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ACC 214 Second Exam

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

It is a set of interrelated, centrally coordinated data files that are stored with as little data redundancy as possible.

a)

Database

b)

Database Management System

c)

Database System

d)

Database Administrator

e)

Data Warehouse

2.

Which of the following can be customized for quicker access to your most commonly used commands?

a)

Print Preview

b)

Quick Access Toolbar

c)

Printer setup

d)

Workbook

3.

When you modify the ribbon, which of the following is created?

a)

command

b)

tab

c)

button

d)

worksheet

4.

Which predesigned field already has a significant amount of formatting, text, and other features?

a)

Blank workbook

b)

Preset file

c)

Text file

d)

Template

5.

Which of the following commands is used to insert a cell into a worksheet?

a)

The Insert command in the Cells group on the Home tab

b)

The Format command in the Cells group on the Home tab

c)

The Format Painter command in the Clipboard group on the Home tab

d)

The Format command in the shortcut menu when you right-click a cell

6.

You want to format a cell so the text is spread evenly throughout the cell, wrapping automatically and adjusting the row height, if necessary. Which of the following alignment options should be used?

a)

Center

b)

Middle Align

c)

Justify

d)

Top Align

7.

Which of the following can you not copy using Format Painter?

a)

Font color

b)

Bold

c)

Font size

d)

Cell content

8.

You don’t like the cell style you just applied. Which of the following is the least effective way to remove or replace the style?

a)

Apply another style to the cell.

b)

Use the Undo command.

c)

Clear the cell’s content.

d)

Apply the Normal style to the cell.

9.

Which of the following is not useful for changing the font size?

a)

Font Size drop-down list

b)

Increase Font Size button

c)

Decrease Font Size button

d)

Increase Indent button

10.

When you delete cells in a worksheet, you remove one or more cells, forcing other cells to move down or to the right.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

11.

When you point to defined styles in the Cell Styles gallery, you can see the formatting that will be used when you apply each style.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

12.

Style attributes include fonts and font sizes, number formats, and borders and shading.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

13.

To access an Excel template, you can click the File tab and then click New.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

14.

You cannot split a single worksheet cell that has not been merged.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

15.

After you select a color and apply it to a cell’s background, the Fill Color button takes on that color.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

16.

The order of of operations determines which parts of a formula are calculated before other parts of the formula.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

17.

The Formula = 6 2 / 3 produces the same result as = 6 (2 / 3).

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

18.

The AVERAGE Function returns the mean value in a range of selected cells.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

19.

The COUNT Function returns the total number of cells in the selected range that contain both text and numbers.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

20.

The MAX function returns the total of all cells in the selected range.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

21.

If you have too many columns on a page, the only option to see them all on a printed page is to decrease the column width.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

22.

The MIN function returns the smallest value in a range of cells.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

23.

You can access Backstage view by pressing Ctrl+B.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

24.

You must use the AutoSum button to enter a SUM function—you cannot type it manually in a cell.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

25.

In Excel, you can add your most commonly used commands to the Quick Access Toolbar.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

26.

You can create a completely new ribbon tab as well as groups on that ribbon.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

27.

To allow Excel to distinguish formulas from data, all formulas begin with an equal sign (=).

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

28.

Regarding a named range, the scope of a name is the location within which Excel recognizes the name without qualification.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

29.

You can create a new range by selecting the cells and typing a name in the Name Box next to the formula bar.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

30.

It consolidates records previously stored in separate files into a common pool and serves a variety of users and data processing applications.

a)

Database

b)

Database Management System

c)

Database System

d)

Database Administrator

e)

Data Warehouse

31.

Which of the following is not an arithmetic operator?

a)

+

b)

c)

*

d)

]

32.

Per the order of operations, which of the following is calculated first?

a)

Addition (+) and subtraction (−) (left to right)

b)

Exponentiation (ˆ)

c)

Percent (%)

d)

Negative number (−)

33.

