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Q2 Science Study Guide

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

True or False: The energy cost of an energy resource decreases when the easy deposits of that resource have already been consumed.

a)
False
b)
Not enough information to determine
c)
Partially true
d)
True
2.

True or false: Solar energy has a higher net-energy ratio than petroleum.

a)
Unknown
b)
False
c)
True
d)
Not Applicable
3.

Every 6 barrels of oil that are made available for use require 2 barrels for extraction and refinement. What is the net energy from this process?

a)
4
b)
6
c)
8
d)
2
4.

What is a renewable resource?

a)

A natural resource that can be replenished or regenerated within a human lifetime or at a rate that is faster than its rate of consumption or depletion.

b)

A natural resource that can only be replenished or regenerated at a rate slower than its rate of consumption or depletion.

c)

A man-made resource that can be replenished or regenerated within a human lifetime.

d)

A natural resource that cannot be replenished or regenerated within a human lifetime.

5.

__________________ are energy sources created from the remains of formerly living organisms

a)
Solar energy
b)
Fossil fuels
c)
Nuclear energy
d)
Renewable energy
6.

The ultimate source of most energy that we use, renewable and nonrenewable, is ______.

a)
the Moon
b)
fossil fuels
c)
the Sun
d)
wind
7.

Fossil fuels are probably forming deep in the crust somewhere, so why are they considered nonrenewable resources?

a)
Fossil fuels are not considered nonrenewable resources; they can be replenished easily.
b)
Fossil fuels are actually renewable resources because they can be formed again in a short period of time.
c)
Fossil fuels take millions of years to form and cannot be replenished at the same rate they are being consumed.
d)
Fossil fuels are not formed deep in the crust; they are found near the surface and can be easily extracted.
8.

The ____________________ model is a simple theory that explains all the matter in the universe and its interactions.

a)
Unified Field Theory
b)
Standard Model
c)
String Theory
d)
Quantum Model
9.

True or false: Atoms are the smallest fundamental particles

a)
Atoms are made up of smaller particles
b)
Atoms are not particles
c)
True
d)
False
10.

True or false: Gravitons have only been hypothesized to exist because of what we know about how gravity effects matter, but they have never been observed.

a)
False
b)
Unknown
c)
Partially true
d)
True
11.

True or false: According to the standard model, all known matter consists of quarks and leptons that interact by exchanging bosons, which transmit fundamental forces.

a)
True
b)
Partially true
c)
False
12.

Protons and neutrons are made up of fundamental particles of matter called __________.

a)
atoms
b)
quarks
c)
photons
d)
electrons
13.

Which scientist is credited with discovering the atom?

a)
Isaac Newton
b)
Albert Einstein
c)
Marie Curie
d)
John Dalton
14.

What was the significance of Ernest Rutherford's gold foil experiment?

a)
It proved that atoms are indivisible.
b)
It demonstrated the existence of the atomic nucleus.
c)
It discovered the electron.
d)
It confirmed the existence of dark matter.
15.

Which of the following are types of quarks?

a)
electron, proton, neutron
b)
photon, neutrino, boson
c)
alpha, beta, gamma
d)
up, down, charm, strange, top, and bottom
16.

Which of the following are leptons?

a)
Photons, neutrinos, and quarks
b)
Electrons, muons, and taus
c)
Protons, neutrons, and electrons
d)
Positrons, neutrinos, and bosons
17.

Which of the following are bosons?

a)

photons, W and Z, gluons.

b)

quarks, leptons

c)
electrons, protons, neutrons
d)

Charm, strange

18.

Which of these is a fundamental force carrying particle?

a)

muon

b)
quark
c)
lepton
d)
photon
19.

What keeps the nucleus of an atom together?

a)
electromagnetic force
b)
gravitational force
c)
weak nuclear force
d)
strong nuclear force
20.

True or False: Both protons and neutrons consist of one up quark and two down quarks.

a)
True
b)
Partially true
c)
False
21.

Fill in the blank(s): 

When protons change to neutrons, this changes atoms of one ____________________ to atoms of another with different atomic properties.

a)
isotope
b)
compound
c)
molecule
d)
element
22.

Which subatomic particles are affected by electromagnetic force?

a)
neutrons and electrons
b)
protons and neutrons
c)
electrons and protons
d)
electrons and neutrons
23.

Fill in the blank(s): 

The number of protons in a nucleus is called the ____________________ number and designated by the symbol Z.

a)
atomic
b)
electron
c)
elemental
d)
nuclear
24.

Fill in the blank(s): 

Each different isotope has the same number of ____________________ and a different number of ____________________.

a)
electrons, protons
b)
protons, neutrons
c)
protons, electrons
d)
neutrons, electrons
25.

