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UNIT 6 ― The Newborn

Total questions: 153

Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are classifications of newborns ACCORDING TO AOG?

a)

Preterm / Term / Postterm

b)

NBW / ABW / LBW / VLBW / ELBW

c)

SGA / AGA / LGA

2.

What are classifications of newborns ACCORDING TO WEIGHT?

a)

NBW / ABW / LBW / VLBW / ELBW

b)

SGA / AGA / LGA

c)

Preterm / Term / Postterm

3.

What are classifications of newborns ACCORDING TO AOG & WEIGHT?

a)

SGA / AGA / LGA

b)

Preterm / Term / Postterm

c)

NBW / ABW / LBW / VLBW / ELBW

4.

ACCORDING TO AOG, what is a baby born at 20-37 weeks classified as?

a)

Preterm (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Premature)

b)

Term

c)

Postterm (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Postmature)

5.

ACCORDING TO AOG, what is a baby born at 38-42 weeks classified as?

a)

Term

b)

Postterm (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Postmature)

c)

Preterm (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Premature)

6.

ACCORDING TO AOG, what is a baby born ≥ 43 weeks classified as?

a)

Postterm (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Postmature)

b)

Preterm (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Premature)

c)

Term

7.

ACCORDING TO WEIGHT, what is a baby born weighing 2,500-3,500 grams classified as?

a)

Normal Birth Weight (NBW)

b)

Average Birth Weight (ABW)

c)

Low Birth Weigh (LBW)

d)

Very Low Birth Weight (VLBW)

e)

Extremely Low Birth Weight (ELBW)

8.

ACCORDING TO WEIGHT, what is a baby born weighing exactly 3,000 grams classified as?

a)

Average Birth Weight (ABW)

b)

Low Birth Weigh (LBW)

c)

Very Low Birth Weight (VLBW)

d)

Extremely Low Birth Weight (ELBW)

e)

Normal Birth Weight (NBW)

9.

ACCORDING TO WEIGHT, what is a baby born weighing less than 2,500 grams classified as?

a)

Low Birth Weigh (LBW)

b)

Very Low Birth Weight (VLBW)

c)

Extremely Low Birth Weight (ELBW)

d)

Normal Birth Weight (NBW)

e)

Average Birth Weight (ABW)

10.

ACCORDING TO WEIGHT, what is a baby born weighing less than 1,500 grams classified as?

a)

Very Low Birth Weight (VLBW)

b)

Extremely Low Birth Weight (ELBW)

c)

Normal Birth Weight (NBW)

d)

Average Birth Weight (ABW)

e)

Low Birth Weigh (LBW)

11.

ACCORDING TO WEIGHT, what is a baby born weighing less than 1,000 grams classified as?

a)

Extremely Low Birth Weight (ELBW)

b)

Normal Birth Weight (NBW)

c)

Average Birth Weight (ABW)

d)

Low Birth Weigh (LBW)

e)

Very Low Birth Weight (VLBW)

12.

ACCORDING TO AOG & WEIGHT, what is a baby born weighing below the 10th percentile of babies born at the same gestational age classified as?

a)

Small for Gestation Age (SGA)

b)

Appropriate for Gestation Age (AGA)

c)

Large for Gestational Age (LGA)

13.

ACCORDING TO AOG & WEIGHT, what is a baby born weighing between the 10th - 90th percentile of babies born at the same gestational age classified as?

a)

Appropriate for Gestation Age (AGA)

b)

Large for Gestational Age (LGA)

c)

Small for Gestation Age (SGA)

14.

ACCORDING TO AOG & WEIGHT, what is a baby born weighing above the 90th percentile of babies born at the same gestational age classified as?

a)

Large for Gestational Age (LGA)

b)

Small for Gestation Age (SGA)

c)

Appropriate for Gestation Age (AGA)

15.

When taking an ANTHROPOMETRIC MEASUREMENT of a newborn, the normal range for BIRTH WEIGHT would be?

a)

2,500-3,500 grams

b)

1,500-2,500 grans

c)

3,500-4,500 grams

16.