Which of the following calculates the total from the adjacent cell through the first non-numeric cell by default, using the SUM function in its formula?

a)

AVERAGE

b)

AutoSum

c)

COUNT

d)

MAX

34.

You want to add a range of cells and then divide by the number of cell entries, determining the mean value of all values in the range. Which function should be used?

a)

AVERAGE

b)

AutoSum

c)

COUNT

d)

MAX

35.

You want to calculate the number of nonblank cells in your worksheet. Which function should be used?

a)

AVERAGE

b)

COUNTA

c)

COUNT

d)

MAX

36.

Which of the following is an acceptable name for a named range?

a)

C7

b)

subtotal_west

c)

subtotal west

d)

subtotal/west

37.

The COUNT and MIN functions are examples of which category of functions?

a)

text

b)

statistical

c)

financial

d)

logical

38.

Which of the following statements accurately describes the default selection for AutoSum?

a)

You must make the selection before clicking AutoSum.

b)

By default, AutoSum totals all entries above the cell in whichthe formulaa is located,

even if the cells contain a mix of numeric and non-numeric content.

c)

By default, AutoSum calculates the total from the adjacent cell through the first non-numeric cell.

d)

AutoSum does not have a default selection.

39.

Which of the following is an example of an absolute cell reference?

a)

A9

b)

A$9

c)

$A$9

d)

A9:E9

40.

Which of the following is an example of a mixed cell reference?

a)

A9

b)

A$9

c)

$A$9

d)

A9:E9

41.

The program that manages and controls the data and the interfaces between the data and the application programs that use the data stored in the database.

a)

Database

b)

Database Management System

c)

Database System

d)

Database Administrator

e)

Data Warehouse

42.

The database, the DBMS, and the application programs that access the database through the DBMS.

a)

Database

b)

Database Management System

c)

Database System

d)

Database Administrator

e)

Data Warehouse

43.

The person responsible for coordinating, controlling, and managing the database.

a)

Database

b)

Database Management System

c)

Database System

d)

Database Administrator

e)

Data Warehouse

44.

The physical location of the data. It can be a hard drive, optical disk, or flash drive.

a)

Online Database

b)

Database Management System

c)

Physical Database

d)

Data Warehouse

45.

Very large databases containing detailed and summarized data for a number of years that are used for analysis rather than transaction processing.

a)

Database

b)

Database Management System

c)

Database System

d)

Database Administrator

e)

Data Warehouse

46.

It provides a controlled environment to assist and prevent the user from accessing and updating the data in the Database.

a)

Database

b)

Database Management System

c)

Database System

d)

Database Administrator

e)

Data Warehouse

47.

It translates user-logical views into instructions on which data should be retrieved from the database.

a)

Database

b)

Database Management System

c)

Database System

d)

Database Administrator

e)

Data Warehouse

48.

It translates DBMS requests into instructions to physically retrieve data from various storage devices.

a)

Database

b)

Database Management System

c)

Database System

d)

Operating System

e)

Data Warehouse

49.

It allows users to access, query, or update the Database

a)

Database

b)

Database Management System

c)

Database System

d)

Database Administrator

e)

Data Warehouse

50.

It is the data of the data.

a)

Metadata

b)

Ultradata

c)

Superdata

d)

Gigadata

51.

The types of data management problems caused by data redundancy are the following except

a)

data storage

b)

data updating

c)

the currency of information

d)

task data dependency

e)

wide integration of data.

52.

User's inability to obtain additional information as his or her needs change.

a)

data storage

b)

data updating

c)

the currency of information

d)

task data dependency

e)

wide integration of data.

53.

User's information set is constrained by the data that he or she possesses and controls.

a)

data storage

b)

data updating

c)

the currency of information

d)

task data dependency

e)

wide integration of data.

54.

Analyzing large amounts of data for strategic decision-making.

a)

Business Intelligence

b)

Online Analytical Processing

(OLAP)

c)

Data Mining

d)

Record Layout

55.