How many neurtrons are in Carbon-13?

a)
7
b)
8
c)
6
d)
10
26.

Why are alpha particles easier to stop by materials than beta particles?

a)
Alpha particles are larger and have a positive charge.
b)
Alpha particles have a negative charge.
c)
Alpha particles are faster than beta particles.
d)
Alpha particles have a higher energy than beta particles.
27.

What element is an alpha particle?

a)
carbon
b)
oxygen
c)
nitrogen
d)
helium
28.

If Carbon undergoes beta decay, what element results?

a)
Nitrogen
b)
Helium
c)
Hydrogen
d)
Oxygen
29.

U-235 nuclei split when struck by _______.

a)
neutron
b)
photon
c)
electron
d)
proton
30.

A moderator in a nuclear reactor decelerates the neutrons.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Partially True

31.

Nuclear power plants produce electricity through _____.

a)
nuclear fusion
b)
solar power
c)
wind turbines
d)
nuclear fission
32.

What is one major advantage of nuclear energy vs. fossil fuels?

a)
Less greenhouse gas emissions
b)
More expensive
c)
Less efficient
d)
More waste production
33.

True or False: The speed of most waves depends on the medium

a)
False
b)
True
c)
Only sound waves depend on the medium
d)
The speed of waves is constant in all mediums
34.

True or false: waves generally travel fastest through gases and slowest through solids.

a)
True
b)
True for some waves but not all
c)
False for some waves but not all
d)
False
35.

What is the term for the distance between corresponding points of adjacent waves?

a)
frequency
b)
amplitude
c)
velocity
d)
wavelength
36.

What type of waves are sound waves?

a)
Sound waves are mechanical waves that do not propagate through a medium.
b)
Sound waves are longitudinal waves.
c)
Sound waves are transverse waves.
d)
Sound waves are electromagnetic waves.
37.

True or false: Sound waves do not travel through a vacuum.

a)
False
b)
True
c)
Sometimes
d)
Only in outer space
38.

Pitch is our brain’s interpretation of which feature of a sound wave?

a)
frequency
b)
wavelength
c)
amplitude
d)
velocity
39.

____________________ rays are the most dangerous of all electromagnetic waves because they have the highest frequencies and greatest energy.

a)
alpha rays
b)
beta rays
c)
gamma rays
d)
infrared rays
40.

Which color of visible light has the highest frequency?

a)
red
b)
green
c)
yellow
d)
violet
41.

Which electromagnetic waves have the longest wavelengths?

a)
Gamma rays
b)
X-rays
c)
Infrared waves
d)
Radio waves
42.

Which color of visible light has the longest wavelength?

a)
red
b)
yellow
c)
green
d)
blue
43.

The double-slit experiments showed that light…

a)
Light only exhibits wave-like properties.
b)
Light only exhibits particle-like properties.
c)
Light exhibits both wave-like and particle-like properties.
d)
Light does not exhibit any properties.
44.

Which of the following phenomena demonstrate the wave theory of light?

a)
Reflection, absorption, transmission, and scattering
b)

Interference, and diffraction.

c)
Photoelectric effect, Compton effect, pair production, and annihilation
d)
Bohr's atomic model, Rutherford's atomic model, Thomson's atomic model, and Dalton's atomic model
45.

A ____________________ is a tiny packet of energy released when an electron returns to a lower energy level.

a)
neutron
b)
proton
c)
electron
d)
photon
46.

What were the conditions in the universe at the time of the big bang.

a)

Extremely hot and dense, with all matter and energy concentrated in a singularity.

b)
The conditions in the universe at the time of the big bang were cold and empty.
c)
The conditions in the universe at the time of the big bang were calm and stable.
47.

About how many billion years ago did the Big Bang occur?

a)

14 billion years ago

b)
10 billion years ago
c)
15 billion years ago
d)
20 billion years ago
48.

True or false: The Milky Way galaxy is about the same age as the universe.

a)
The Milky Way galaxy is older than the universe
b)
Unknown
c)
True
d)
False
49.

Which gasses are the most abundant in the Universe?

a)
argon and neon
b)
carbon dioxide and methane
c)
oxygen and nitrogen
d)
hydrogen and helium
50.

How does the collider at the Brookhaven National Laboratory provide a model for the big bang?

a)
By recreating the conditions of the early universe through particle collisions.
b)
By analyzing the cosmic microwave background radiation in the collider.
c)
By observing the formation of galaxies and stars in the laboratory.
d)
By studying the behavior of subatomic particles in a controlled environment.
51.