When taking an ANTHROPOMETRIC MEASUREMENT of a newborn, the normal range for BIRTH LENGTH would be?

a)

48-53 cm

b)

43-48 cm

c)

53-58 cm

17.

When taking an ANTHROPOMETRIC MEASUREMENT of a newborn, the normal range for HEAD CIRCUMFERENCE (HC) would be?

a)

33-35 cm

b)

30-33 cm

c)

35-37 cm

18.

When taking an ANTHROPOMETRIC MEASUREMENT of a newborn, the normal range for CHEST CIRCUMFERENCE (CC) would be?

a)

30-33 cm

b)

33-35 cm

c)

35-37 cm

19.

When taking an ANTHROPOMETRIC MEASUREMENT of a newborn, the normal range for ABDOMINAL CIRCUMFERENCE (AC) would be?

a)

30-33 cm

b)

33-35 cm

c)

35-37 cm

20.

In a newborn's anthropometric measurement, the HEAD CIRCUMFERENCE (HC) is __________ the CHEST CIRCUMFERENCE (CC).

a)

greater than

b)

less than

c)

approximately equal (to)

21.

In a newborn's anthropometric measurement, the HEAD CIRCUMFERENCE (HC) is __________ the ABDOMINAL CIRCUMFERENCE (AC).

a)

greater than

b)

less than

c)

approximately equal (to)

22.

In a newborn's anthropometric measurement, the CHEST CIRCUMFERENCE (CC) is __________ the HEAD CIRCUMFERENCE (HC).

a)

less than

b)

greater than

c)

approximately equal (to)

23.

In a newborn's anthropometric measurement, the ABDOMINAL CIRCUMFERENCE (AC) is __________ the HEAD CIRCUMFERENCE (HC).

a)

less than

b)

greater than

c)

approximately equal (to)

24.

In a newborn's anthropometric measurement, the CHEST CIRCUMFERENCE (CC) is __________ the ABDOMINAL CIRCUMFERENCE (AC).

a)

approximately equal (to)

b)

greater than

c)

less than

25.

What is the normal range of a newborns RESPIRATORY RATE?

a)

30-60 CPM

b)

12-20 CPM

c)

20-30 CPM

26.

What is a newborn's normal range for RESPIRATORY RATE?

a)

30-60 CPM

b)

12-20 CPM

c)

20-30 CPM

27.

What is a newborn's normal range for PULSE RATE?

a)

120-160 bpm

b)

60-100 bpm

c)

100-120 bpm

28.

What is a newborn's normal range for BODY TEMPERATURE?

a)

36.5-37.5 ℃

b)

35.5-36.5 ℃

c)

37.5-38.5 ℃

29.

TRUE or FALSE: Newborns are obligate nose breathers.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

30.

TRUE or FALSE: Newborns are abdominal (diaphragmatic) breathers.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

31.

TRUE or FALSE: Newborns are non-obligate nose breathers.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

32.

TRUE or FALSE: Newborns are periodic breathers.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

33.

TRUE or FALSE: Newborns are non-abdominal (diaphragmatic) breathers.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

34.

TRUE or FALSE: Newborns are non-periodic breathers.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

35.

NEWBORNS are __________. On the other hand, ADULTS are __________.

a)

obligate nose breathers / nose and mouth breathers

b)

nose and mouth breathers / obligate nose breathers

36.

NEWBORNS are __________. On the other hand, ADULTS are __________.

a)

abdominal breathers / chest breathers

b)

chest breathers / abdominal breathers

37.

Which pulse site is the most accurate and preferred for regular monitoring?

a)

Apical Pulse

b)

Brachial Pulse

c)

Radial Pulse

d)

Carotid Pulse

e)

Temporal Pulse

38.

Which pulse site is the most accessible and useful in emergency situations?

a)

Brachial Pulse

b)

Apical Pulse

c)

Radial Pulse

d)

Carotid Pulse

e)

Temporal Pulse

39.

The APICAL PULSE of a newborn is in the __________?

a)

4th ICS, left mid-clavicular line

b)

4th ICS, right mid-clavicular line

c)

5th ICS, left mid-clavicular line

d)

5th ICS, right mid-clavicular line

40.