Using queries to investigate hypothesized relationships among data.

a)

Business Intelligence

b)

Online Analytical Processing

(OLAP)

c)

Data Mining

d)

Record Layout

56.

Using sophisticated statistical analysis to “discover” unhypothesized relationships in the data.

a)

Business Intelligence

b)

Online Analytical Processing

(OLAP)

c)

Data Mining

d)

Record Layout

57.

Document that shows the items stored in a file, including the order and length of the data fields and the type of data stored.

a)

Business Intelligence

b)

Online Analytical Processing

(OLAP)

c)

Data Mining

d)

Record Layout

58.

How people conceptually organize, view, and understand the relationships among data items.

a)

Logical view

b)

Physical view

c)

Schema

d)

Record layout

59.

The way data are physically arranged and stored in the computer system.

a)

Logical view

b)

Physical view

c)

Schema

d)

Record layout

60.

A description of the data elements in a database, the relationships among them, and the logical model used to organize and describe the data.

a)

Logical view

b)

Physical view

c)

Schema

d)

Record layout

61.

The organization-wide view of the entire database that lists all data elements and the relationships between them.

a)

conceptual-level schema

b)

external-level schema

c)

schema

d)

subschema

e)

internal-level schema

62.

An individual user’s view of portions of a database; also called a subschema.

a)

conceptual-level schema

b)

external-level schema

c)

schema

d)

subschema

e)

internal-level schema

63.

A subset of the schema; the way the user defines the data and the data relationships.

a)

conceptual-level schema

b)

external-level schema

c)

schema

d)

subschema

e)

internal-level schema

64.

A low-level view of the entire database describing how the data are actually stored and accessed.

a)

conceptual-level schema

b)

external-level schema

c)

schema

d)

subschema

e)

internal-level schema

65.

Details about data storage, such as record layouts, definitions, addresses, indexes.

a)

conceptual-level schema

b)

external-level schema

c)

schema

d)

subschema

e)

internal-level schema

66.

Information about the structure of the database, including a description of each data element.

a)

data dictionary

b)

data definition language (DDL)

c)

data manipulation language

(DML)

d)

data query language (DQL)

e)

report writer

67.

DBMS language that builds the data dictionary, creates the database, describes logical views, and specifies record or field security constraints.

a)

data dictionary

b)

data definition language (DDL)

c)

data manipulation language

(DML)

d)

data query language (DQL)

e)

report writer

68.

DBMS language that changes database content, including data element creations, updates, insertions, and deletions.

a)

data dictionary

b)

data definition language (DDL)

c)

data manipulation language

(DML)

d)

data query language (DQL)

e)

report writer

69.

High-level, English-like, DBMS language that contains powerful, easy-to-use commands that enable users to retrieve, sort, order, and display data.

a)

data dictionary

b)

data definition language (DDL)

c)

data manipulation language

(DML)

d)

data query language (DQL)

e)

report writer

70.

DBMS language that simplifies report creation.

a)

data dictionary

b)

data definition language (DDL)

c)

data manipulation language

(DML)

d)

data query language (DQL)

e)

report writer

71.

An abstract representation of database contents.

a)

data model

b)

relational data model

c)

tuple

d)

primary key

e)

foreign key

72.

A two-dimensional table representation of data; each row represents a unique entity (record) and each column is a field where record attributes are stored.

a)

data model

b)

relational data model

c)

tuple

d)

primary key

e)

foreign key

73.

A row in a table that contains data about a specific item in a database table.

a)

data model

b)

relational data model

c)

tuple

d)

primary key

e)

foreign key

74.

Database attribute, or combination of attributes, that uniquely identifies each row in a table.

a)

data model

b)

relational data model

c)

tuple

d)

primary key

e)

foreign key

75.

An attribute in a table that is also a primary key in another table; used to link the two tables.

a)

data model

b)

relational data model

c)

tuple

d)

primary key

e)

foreign key

76.