A small- to mid-sized star that has collapsed is known as a _____.

a)
white dwarf
b)
neutron star
c)
red giant
d)
black hole
52.

True or false, When inward force is equal to outward force, a star collapses.

a)
True
b)
False
c)
Sometimes
d)
Not enough information
53.

According to the scientists, the Sun will become a red giant in approximately _____.

a)
5 billion years
b)
100 million years
c)
10 billion years
d)
1 million years
54.

A star stays on the main sequence as long as…

a)
It cools down and becomes a white dwarf.
b)
It has enough hydrogen in its core to sustain nuclear fusion.
c)
It becomes too massive and collapses under its own gravity.
d)
It runs out of hydrogen in its core.
55.

What color stars have the highest surface temperature?

a)
Green
b)
Blue
c)
Red
d)
Yellow
56.

Most of the stars on the HR Diagram are classified as what type of stars?

a)
Main sequence stars
b)
Red giants
c)
White dwarfs
d)
Supergiants
57.

What is the color of the stars with the lowest surface temperature?

a)
red
b)
blue
c)
green
d)
yellow
58.

Hubble’s Law states that:

a)
The velocity at which a galaxy is moving away from us is inversely proportional to its distance from us.
b)
The velocity at which a galaxy is moving away from us is directly proportional to its distance from us.
c)
The velocity at which a galaxy is moving away from us is not related to its distance from us.
d)
The velocity at which a galaxy is moving away from us is constant regardless of its distance from us.
59.

When a light source moves away from us, what is the consequent stretching out of wavelengths known as?

a)
Frequency shift
b)
Blueshift
c)
Redshift
60.

True or false. When an object is moving towards us, there is a decrease in the wavelength of the light emitted from that object. This is known as the blueshift.

a)
True
b)
The wavelength increases
c)
The wavelength remains the same
d)
False
61.

What is the significance of the idea that the universe is expanding?

a)
It suggests that the Big Bang theory is incorrect and there is no evidence for it.
b)
It provides evidence for the Big Bang theory and helps explain the observed redshift of distant galaxies.
c)
It supports the idea that the universe is static and unchanging.
d)
It proves that the universe is contracting instead of expanding.
62.

The basic unit of structure and function of living things is the ____________________.

a)
cell
b)

Atom

c)

Nucleus

d)

Organ

63.

Select all possible answers: 

Which of the following are examples of homeostasis? 

a)
  1. A person sweats to cool down while sitting outside in the sun. 

b)

Bacteria moving towards sugar. 

c)

A bird fluffs its feathers to retain more heat on a cold day.

d)

An amoeba divides into two daughter cells.

64.

What is the correct ordering of chromosome, gene, and nucleus from largest to smallest?

a)
gene, chromosome, nucleus
b)
chromosome, nucleus, gene
c)
nucleus, chromosome, gene
d)
gene, nucleus, chromosome
65.

 Select all possible answers: 

Which unifying principle(s) form the basis of biology?

a)

germ theory

b)

gene theory

c)

evolution 

d)

cell theory 

e)

homeostasis

66.

How are adaptations related to evolution?

a)
Adaptations help drive the process of evolution.
b)
Adaptations are unrelated to evolution
c)
Adaptations slow down the process of evolution
d)
Adaptations have no impact on evolution
67.

What is the difference between competition and symbiosis?

a)
Competition is when organisms compete for resources, while symbiosis is a close and long-term interaction between different species.
b)
Competition is a type of symbiosis, while symbiosis is a type of competition.
c)
Competition is a close and long-term interaction between different species, while symbiosis is when organisms compete for resources.
d)
Competition is when organisms work together for resources, while symbiosis is a competition between different species.
68.

Which concept describes how the survival of one organism relies on interactions with other organisms?

a)
independence
b)
interdependence
c)
self-sufficiency
d)
isolation
69.

What term refers to all the populations living in the same area?

a)
community
b)
group
c)
society
d)
individuals
70.

Multiple organ systems working together form which level of organization?

a)
Cell
b)
Tissue
c)
Organism
d)
Molecule
71.

Select all possible answers: 

Which of the following is an organ system?

a)

the digestive tract

b)

Nervous System

c)

Lung

d)

Heart

72.

What is the level of organization above the cell?

a)
Organelle
b)
Atom
c)
Molecule
d)
Tissue
73.

What is an ecosystem?

a)
A type of computer software
b)
A new type of exercise equipment
c)
A type of exotic fruit
d)
A community of living organisms in conjunction with the nonliving components of their environment
74.

