrae

d)
  1. the formation of hyaline cartilage models, which give rise to the flat bones of the skull

20.

A fontanelle ________.

a)
  1. is the cartilage model for a vertebra that later is converted into bone

b)
  1. gives rise to the facial bones and vertebrae

c)
  1. is the rod-like structure that runs the length of the early embryo

d)
  1. is the area of fibrous connective tissue found at birth between the brain case bones

21.

Which part of the clavicle articulates with the manubrium?

a)
  1. shaft

b)
  1. sternal end

c)
  1. acromial end

d)
  1. coracoid process

22.

A shoulder separation results from injury to the ________.

a)
  1. glenohumeral joint

b)
  1. costoclavicular joint

c)
  1. acromioclavicular joint

d)
  1. sternoclavicular joint

23.

Which feature lies between the spine and superior border of the scapula?

a)
  1. suprascapular notch

b)
  1. glenoid cavity

c)
  1. superior angle

d)
  1. supraspinous fossa

24.

What structure is an extension of the spine of the scapula?

a)
  1. acromion

b)
  1. coracoid process

c)
  1. supraglenoid tubercle

d)
  1. glenoid cavity

25.

Name the short, hook-like bony process of the scapula that projects anteriorly.

a)
  1. acromial process

b)
  1. clavicle

c)
  1. coracoid process

d)
  1. glenoid fossa

26.

How many bones are there in the upper limbs combined?

a)

20

b)

30

c)

40

d)

60

27.

Which bony landmark is located on the lateral side of the proximal humerus?

a)
  1. greater tubercle

b)
  1. trochlea

c)
  1. lateral epicondyle

d)
  1. lesser tubercle

28.

Which region of the humerus articulates with the radius as part of the elbow joint?

a)
  1. trochlea

b)
  1. styloid process

c)
  1. capitulum

d)
  1. olecranon process

29.

Which is the lateral-most carpal bone of the proximal row?

a)
  1. trapezium

b)
  1. hamate

c)
  1. pisiform

d)
  1. scaphoid

30.

The radius bone ________.

a)
  1. is found on the medial side of the forearm

b)
  1. has a head that articulates with the radial notch of the ulna

c)
  1. does not articulate with any of the carpal bones

d)
  1. has the radial tuberosity located near its distal end

31.

How many bones fuse in adulthood to form the hip bone?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

32.

Which component forms the superior part of the hip bone?

a)
  1. ilium

b)
  1. pubis

c)
  1. ischium

d)
  1. sacrum

33.

Which of the following supports body weight when sitting?

a)
  1. iliac crest

b)
  1. ischial tuberosity

c)
  1. ischiopubic ramus

d)
  1. pubic body

34.

The ischial spine is found between which of the following structures?

a)
  1. inferior pubic ramus and ischial ramus

b)
  1. pectineal line and arcuate line

c)
  1. lesser sciatic notch and greater sciatic notch

d)
  1. anterior superior iliac spine and posterior superior iliac spine

35.

The pelvis ________.

a)
  1. has a subpubic angle that is larger in females

b)
  1. consists of the two hip bones, but does not include the sacrum or coccyx

c)
  1. has an obturator foramen, an opening that is defined in part by the sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments

d)
  1. has a space located inferior to the pelvic brim called the greater pelvis

36.

Which bony landmark of the femur serves as a site for muscle attachments?

a)
  1. fovea capitis

b)
  1. lesser trochanter

c)
  1. head

d)
  1. medial condyle

37.

What structure contributes to the knee joint?

a)
  1. lateral malleolus of the fibula

b)
  1. tibial tuberosity

c)
  1. medial condyle of the tibia

d)
  1. lateral epicondyle of the femur

38.

Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia and fibula?

a)
  1. calcaneus

b)
  1. cuboid

c)
  1. navicular

d)
  1. talus

39.

What is the total number of bones found in the foot and toes?

a)

7

b)

14

c)

26

d)

30

40.

The tibia ________.

a)
  1. has an expanded distal end called the lateral malleolus

b)
  1. is not a weight-bearing bone

c)
  1. is firmly anchored to the fibula by an interosseous membrane

d)
  1. can be palpated (felt) under the skin only at its proximal and distal ends

41.