The APICAL PULSE of an adult is in the __________?

a)

5th ICS, left mid-clavicular line

b)

5th ICS, right mid-clavicular line

c)

4th ICS, left mid-clavicular line

d)

4th ICS, right mid-clavicular line

41.

In BTemp measurement, what is the "MOST ACCURATE" route?

a)

Rectal

b)

Axillary

c)

Tympanic / Forehead

d)

Oral

42.

In BTemp measurement, what is the "MOST CONVENIENT" route?

a)

Axillary

b)

Tympanic / Forehead

c)

Oral

d)

Rectal

43.

In BTemp measurement, what is the "FASTEST" route?

a)

Tympanic / Forehead

b)

Oral

c)

Rectal

d)

Axillary

44.

In BTemp measurement, what is the "NOT RECOMMENDED" route in newborns due to their lack of ability to cooperate and hold the thermometer in place?

a)

Oral

b)

Rectal

c)

Axillary

d)

Tympanic / Forehead

45.

In BTemp measurement, what is the "MOST ACCESSIBLE" route in adults?

a)

Oral

b)

Rectal

c)

Axillary

d)

Tympanic / Forehead

46.

Within which BTemp measurement is a LOW-GRADE FEVER classified?

a)

≥ 37.6 ℃

b)

≥ 38.0 ℃

c)

≥ 39.0 ℃

47.

Within which BTemp measurement is a MODERATE-GRADE FEVER classified?

a)

≥ 38.0 ℃

b)

≥ 39.0 ℃

c)

≥ 37.6 ℃

48.

Within which BTemp measurement is a HIGH-GRADE FEVER classified?

a)

≥ 39.0 ℃

b)

≥ 37.6 ℃

c)

≥ 38.0 ℃

49.

Which VS is generally not routinely assessed on newborns?

a)

BP

b)

RR

c)

PR

d)

BTemp

e)

SpO2

50.

What does a pulse oximeter provides?

a)

SpO2 (Peripheral Oxygen Saturation)

b)

SaO2 (Arterial Oxygen Saturation)

51.

When the nurse applies a pulse oximeter, the client asks what information the device provides. What is the best response by the nurse?

a)

"The percentage of oxygen bound to hemoglobin and your heart rate."

b)

"The partial pressure of oxygen in your blood and your respiratory rate."

c)

"The total amount of oxygen in the blood and your blood pressure."

d)

"The amount of carbon dioxide in the blood and your pulse pressure."

52.

How is Vitamin K administered?

a)

0.1 mL via IM @ 🅁 Vastus Lateralis

b)

0.5 mL via IM @ 🄻 Vastus Lateralis

c)

0.05 mL via ID @ Deltoid

53.

How is Hepatitis B vaccine administered?

a)

0.5 mL via IM @ 🄻 Vastus Lateralis

b)

0.05 mL via ID @ Deltoid

c)

0.1 mL via IM @ 🅁 Vastus Lateralis

54.

How is Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine administered?

a)

0.05 mL via ID @ Deltoid

b)

0.1 mL via IM @ 🅁 Vastus Lateralis

c)

0.5 mL via IM @ 🄻 Vastus Lateralis

55.

This was the original cornerstone of the Philippine Department of Health's immunization efforts, launched in 1976.

a)

Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI)

b)

National Immunization Program (NIP)

56.

This is the official designation for the comprehensive vaccination program today, which has grown far beyond the original scope of the previous program.

a)

National Immunization Program (NIP)

b)

Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI)

57.

The "Respiratory Center" of the brain is the...?

a)

Medulla Oblongata

b)

Hypothalamus

58.

The "Cardiovascular Center" of the brain is the...?

a)

Medulla Oblongata

b)

Hypothalamus

59.

The "Thermoregulation Center" of the brain is the...?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Medulla Oblongata

60.

The functional units for gas exchange before birth are the...?

a)

Chorionic Villi

b)

Alveoli

61.

The functional units for gas exchange after birth are the...?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Chorionic Villi

62.

These are  lipoproteins produced by the lungs that prevent the alveoli from collapsing and making it easier to inflate the lungs.

(a)  

63.

The synthesis (or production) of pulmonary surfactant starts at which week AOG?

a)

24

b)

34

c)

20

d)

30

64.