Why is it incorrect to say that giraffes evolved their long necks by stretching them out over time and then passing this trait to their offspring?

a)

Evolution occurs from adaptations that occur during the life of the organism.

b)
Giraffes can consciously choose to stretch their necks
c)
Evolution occurs through genetic mutations and natural selection over many generations.
75.

What is an adaptation in the theory of evolution?

a)
A trait or characteristic that has developed in a species to help it survive and reproduce in its environment.
b)
A method of communication between different species
c)
A type of food that an animal eats
d)
A physical feature that is not related to survival
76.

Who is credited with popularizing the theory of evolution?

a)
Charles Darwin
b)
Marie Curie
c)
Isaac Newton
d)
Albert Einstein
77.

What is natural selection?

a)
The process by which organisms randomly mutate and evolve into new species
b)
The process by which organisms are chosen by humans for breeding
c)
The process by which organisms intentionally change their behavior to survive
d)
The process by which organisms better adapted to their environment tend to survive and produce more offspring.
78.

What are the four main types of organic compounds?

a)
Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids
b)
Carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, and minerals
c)
Proteins, enzymes, hormones, and antibodies
d)
Nucleic acids, starch, cellulose, and glycogen
79.

True or false: a compound found only in living things is called an inorganic compound.

a)
True
b)
Maybe
c)
Partially true
d)
False
80.

An element essential to life due to its ability to form stable bonds with many elements, including itself, is ____________________.

a)
Helium
b)
Carbon
c)
Gold
81.

What makes carbon essential to life?

a)
It is toxic to all living organisms
b)
It forms the basis of all organic molecules
c)
It has no role in biological processes
d)
It is only found in non-living matter
82.

What are enzymes?

a)
Proteins found in plant cells
b)
Inorganic compounds that slow down chemical reactions
c)
Biological molecules that act as catalysts
d)
Genetic material found in the nucleus of a cell
83.

Who do organisms need enzymes to survive?

a)
Enzymes are not necessary for organisms to survive
b)
Enzymes are only needed for non-essential chemical reactions
c)
Enzymes help organisms carry out essential chemical reactions.
d)
Organisms can survive without enzymes
84.

True or false: an organism's body can carry out all necessary biochemical reactions without enzymes.

a)
true
b)
false
c)
maybe
d)
partially true
85.

What happens to an enzyme after a biochemical reaction?

a)
It remains unchanged
b)
It turns into a different substance
c)
It disintegrates completely
d)
It becomes a different enzyme
86.

Who coined the term cell, in reference to the tiny structures seen in living organisms?

a)
Robert Hooke
b)
Isaac Newton
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Albert Einstein
87.

What are the three main parts of cell theory?

a)
1. All living organisms are composed of rocks. 2. The cell is the basic unit of rocks. 3. Cells arise from pre-existing rocks.
b)
1. All living organisms are composed of water. 2. The cell is the basic unit of water. 3. Cells arise from pre-existing water.
c)
1. All living organisms are composed of air. 2. The cell is the basic unit of air. 3. Cells arise from pre-existing air.
d)
1. All living organisms are composed of cells. 2. The cell is the basic unit of life. 3. Cells arise from pre-existing cells.
88.

List the four parts common to all cells.

a)
cell membrane, cytoplasm, DNA, and ribosomes
b)
plasma membrane, nucleus, Golgi apparatus, lysosomes
c)
cellulose, vacuole, chlorophyll, endoplasmic reticulum
d)
cell wall, nucleus, chloroplasts, mitochondria
89.

Which of the following is an example of a prokaryote?

a)
Bacteria
b)
Protozoa
c)
Fungi
d)
Plants
90.

What is the function of the ribosome?

a)
Cell division
b)
Protein synthesis
c)
Energy production
d)
DNA replication
91.
  1. What are the main differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)
Presence of nucleus, membrane-bound organelles, and cell size
b)
Number of chromosomes
c)
Type of genetic material
d)

The presence of cytoplasm and cytoskeleton

92.

List three structures that are found in plant cells but not in animal cells.

a)
1. Cell wall 2. Chloroplasts 3. Large central vacuole
b)
1. Ribosomes 2. Golgi apparatus 3. Endoplasmic reticulum
c)
1. Nucleus 2. Mitochondria 3. Lysosomes
d)
1. Cytoskeleton 2. Peroxisomes 3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
93.

True or false: Chloroplasts are capable of converting light energy to chemical energy, such as the energy that is stored in sugars.

a)
Only on Tuesdays
b)
False
c)
Maybe
d)
True
94.

The fluid within the chloroplast is called _____.

a)
cytoplasm
b)
mitochondria
c)
stroma
d)
nucleus