Which event takes place during the seventh week of development?

a)
  1. appearance of the upper and lower limb buds

b)
  1. flattening of the distal limb bud into a paddle shape

c)
  1. the first appearance of hyaline cartilage models of future bones

d)
  1. the rotation of the limbs

42.

During endochondral ossification of a long bone, ________.

a)
  1. a primary ossification center will develop within the epiphysis

b)
  1. mesenchyme will differentiate directly into bone tissue

c)
  1. growth of the epiphyseal plate will produce bone lengthening

d)
  1. all epiphyseal plates will disappear before birth

43.

The clavicle ________.

a)
  1. develops via intramembranous ossification

b)
  1. develops via endochondral ossification

c)
  1. is the last bone of the body to begin ossification

d)
  1. is fully ossified at the time of birth

44.

The joint between adjacent vertebrae that includes an invertebral disc is classified as which type of joint?

a)
  1. diarthrosis

b)
  1. multiaxial

c)
  1. amphiarthrosis

d)
  1. synarthrosis

45.

Which of these joints is classified as a synarthrosis?

a)
  1. the pubic symphysis

b)
  1. the manubriosternal joint

c)
  1. an invertebral disc

d)
  1. the shoulder joint

46.

Which of these joints is classified as a biaxial diarthrosis?

a)
  1. the metacarpophalangeal joint

b)
  1. the hip joint

c)
  1. the elbow joint

d)
  1. the pubic symphysis

47.

Synovial joints ________.

a)
  1. may be functionally classified as a synarthrosis

b)
  1. are joints where the bones are connected to each other by hyaline cartilage

c)
  1. may be functionally classified as an amphiarthrosis

d)
  1. are joints where the bones articulate with each other within a fluid-filled joint cavity

48.

Which type of fibrous joint connects the tibia and fibula?

a)
  1. syndesmosis

b)
  1. symphysis

c)
  1. suture

d)
  1. gomphosis

49.

An example of a wide fibrous joint is ________.

a)
  1. the interosseous membrane of the forearm

b)
  1. a gomphosis

c)
  1. a suture joint

d)
  1. a synostosis

50.

A gomphosis ________.

a)
  1. is formed by an interosseous membrane

b)
  1. connects the tibia and fibula bones of the leg

c)
  1. contains a joint cavity

d)
  1. anchors a tooth to the jaw

51.

A syndesmosis is ________.

a)
  1. a narrow fibrous joint

b)
  1. the type of joint that unites bones of the skull

c)
  1. a fibrous joint that unites parallel bones

d)
  1. the type of joint that anchors the teeth in the jaws

52.

A cartilaginous joint ________.

a)
  1. has a joint cavity

b)
  1. is called a symphysis when the bones are united by fibrocartilage

c)
  1. anchors the teeth to the jaws

d)
  1. is formed by a wide sheet of fibrous connective tissue

53.

A synchondrosis is ________.

a)
  1. found at the pubic symphysis

b)
  1. where bones are connected together with fibrocartilage

c)
  1. a type of fibrous joint

d)
  1. found at the first sternocostal joint of the thoracic cage

54.

Which of the following are joined by a symphysis?

a)
  1. adjacent vertebrae

b)
  1. the first rib and the sternum

c)
  1. the end and shaft of a long bone

d)
  1. the radius and ulna bones

55.

The epiphyseal plate of a growing long bone in a child is classified as a ________.

a)
  1. synchondrosis

b)
  1. synostosis

c)
  1. symphysis


d)
  1. syndesmosis


56.

Which type of joint provides the greatest range of motion?

a)
  1. ball-and-socket


b)

hinge

c)

condyloid

d)

plane

57.

Which type of joint allows for only uniaxial movement?

a)

saddle joint

b)

hinge joint

c)

condyloid joint

d)

ball-and-socket joint

58.

Which of the following is a type of synovial joint?

a)
  1. a synostosis

b)
  1. a suture


c)
  1. a plane joint


d)
  1. a synchondrosis


59.

A bursa ________.

a)
  1. surrounds a tendon at the point where the tendon crosses a joint

b)
  1. secretes the lubricating fluid for a synovial joint


c)
  1. prevents friction between skin and bone, or a muscle tendon and bone


d)
  1. is the strong band of connective tissue that holds bones together at a synovial joint


60.