Meconium is passed usually within __________ after birth.

a)

24-48 hrs

b)

24-48 mins

c)

48-72 hrs

d)

48-72 mins

65.

Which of the following stools is considered to be "DARK GREEN" in color?

a)

Meconium

b)

Transitional Stool

c)

Mature Stool

66.

Which of the following stools is considered to be "BROWNISH GREEN" in color?

a)

Transitional Stool

b)

Mature Stool

c)

Meconium

67.

Which of the following stools is considered to be "YELLOWISH GREEN" in color?

a)

Mature Stool

b)

Meconium

c)

Transitional Stool

68.

This is the enzyme needed to conjugate bilirubin?

a)

UGT

b)

UDT

c)

UGDT

69.

This is the enzyme needed to conjugate bilirubin?

(a)  

70.

This is the form of bilirubin that is fat-soluble.

a)

Unconjugated Bilirubin (UCB)

b)

Conjugated Bilirubin (CB)

71.

This is the form of bilirubin that is water-soluble.

a)

Conjugated Bilirubin (CB)

b)

Unconjugated Bilirubin (UCB)

72.

These are white, cheesy substance that serves for protection, lubrication, and thermoregulation in utero and immediately after birth.

a)

Vernix Caseosa

b)

Lanugo

c)

Desquamation

d)

Erythema Toxicum Neonatorum

e)

Mottling

73.

These soft, fine hair that covers the fetus and often remains on the shoulders, back, and ears of newborns, particularly premature infants.

a)

Lanugo

b)

Desquamation

c)

Erythema Toxicum Neonatorum

d)

Mottling

e)

Vernix Caseosa

74.

This is the peeling (exfoliation) of the skin which is especially noticeable in post-term newborns due to prolonged exposure to amniotic fluid.

a)

Desquamation

b)

Erythema Toxicum Neonatorum

c)

Mottling

d)

Vernix Caseosa

e)

Lanugo

75.

These are benign, common rashes appearing as blotchy red with small, yellow-white papules or pustules surrounded by redness.

a)

Erythema Toxicum Neonatorum

b)

Mottling

c)

Vernix Caseosa

d)

Lanugo

e)

Desquamation

76.

This is a patchy, marbled appearance on the skin, often seen when a newborn is cold.

a)

Mottling

b)

Vernix Caseosa

c)

Lanugo

d)

Desquamation

e)

Erythema Toxicum Neonatorum

77.

This is a type of jaundice that occurs after 24 hrs post-delivery.

a)

Physiologic Jaundice

b)

Pathologic Jaundice

78.

This is a type of jaundice that occurs within the first 24 hrs post-delivery.

a)

Pathologic Jaundice

b)

Physiologic Jaundice

79.

These birthmarks are caused by an abnormal formation or overgrowth of blood vessels.

a)

Vascular Birthmarks

b)

Pigmented Birthmarks

80.

Which of the following are Vascular Birthmarks?

a)

Stork Bites / Strawberry Hemangiomas / Port-Wine Stains

b)

Café-au-lait Spots / Melanocytosis / Congenital Melanocytic Nevus

81.

Which of the following are Pigmented Birthmarks?

a)

Café-au-lait Spots / Melanocytosis / Congenital Melanocytic Nevus

b)

Stork Bites / Strawberry Hemangiomas / Port-Wine Stains

82.

Stork Bites (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Telangiectatic Nevi) are __________ vascular birthmarks.

a)

Light Red / flat

Light Red / flat

b)

Bright Red / raised

Bright Red / raised

c)

Deep Red / flat

Deep Red / flat

83.

Strawberry Hemangiomas are __________ vascular birthmarks.

a)

Bright Red / raised

Bright Red / raised

b)

Deep Red / flat

Deep Red / flat

c)

Light Red / flat

Light Red / flat

84.

Port-Wine Stains (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Nevus Flammeus) are __________ vascular birthmarks.

a)

Deep Red / flat

Deep Red / flat

b)

Light Red / flat

Light Red / flat

c)

Bright Red / raised

Bright Red / raised

85.