A database built using the relational data model.

a)

data model

b)

relational data model

c)

relational database

d)

primary key

e)

foreign key

77.

A non-null primary key ensures that every row in a table represents something and that it can be identified.

a)

entity integrity rule

b)

referential integrity rule

c)

normalization

d)

semantic data modeling

78.

Foreign keys that link rows in one table to rows in another table must have values that correspond to the value of a primary key in another table.

a)

entity integrity rule

b)

referential integrity rule

c)

normalization

d)

semantic data modeling

79.

Following relational database creation rules to design a relational database that is free from delete, insert, and update anomalies.

a)

entity integrity rule

b)

referential integrity rule

c)

normalization

d)

semantic data modeling

80.

Using knowledge of business processes and information needs to create a diagram that shows what to include in a fully normalized database (in 3NF).

a)

entity integrity rule

b)

referential integrity rule

c)

normalization

d)

semantic data modeling

81.

The constraint that all primary keys must have nonnull data values is referred to as which of the following?

a)

entity integrity rule

b)

referential integrity rule

c)

normalization

d)

semantic data modeling

82.

The constraint that all foreign keys must have either null values or the value of a primary key in another table is referred to as which of the following?

a)

entity integrity rule

b)

referential integrity rule

c)

normalization

d)

semantic data modeling

83.

The following are examples of Database Management System except?

a)

MySQL

b)

Microsoft Access

c)

SQLite

d)

Oracle

e)

None of the above

84.

Which of the following attributes in the Cash Receipts table (representing payments received from customers) would most likely be a foreign key?

a)

cash receipt number

b)

customer check number

c)

customer number

d)

cash receipt date

85.

Which of the following is where you can save, select a template, change document properties, and close or exit Excel?

a)

Backstage

b)

Print

c)

Edit

d)

Windows

86.

To change printer, layout, or margin settings, you click the File tab and use which of the following options?

a)

Info

b)

Options

c)

Print

d)

Open

87.

The relational data model portrays data as being stored in __________.

a)

hierarchies

b)

tables

c)

objects

d)

files

88.

How a user conceptually organizes and understands data is referred to as the __________.

a)

physical view

b)

logical view

c)

data model view

d)

data organization view

89.

What is each row in a relational database table called?

a)

relation

b)

attribute

c)

anomaly

d)

tuple

90.

Which of the following is an individual user’s view of the database?

a)

conceptual-level schema

b)

external-level schema

c)

internal-level schema

d)

logical-level schema

91.

Which of the following would managers most likely use to retrieve information about sales during the month of October?

a)

DML

b)

DSL

c)

DDL

d)

DQL

92.

Which of the following is a software program that runs a database system?

a)

DBMS

b)

DSL

c)

DDL

d)

DQL

93.

Which of the following attributes would most likely be a primary key?

a)

supplier name

b)

supplier number

c)

supplier Zip code

d)

supplier account balance

94.

The following are the basic requirements of a relational database except?

a)

Every column in a row must be single valued.

b)

Primary keys cannot be null.

c)

Foreign keys, if not null, must have values that correspond to the value of a primary

key in another table

d)

All nonkey attributes in a table must describe a characteristic of the object identified by the primary key

e)

Every column in a row must be justified.

95.

Improper database organization where a non-primary key item is stored multiple times; updating the item in one location and not the others causes data inconsistencies.

a)

update anomaly

b)

insert anomaly

c)

delete anomaly

96.

Improper database organization that results in the inability to add records to a database.

a)

update anomaly

b)

insert anomaly

c)

delete anomaly

97.

Improper organization of a database that results in the loss of all information about an entity when a row is deleted.

a)

update anomaly

b)

insert anomaly

c)

delete anomaly

98.

Which of the following are the advantage of database systems?

a)

Data integration

b)

Data sharing

c)

Minimal data redundancy and data inconsistencies

d)

Data independence

e)

Cross-functional analysis