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Mock Final Exam Hospitality Mgmt

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

One of the contributions of the Expectancy Theory to compensation is that:

a)

organisations must ensure that the reward has significance or value to the receiver.

b)

when developing compensation strategy, there must be both intrinsic and extrinsic rewards.

c)

company policy, recognition and relationships must be given priority in distributing compensation.

d)

employees must work hard in order to achieve the performance standards that are required.

2.

When words communicate one message while actions, body language or    appearance communicates another, the receiver is likely getting:

a)

feedback.

b)

perception.

c)

a clear message.

d)

a mixed message.

3.

An employee attends a training program because it allows her to obtain recognition and a good chance of promotion. Thus, the training program has high ________ for her.

a)

expectancy

 

b)

   instrumentality

c)

    self-efficacy

d)

valence

4.

In Malaysia, statutory benefits that must be given to employees include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

paid maternity leave.

b)

bonus.

c)

social security deductions.

d)

employee provident fund contributions.

5.

The Job Characteristics Model states that _____ are required for meaningful work.

a)

skill variety, task identity, and task significance

   

b)

skill variety, direction, and communication

c)

   task identity, direction, and autonomy

 

d)

task significance, communication, and feedback

6.
Jingxi meets regularly with other employees from various departments. As a group leader, her job is to ensure that the group as a whole addresses important workplace issues. In her meetings she is trying to enhance interactions among team members so that members are able to work together to address these issues successfully. She is: 
a)
allocating duties to employees. 
b)
is demonstrating high concern for task. 
c)
increasing the level of cohesion in the team. 
d)
delegating work to employees. 
7.

A basic corrective action:

a)

corrects a problem as soon as it occurs in order to get the performance back on track.

b)

adjusts the performance standards to reflect the current and predicted future performance capabilities.

c)

determines how and why performance has deviated and then corrects the source of the deviation.

d)

must function harmoniously within the organisation’s existing control processes and not bottleneck its operations.

8.

To deal with social loafing in a team, the supervisor may:

a)

just ignore it because there is no point scolding the team member.

b)

give the person extra rewards and hope that they feel guilty

c)

ask another member to encourage this person to work harder

d)

redefine tasks to make individual contributions more obvious

9.

When group members are reluctant to voice their concerns and disagreements because they want to maintain harmony, we can say that the group is experiencing:

a)

social loafing.

b)

group norms.

c)

group cohesion.

d)

groupthink.

10.

Anna's newly formed group is experiencing conflict over who is in charge and what the group needs to be doing. Anna's team is now in the ____stage of group development.

a)

forming

b)

storming

c)

norming

d)

performing

11.

Jenny's team members removed her from the team because she was always absent from meetings and did not contribute anything to the team's output. Jenny was removed because she:

a)

created a groupthink situation.

b)

failed to follow the group's norms.

c)

was a highly cohesive member of the team.

d)

adhered to the workplace behaviours.

12.

To avoid groupthink, managers should do all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

have members consult outside experts before making a decision.

b)

hold meeting to double check and validate a decision.

c)

encourage consensus and discourage disagreement among group members.

13.

To motivate team members, managers can give them the freedom to decide how to carry out their work. This technique is called employee or team:

a)

skill variety.

b)

task identity.

c)

autonomy.

d)

feedback.

14.

In giving constructive feedback, supervisors should focus on:

a)

non-verbal cues and messages.

b)

giving periodic communication about performance.

c)

changing behaviours that require the supervisor’s assistance.

d)

the individual’s behaviours or actions rather than his/her personality.

15.

In Fiedler’s contingency model, BOTH highly favourable and highly unfavourable leadership situations are best dealt with by a _____leader.

a)

participative

b)

laissez-faire

c)

task-motivated leader

d)

relationship-motivated

16.

_____ occurs when a group of people are able to achieve more than what its members can do by working individually.

a)

Social loafing

b)

Consensus

c)

Viability

d)

Synergy

17.

The key outputs of an effective team are:

a)

task performance, member satisfaction and team viabiity.

b)

resources, leadership and trust.

c)

direction, momentum and commitment.

d)

common purpose, aggregation of goals and interdependent tasks.

18.

When a manager uses e-mail to send a message that is better delivered face-to-face, the communication process suffers from:

a)

semantic problems.

b)

a poor choice of channel.

c)

physical distractions.

d)

information overload.