Café-au-lait Spots are __________ pigmented birthmarks.

a)

light brown

light brown

b)

blue-gray

blue-gray

c)

brown to black

brown to black

86.

Melanocytosis (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Mongolian Spots) are __________ pigmented birthmarks.

a)

blue-gray

blue-gray

b)

brown to black

brown to black

c)

light brown

light brown

87.

Congenital Melanocytic Nevus (CMN) are __________ pigmented birthmarks.

a)

brown to black

brown to black

b)

light brown

light brown

c)

blue-gray

blue-gray

88.

This is the premature fusion of the skull bones leading to an abnormally shaped head.

a)

Craniosynostosis

b)

Cephalohematoma

c)

Caput Succedaneum

d)

Craniotabes

e)

Cradle Cap

89.

This is a firm collection of blood that does not cross suture lines.

a)

Cephalohematoma

b)

Caput Succedaneum

c)

Craniotabes

d)

Cradle Cap

e)

Craniosynostosis

90.

This is a swelling of the scalp caused by the accumulation of fluid that crosses suture lines.

a)

Caput Succedaneum

b)

Craniotabes

c)

Cradle Cap

d)

Craniosynostosis

e)

Cephalohematoma

91.

This is the softening of the cranial bones usually the parietal and occipital bones.

a)

Craniotabes

b)

Cradle Cap

c)

Craniosynostosis

d)

Cephalohematoma

e)

Caput Succedaneum

92.

This is a common, harmless skin condition in infants that appears as greasy, yellowish, or brownish scales and crusts on the scalp. It is caused by overactive sebaceous glands under hormonal influence and it is easily treated with gentle washing and oil application.

a)

Cradle Cap

b)

Craniosynostosis

c)

Cephalohematoma

d)

Caput Succedaneum

e)

Craniotabes

93.

This is the medical term for crossed eyes, where the eyes are misaligned and do not look in the same direction at the same time.

a)

Strabismus

b)

Exophthalmos

c)

Anisocoria

d)

Corneal Opacity

e)

Icteric Sclera

94.

This is an abnormal bulging or forward displacement of the eyeballs from the eye socket (orbit), giving the appearance of protruding eyes.

a)

Exophthalmos

b)

Anisocoria

c)

Corneal Opacity

d)

Icteric Sclera

e)

Strabismus

95.

This is a condition characterized by unequal pupil size, where one pupil is visibly larger or smaller than the other.

a)

Anisocoria

b)

Corneal Opacity

c)

Icteric Sclera

d)

Strabismus

e)

Exophthalmos

96.

This is a condition where the normally clear, outermost layer of the eye becomes hazy or white impairing vision.

a)

Corneal Opacity

b)

Icteric Sclera

c)

Strabismus

d)

Exophthalmos

e)

Anisocoria

97.

This is the term for the abnormal yellow discoloration of the sclera.

a)

Icteric Sclera

b)

Strabismus

c)

Exophthalmos

d)

Anisocoria

e)

Corneal Opacity

98.

This is a condition characterized by the complete absence of the external ear.

a)

Anotia

b)

Ankyloglossia

c)

Athelia

d)

Amastia

99.

This is the congenital condition characterized by the abnormally small or underdeveloped size of the external ear (pinna).

a)

Microtia

b)

Macrotia

c)

Anotia

100.

This is the condition characterized by the abnormally large size of the external ear (pinna).

a)

Macrotia

b)

Anotia

c)

Microtia

101.

This is the clinical finding characterized by a distinct, deep-yellow discoloration of the mucous membranes particularly visible in the frenulum of the tongue and the palate.

a)

Mucosal Jaundice

b)

Microglossia

c)

Macroglossia

d)

Ankyloglossia

e)

Candidiasis

102.

This is a congenital condition defined as the presence of an abnormally small, underdeveloped tongue relative to the oral cavity.

a)

Microglossia

b)

Macroglossia

c)

Ankyloglossia

d)

Candidiasis

e)

Mucosal Jaundice

103.

This is a condition defined by the presence of an abnormally large tongue that protrudes or is disproportionately large for the oral cavity.

a)

Macroglossia

b)

Ankyloglossia

c)

Candidiasis

d)

Mucosal Jaundice

e)

Microglossia

104.