At synovial joints, ________.

a)
  1. the articulating ends of the bones are directly connected by fibrous connective tissue


b)
  1. the ends of the bones are enclosed within a space called a subcutaneous bursa


c)
  1. intrinsic ligaments are located entirely inside of the articular capsule


d)
  1. the joint cavity is filled with a thick, lubricating fluid


61.

At a synovial joint, the synovial membrane ________.

a)
  1. forms the fibrous connective walls of the joint cavity


b)
  1. is the layer of cartilage that covers the articulating surfaces of the bones


c)
  1. forms the intracapsular ligaments


d)
  1. secretes the lubricating synovial fluid


62.

Condyloid joints ________.

a)
  1. are a type of ball-and-socket joint


b)
  1. include the radiocarpal joint


c)
  1. are a uniaxial diarthrosis joint


d)
  1. are found at the proximal radioulnar joint


63.

.

A meniscus is ________.

a)
  1. a fibrocartilage pad that provides padding between bones


b)
  1. a fluid-filled space that prevents friction between a muscle tendon and underlying bone


c)
  1. the articular cartilage that covers the ends of a bone at a synovial joint


d)
  1. the lubricating fluid within a synovial joint


64.

The joints between the articular processes of adjacent vertebrae can contribute to which movement?

a)

lateral flexion

b)

circumdiction

c)

dorsiflexion

d)

abduction

65.

Which motion moves the bottom of the foot away from the midline of the body?

a)

elevaiton

b)

dorsiflexion

c)

eversion

d)

plantar flexion

66.

Movement of a body region in a circular movement at a condyloid joint is what type of motion?

a)

rotation

b)

elevation

c)

abduction

d)

circumduction

67.

Supination is the motion that moves the ________.

a)
  1. hand from the palm backward position to the palm forward position


b)
  1. foot so that the bottom of the foot faces the midline of the body


c)
  1. hand from the palm forward position to the palm backward position


d)
  1. scapula in an upward direction


68.

Movement at the shoulder joint that moves the upper limb laterally away from the body is called ________.

a)

elevation

b)

eversion

c)

abduction

d)

lateral rotation

69.

The primary support for the glenohumeral joint is provided by the ________.

a)
  1. coracohumeral ligament


b)
  1. glenoid labrum

c)
  1. rotator cuff muscles


d)
  1. subacromial bursa


70.

The proximal radioulnar joint ________.

a)
  1. is supported by the annular ligament


b)
  1. contains an articular disc that strongly unites the bones


c)
  1. is supported by the ulnar collateral ligament


d)
  1. is a hinge joint that allows for flexion/extension of the forearm


71.

Which statement is true concerning the knee joint?

a)
  1. The lateral meniscus is an intrinsic ligament located on the lateral side of the knee joint.


b)
  1. Hyperextension is resisted by the posterior cruciate ligament.


c)
  1. The anterior cruciate ligament supports the knee when it is flexed and weight bearing.


d)
  1. The medial meniscus is attached to the tibial collateral ligament.


72.

The ankle joint ________.

a)
  1. is also called the subtalar joint


b)
  1. allows for gliding movements that produce inversion/eversion of the foot


c)
  1. is a uniaxial hinge joint


d)
  1. is supported by the tibial collateral ligament on the lateral side


73.

Which region of the vertebral column has the greatest range of motion for rotation?

a)
  1. cervical


b)

thoracic

c)

lumbar

d)

sacral

74.

Intramembranous ossification ________.

a)
  1. gives rise to the bones of the limbs


b)
  1. produces the bones of the top and sides of the skull


c)
  1. produces the bones of the face and base of the skull


d)
  1. involves the conversion of a hyaline cartilage model into bone


75.

Synovial joints ________.

a)
  1. are derived from fontanelles


b)
  1. are produced by intramembranous ossification


c)
  1. develop at an interzone site


d)
  1. are produced by endochondral ossification


76.

Endochondral ossification is ________.

a)
  1. the process that replaces hyaline cartilage with bone tissue


b)
  1. the process by which mesenchyme differentiates directly into bone tissue


c)
  1. completed before birth


d)
  1. the process that gives rise to the joint interzone and future joint cavity