19.
Which source of power comes from what others believe a member knows or can do?
a)
expert power 
b)
referent power 
c)
legitimate power 
d)
position power 
20.

Which of the following explains the contingency approach to leadership?

a)

Group situations vary with different situations, requiring different leadership styles.

b)

Members' skills and experience will affect the type of leadership likely to be effective.

c)

The authority of the position will vary according to the situation.

d)

all of the above

21.

Fiedler’s Contingency Theory states that ____, ____, and ____ are the factors that determine a leader’s situational control.

a)

Referent power, leadership style and task structure

b)

Personal power, leadership style and leader-member relations

c)

Expert power, task structure and leadership style

d)

Position power, task structure and leader-member relations

22.

Hersey and Blanchard’s Situational Leadership Model asks the leader to consider which TWO (2) leadership behaviour types?

a)

Age and experience of followers

b)

Directive behaviour and supportive behaviour

c)

Competence and willingness of followers

d)

The emotional and physical state of the leader

23.

According to Hershey and Blanchard, managers using the ‘delegating’ leadership style:

a)

provide little direction or support and adopt a low task-low relationship approach to leading.

b)

use facilitation and communication as their main role and adopt a low task – high relationship approach to leading.

c)

provide both direction and support and adopt a high task-high relationship approach to leading.

d)

define roles, what, how, when and where to do tasks as well as adopting a high task-low relationship approach to leading

24.

Which category of follower is considered to be both unable and unwilling to complete a task?

 

a)

R1

b)

R2

c)

R3

d)

R4

25.

The Trait Theory of Leadership looked into finding characteristics that may:

a)

distinguish ordinary leaders from great leaders.

b)

differentiate leaders from non-leaders.

c)

define charisma.

d)

identify the physical traits of leaders.

26.

The Job Characteristics Model states that _____ are required for meaningful work.

a)

task significance, communication, and feedback

b)

task identity, direction, and autonomy

c)

   skill variety, direction, and communication

d)

skill variety, task identity, and task significance

27.

A fast-food restaurant is asking its customers about the toppings they would like to see in a new pizza. What kind of control is being used by the restaurant?

a)

Feedforward control

b)

Concurrent control

c)

Feedback control

d)

Anticipatory control

28.

Jorge works longer hours than his co-workers but is paid lesser than others doing the same work. According to the Equity theory, Jorge is most likely to:

a)

have high motivation to show his value to the organization.

b)

lack motivation because he does not receive enough reward for what he does.

c)

have just the right motivation to get the job done.

d)

have high motivation due to high self-esteem.

29.

Proxemics in communication involves:

a)

making sure that people are well-informed.

b)

being very careful in the choice of written and spoken words.

c)

arranging work space to encourage interaction.

d)

avoiding sending mixed messages.

30.

Groupthink is MOST LIKELY to occur in teams that are:

a)

large in size.

b)

diverse in membership.

c)

high performing.

d)

highly cohesive.

31.

The following are benefits of training EXCEPT

a)

Increases employee's productivity

b)

Keep employees knowledge and skills up-to-date

c)

Help attract and retain talented employees

d)

Decreases employees' job satisfaction

32.

What is a benefit of training for employees?

a)

It leads to greater employee dissatisfaction

b)

It increases the opportunities for promotion

c)

It increases employees' intention to quit their jobs

d)

It takes up a lot of time and effort

33.

A newly appointed Supervisor asks your advice on the right training method to use to develop trainees’ skills and confidence while allowing them to practice these skills with each other. What training method would you recommend?

a)

Case studies

b)

Role plays

c)

Demonstrations

d)

Speaker series

34.

As part of his development as an employee, Andrew has spent time working in the front office, the housekeeping and, purchasing departments. Andrew is most likely engaged in:

a)

business games.

b)

action learning.

c)

job rotation.

d)

vestibule training.

35.

The employees of the future must have the ability to learn, un-learn and re-learn. What is the impact of this requirement on training and development?

a)

Training and development methods must no longer include apprenticeship programmes

b)

Training and development programmes must survey trainee satisfaction to ensure that they had a good time during this process.

c)

Training and development must move away from formative types of assessments to summative assessments

d)

Training and development must emphasise new skills needed to cope with automation and digitisation

36.