This is a condition where the lingual frenulum is abnormally short, thick, or tight.

a)

Ankyloglossia

b)

Candidiasis

c)

Mucosal Jaundice

d)

Microglossia

e)

Macroglossia

105.

This is a condition that presents as creamy white or yellowish patches or plaques on the tongue and buccal mucosa.

a)

Candidiasis

b)

Mucosal Jaundice

c)

Microglossia

d)

Macroglossia

e)

Ankyloglossia

106.

Fracture of which bones is/are the most common fracture sustained during the birthing process in a newborn, often occurring during difficult deliveries, especially those involving shoulder dystocia.

a)

Clavicle

b)

Scapula

c)

Skull

d)

Radius and/or Ulna

e)

Tibia and/or Fibula

107.

This is also known as Webbed Neck which is a congenital deformity characterized by excessive, loose folds of skin extending laterally from the sides of the neck down to the shoulders.

(a)  

108.

This is a clinical finding where passive, gentle flexion of the patient's neck leads to a reflexive, involuntary flexion (bending) of the patient's hips and knees.

a)

(+) Brudzinski's Sign

b)

(+) Kernig's Sign

109.

This is a clinical finding where, with the patient lying supine, the hip and knee are first flexed to 90 degrees, and then passive extension of the knee causes significant resistance and/or pain that restricts the movement.

a)

(+) Kernig's Sign

b)

(+) Brudzinski's Sign

110.

This is congenital anomaly characterized by the complete absence of the nipple.

a)

Athelia

b)

Polythelia

c)

Amastia

d)

Polymastia

111.

This is the congenital presence of one or more extra nipples.

a)

Polythelia

b)

Amastia

c)

Polymastia

d)

Athelia

112.

This is a congenital anomaly defined as the complete absence of all breast tissue.

a)

Amastia

b)

Polymastia

c)

Athelia

d)

Polythelia

113.

This is the congenital presence of fully developed, functional extra breast tissue.

a)

Polymastia

b)

Athelia

c)

Polythelia

d)

Amastia

114.

This is the infection of the umbilical stump manifested by foul odor, purulent discharge, redness and swelling.

(a)  

115.

What is Kyphosis?

a)

Outward curvature of the spine

Outward curvature of the spine

b)

Inward curvature of the spine

Inward curvature of the spine

c)

Sideways curvature of the spine

Sideways curvature of the spine

116.

What is Lordosis?

a)

Inward curvature of the spine

Inward curvature of the spine

b)

Sideways curvature of the spine

Sideways curvature of the spine

c)

Outward curvature of the spine

Outward curvature of the spine

117.

What is Scoliosis?

a)

Sideways curvature of the spine

Sideways curvature of the spine

b)

Outward curvature of the spine

Outward curvature of the spine

c)

Inward curvature of the spine

Inward curvature of the spine

118.

This is characterized by an abnormally large clitoris.

a)

Clitoromegaly

b)

Labial Hypertrophy

c)

Labial Adhesion

d)

Ambiguous Genitalia

119.

This is a condition where the labia minora are excessively enlarged or prominent, often appearing larger or extending beyond the labia majora.

a)

Labial Hypertrophy

b)

Labial Adhesion

c)

Ambiguous Genitalia

d)

Clitoromegaly

120.

This is a condition where the labia minora are partially or completely fused together.

a)

Labial Adhesion

b)

Ambiguous Genitalia

c)

Clitoromegaly

d)

Labial Hypertrophy

121.

This is a rare congenital condition where a newborn's external reproductive organs are not clearly identifiable as strictly male or strictly female.

a)

Ambiguous Genitalia

b)

Clitoromegaly

c)

Labial Hypertrophy

d)

Labial Adhesion

122.

This is a condition where the prepuce is too tight to be retracted back over the glans of the penis.

a)

Phimosis

b)

Hypospadias

c)

Epispadias

d)

Cryptorchidism

e)

Hydrocele

123.

This is a congenital birth defect where the urethral opening (meatus) is not at the tip of the penis, but is instead located on the underside of the shaft or near the scrotum.

a)

Hypospadias

b)

Epispadias

c)

Cryptorchidism

d)

Hydrocele

e)

Phimosis

124.