In the training process, summative evaluation:

a)

measures results upon completion of the training.

b)

demonstrates the steps that must be taken to complete a task.

c)

prepares the trainees to undergo the training programme.

d)

repeats the steps in the training activity as many times as necessary.

37.

What is 'future ready learning'?

a)

a permanent change in the way learning at higher educational institutions are delivered to students so that skills such as leadership, teamwork and entrepreneurship are given greater emphasis.

b)

the development of literacy, numeracy, and science skills as well as exceptional ICT skills and cultural and civic literacy, to enable them to understand the world around them.

c)

a relatively permanent change in behaviour as a result of experience where employees must learn to un-learn continuously to be able to take on the challenges of the future.

d)

the development of skills and attributes, that will provide learners with the tools they need to be successful, curious, engaged, and resilient individuals who are able to take on today’s as well as future challenges

38.

Which of the following would MOST LIKELY make material presented during a training program more meaningful to trainees?

a)

Using familiar examples

b)

Providing guest speakers

c)

Providing short breaks

d)

   Encouraging group work

39.

A charismatic leader is someone who:

a)

uses his/her expert knowledge to win over followers.

b)

leads followers who are able, willing but not confident in their abilities.

c)

is enthusiastic, confident and inspires followers in extraordinary ways.

d)

guides or motivates followers to achieve goals by clarifying roles and tasks.

40.

The (5,5) coordinates on Blake and Mouton’s  managerial grid explains a leadership style where:

a)

a leader gives priority to the accomplishment of the task, with minimal concern for the satisfaction of employees.

b)

compromise is the norm and managers try to maintain a balance between the goals of the company and the needs of the people.

c)

leadership is based on efficiency by emphasising the importance of work and deadlines.

d)

managers show low concern for employee satisfaction or for work results that often results in disorganisation.

41.

The purpose of communication is to acquire:

a)

information, feelings and frustrations.

b)

instructions, ideas and feedback.

c)

emotions, feelings and ideas.

d)

information, ideas and instructions.

42.

When the intended meaning of the sender and the interpreted meaning of the receiver are the same, then the communication is:

a)

selective.

b)

efficient.

c)

effective.

d)

ineffective.

43.

The observation of a candidate's facial expressions is an example of:

a)

listening.

b)

empathy.

c)

non-verbal communication.

d)

direct communication.

44.

Leslie purposely overstates the restaurant's monthly revenues in order to look good in the upcoming performance appraisal. Leslie has:

a)

filtered the communication.

b)

provided a mixed message.

c)

participated in active listening.

d)

manipulated the decoding process.

45.

In order for effective communication to occur,

a)

the message must be transferred using the correct decoding process.

b)

jargons must be used to clarify meaning of message.

c)

facial expressions and tone of voice must be ignored.

d)

meaning must not only be transferred but must also be understood.

46.

Selective perception is

a)

words that have different meanings to different people and receivers will use their definition of words being communicated.

b)

communication differences arising from the different languages that individuals use to communicate and the national culture of which they are a part.

c)

words that have different meanings to different people and receivers will use their definition of words being communicated.

d)

receiving communications on the basis of what one selectively sees and hears depending on his or her needs, motivation, experience, background, and other personal characteristics.

47.

Cultural etiquette refers to:

a)

appropriate manners and behavior when communicating with people from other cultures

b)

ensuring that materials presented to stakeholders contains all the relevant information, is true in every sense, and is not deceptive in any way.

c)

appropriate use of technology can facilitate more and better communication.

48.
Which of these is NOT an example of a verbal communication skill
a)
The speed of our speech
b)
Eye contact
c)
Language used
d)
Volume of speech
49.

A manager's course of action should be ‘to do nothing’ in the control process when:

a)

the variance is acceptable.

b)

the standard is not acceptable.

c)

the standard is acceptable.

    

d)

the cause of the variation has been identified.

50.

Developing training objectives involves:

a)

examining the environment and resources of the organisation to determine where training emphasis should be placed.

b)

assisting trainers to connect the purposes of the training programme with its content.

c)

organising the training content and providing an overview of the structure and sequence of the entire training programme.

d)

providing training materials and activities that would help develop a more knowledgeable and skilled staff member.

51.

According to Maslow:

a)

self-actualisation needs must be given priority by employees to ensure job satisfaction.

b)

employees with a higher need for affiliation are more likely to be successful as managers.

c)

higher order needs are always more important and should be satisfied before considering the lower order needs.

d)

lower order needs must be satisfied before higher order needs may be addressed.

52.

The outputs of effective teams are:

a)

norms, cohesion, and communication.

b)

resources, structures, and technology.

c)

task performance, member satisfaction, and team viability.

d)

rewards, diversity, and abilities.

53.

A grapevine MOST likely:

a)

creates conditions that encourage the spread of rumours.

b)

decodes the message using the right medium.

c)

avoids the use of nonverbal gestures.

d)

results in decision paralysis.

54.

Personal bias and perception can cause the receiver to misunderstand the intended meaning of the message. This would be an example of _____in the communication process.

a)

static.

b)

encoding.

c)

mixed messages.

d)

noise.

55.

When Joey's asked for his manager’s advice on a particular issue, he was told, “You decide on what to do.” Joey’s manager has a(n) __________style.

a)

autocratic

b)

democratic

c)

laissez faire

d)

participative

56.

Lucas, a HR manager, has been assigned the task of creating a training programme for his company’s customer service employees. In accordance with the training process, what is the FIRST step that Lucas should take?

a)

Assess the programme’s success or failure

b)

Conduct a training needs analysis

c)

Design the programme content

d)

Train the targeted group of employees

57.

Consider the following scenario:

 

Team members are always disagreeing with each other, refuse to work together and do not share resources.

 

To deal with this scenario, you, as the team leader should:

a)

include dominant new members.

b)

increase the team’s size.

c)

introduce groupthink.

d)

start competition with another group.

58.

Legitimate power in leadership comes from:

a)

organizational authority

b)

a role acknowledged by the followers

c)

leadership skills

d)

identification with other leaders

59.
What is referent power in leadership?
a)
power that stems from a person's leadership skills
b)
power that is designated by an organizational authority
c)
power that group members acknowledge because of special circumstances
d)
power that is based on attraction or identification with another person
60.

Michael is a type of manager who is concerned mainly with accomplishing goals and objectives and concentrates on the task itself. His behavioral style is called:

a)

dictatorial

b)

democratic

c)

task oriented

d)

people oriented

61.

If a manager is rated (2,2) on the Managerial Grid, it can be said that he/she has a:

a)

high concern for people and a low concern for production.

b)

high concern for people and a moderate concern for production.

c)

low concern for people and a high concern for production.

d)

low concern for people and a low concern for production.

62.

What is delegation?

a)

Giving authority to subordinates to do a particular task

b)

Passing down full responsibility to subordinates

c)

Ordering workers to do certain jobs

d)

Keeping full control with senior managers

63.
What is Intrinsic Motivation?
a)
Being motivated by positive feelings associated with doing well on a task or job 
b)
Being motivated by monetary bonuses
c)
Being promoted based on performance
d)
Being motivated by positive feelings associated with doing well when working with other people 
64.

According to Maslow, belonging to and acceptance from a particular group can help meet which level of human needs?

a)

benefits in kind

b)

teamworking

c)

security

d)

social

65.

Motivating Theory X employees to perform requires management through:

a)

participation and leadership.

b)

delegation and communication

c)

fear and control.

d)

laissez faire approaches.

66.

Compensation paid by employers to employees in addition to salary or wages is known as:

a)

benefits.

b)

stocks.

c)

insurance.

d)

taxes.

67.

The Job Characteristics Model states that _____ are required for meaningful work.

a)

skill variety, task identity, and task significance

   

b)

skill variety, direction, and communication

c)

   task identity, direction, and autonomy

 

d)

task significance, communication, and feedback

68.

The Job Characteristics Model states that _____ are required for meaningful work.

a)

skill variety, task identity, and task significance

   

b)

skill variety, direction, and communication

c)

   task identity, direction, and autonomy

 

d)

task significance, communication, and feedback

69.

The observation of a candidate's facial expressions is an example of:

a)

listening.

b)

empathy.

c)

non-verbal communication.

d)

direct communication.

70.

In order for effective communication to occur,

a)

the message must be transferred using the correct decoding process.

b)

jargons must be used to clarify meaning of message.

c)

facial expressions and tone of voice must be ignored.

d)

meaning must not only be transferred but must also be understood.