This is a congenital birth defect where the urethral opening is located on the top side of the penis.

a)

Epispadias

b)

Cryptorchidism

c)

Hydrocele

d)

Phimosis

e)

Hypospadias

125.

This is a common condition, particularly in premature infants, defined as the failure of one or both testicles (testes) to fully descend from the abdomen into the scrotum.

a)

Cryptorchidism

b)

Hydrocele

c)

Phimosis

d)

Hypospadias

e)

Epispadias

126.

This is a condition characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the scrotal sac causing swelling.

a)

Hydrocele

b)

Phimosis

c)

Hypospadias

d)

Epispadias

e)

Cryptorchidism

127.

This is a congenital anomaly characterized by the presence of more than the typical number of fingers or toes on the hands or feet.

a)

Polydactyly

b)

Ectrodactyly

c)

Syndactyly

128.

This is a congenital anomaly involving the absence or severe deficiency of one or more central digits of the hand or foot

a)

Ectrodactyly

b)

Syndactyly

c)

Polydactyly

129.

This is a congenital anomaly where two or more fingers or toes are joined or fused together.

a)

Syndactyly

b)

Polydactyly

c)

Ectrodactyly

130.

This reflex protects the eye from potential harm by causing rapid blinking when the eye is exposed to bright light or an object moves near it.

a)

Blinking (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Corneal) Reflex

b)

Pupillary Reflex

c)

Doll's Eye Reflex

d)

Glabellar Reflex

e)

Sneeze Reflex

131.

This reflex regulates the amount of light entering the eye by causing the pupil to constrict when the eye is exposed to bright light.

a)

Pupillary Reflex

b)

Doll's Eye Reflex

c)

Glabellar Reflex

d)

Sneeze Reflex

e)

Blinking (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Corneal) Reflex

132.

This reflex helps the baby track objects and orient themselves in their environment by ensuring the eyes remain fixed in the forward position when the baby's head is turned to one side.

a)

Doll's Eye Reflex

b)

Glabellar Reflex

c)

Sneeze Reflex

d)

Blinking (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Corneal) Reflex

e)

Pupillary Reflex

133.

This reflex protects the eyes from potential harm by causing the baby to blink rapidly when the glabella (bridge of the nose) is tapped.

a)

Glabellar Reflex

b)

Sneeze Reflex

c)

Blinking (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Corneal) Reflex

d)

Pupillary Reflex

e)

Doll's Eye Reflex

134.

This reflex clears the nasal passages of irritants or obstructions by causing the baby to sneeze when the nasal passages are irritated or obstructed.

a)

Sneeze Reflex

b)

Blinking (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Corneal) Reflex

c)

Pupillary Reflex

d)

Doll's Eye Reflex

e)

Glabellar Reflex

135.

This reflex helps the baby find the nipple for feeding by causing the baby to turn their head towards the touch and open their mouth when the baby's cheek is stroked.

a)

Rooting Reflex

b)

Sucking Reflex

c)

Extrusion Reflex

d)

Cough Reflex

e)

Gag Reflex

136.

This reflex prevents the baby from swallowing foreign objects by causing the baby to push their tongue out when the baby's tongue is touched.

a)

Extrusion Reflex

b)

Cough Reflex

c)

Gag Reflex

d)

Rooting Reflex

e)

Sucking Reflex

137.

This reflex clears the airway of irritants or obstructions by causing the baby to cough when the baby's respiratory tract is irritated.

a)

Cough Reflex

b)

Gag Reflex

c)

Rooting Reflex

d)

Sucking Reflex

e)

Extrusion Reflex

138.

This reflex prevents choking and aspiration by causing the baby to gag when the baby's throat is stimulated.

a)

Gag Reflex

b)

Rooting Reflex

c)

Sucking Reflex

d)

Extrusion Reflex

e)

Cough Reflex

139.

This reflex provides a sense of security and protection by causing the baby to extend their arms and legs outward, then bring them back in when the baby hears a sudden loud noise or experiences a sudden movement.

a)

Moro (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Startle) Reflex

b)

Trunk Incurvation Reflex

c)

Crawl Reflex

140.

This reflex prepares the baby for crawling and walking by causing the baby's hips to curve towards the side being stimulated when the baby's back is stroked along the spine.

a)

Trunk Incurvation Reflex

b)

Crawl Reflex

c)

Moro (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Startle) Reflex

141.

This reflex helps the baby develop coordination and muscle control by causing the baby to make crawling movements with their arms and legs when the baby is placed on their tummy.

a)

Crawl Reflex

b)

Moro (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Startle) Reflex

c)

Trunk Incurvation Reflex

142.

This reflex helps the baby develop coordination and muscle control by causing the baby's arm and leg on the same side to extend, while the opposite arm and leg flex when the baby's head is turned to one side.

a)

Fencing (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Asymmetric Tonic Neck) Reflex

b)

Palmar Grasp Reflex

c)

Placing Reflex

d)

Step (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Walking) Reflex

e)

Plantar Grasp Reflex

143.

This reflex helps the baby develop hand-eye coordination and grip strength by causing the baby to grasp it when the baby's palm is touched with an object.

a)

Palmar Grasp Reflex

b)

Placing Reflex

c)

Step (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Walking) Reflex

d)

Plantar Grasp Reflex

e)

Babinski Reflex

144.

This reflex helps the baby develop balance and coordination by causing the baby to lift their leg as if to step onto the surface when the baby's dorsal side of their foot is placed against a hard surface while being held upright.

a)

Placing Reflex

b)

Step (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Walking) Reflex

c)

Plantar Grasp Reflex

d)

Babinski Reflex

e)

Palmar Grasp Reflex

145.

This reflex prepares the baby for walking by causing the baby to make stepping motions with that leg when the baby's sole of the foot touches a hard surface while being held upright.

a)

Step (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Walking) Reflex

b)

Plantar Grasp Reflex

c)

Babinski Reflex

d)

Palmar Grasp Reflex

e)

Placing Reflex

146.

Grasp ReflexThis reflex helps the baby develop foot control and coordination by causing the baby's toes to curl around it when the baby's sole of the foot is touched with an object.

a)

Plantar Grasp Reflex

b)

Babinski Reflex

c)

Palmar Grasp Reflex

d)

Placing Reflex

e)

Step (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Walking) Reflex

147.

This reflex indicates the proper development of the nervous system by causing the baby's toes to fan out and curl upward when the baby's sole of the foot is stroked from heel to toe.

a)

Babinski Reflex

b)

Palmar Grasp Reflex

c)

Placing Reflex

d)

Step (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Walking) Reflex

e)

Plantar Grasp Reflex

148.

Which is a tool used to quickly assess the immediate adaptation of a newborn at 1 and 5 minutes after birth to determine ⑴ how well they tolerated the birthing process and ⑵ how well they are adjusting to life outside the uterus?

a)

APGAR Scoring

b)

Silverman-Anderson Respiratory Severity Scoring

c)

New Ballard Scoring

149.

Which is a tool used to quantify the severity of respiratory distress in a newborn by observing five specific signs to determine the level of breathing difficulty?

a)

Silverman-Anderson Respiratory Severity Scoring

b)

New Ballard Scoring

c)

APGAR Scoring

150.

Which is a tool used to estimate the gestational age of a newborn particularly useful when the mother's LMP is unknown or the physical exam suggests an age different from the calculated date?

a)

New Ballard Scoring

b)

APGAR Scoring

c)

Silverman-Anderson Respiratory Severity Scoring

151.

APGAR Scoring is a tool used __________.

a)

To quickly assess immediate adaptation of a newborn

b)

To quantify the degree of respiratory distress in a newborn

c)

 To estimate the gestational age of a newborn

152.

Silverman-Anderson Respiratory Severity Scoring (RSS) is a tool used __________.

a)

To quantify the degree of respiratory distress in a newborn

b)

 To estimate the gestational age of a newborn

c)

To quickly assess immediate adaptation of a newborn

153.

New Ballard Scoring is a tool used __________.

a)

 To estimate the gestational age of a newborn

b)

To quickly assess immediate adaptation of a newborn

c)

To quantify the degree of respiratory distress in a newborn