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(Do Last) School Exam Study Guide 2

Total questions: 106

Worksheet time: 27hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In the sale of real property owned by a limited partnership, who must sign the sales contract or deed for it to be valid?

a)

Each limited partner

b)

Any limited partner

c)

Each general partner

d)

Any general partner

2.

As agent of the seller, a real estate broker is usually NOT authorized to

a)

bind the principal under a sales contract

b)

advertise the listed property

c)

place a For Sale sign on the listed property

d)

cooperate with other brokers to effect a sale

3.

Which is true about valid contracts?

a)

Money must be the consideration

b)

If the date is left off the contract, the contract is void

c)

Earnest money is an essential consideration

d)

The consideration can be the mutual promises to perform

4.

A section of land sold for $1 million. What was the price per acre?

a)

$22.95

b)

$15,625

c)

$22,960

d)

$1,562.50

5.

When a person dies testate, her real property will

a)

escheat to the government

b)

pass to the next kin

c)

descend to the survivors

d)

pass to the devisees

6.

A civil action brought by the U.S. Attorney General, what is the maximum civil penalty that can be assessed against a respondent for a first violation of the federal Fair Housing Act?

a)

$10,000

b)

$25,000

c)

$50,000

d)

$100,000

7.

In preparing the mortgage document, one should note that the

a)

mortgagor is not named in the mortgage

b)

mortgagee is not named in the mortgage

c)

mortgagor does not sign the mortgage

d)

mortgagee does not sign the mortgage

8.

Usually, the right to declare a forfeiture of deposit money for breach of contract belongs to the

a)

buyer

b)

seller

c)

lender

d)

broker

9.

Which of the following is NOT an example of external obsolescence?

a)

Population density

b)

Direct effect of the elements

c)

Zoning

d)

Nearby highway realignment

10.

If a buyer can afford a $1,200 PI payment, amortized over 30 yrs 5.5%, using the factor of $5.68 per thousand, what is the buyer's borrowing potential?

a)

$201,268

b)

$211,268

c)

$221,268

d)

$231,268

11.

The interest that a landlord has during a valid tenancy is called a

a)

right to profits

b)

reversionary interest

c)

right of reentry

d)

tenancy at sufferance

12.

In which one of the following ways do mortgage brokers differ from mortgage bankers?

a)

Brokers service the loans they arrange

b)

Brokers arrange junior financing

c)

Brokers do not provide their own funds to originate loans

d)

Brokers operate in the primary mortgage market

13.

The federal Fair Housing Act

a)

makes it illegal lender to deny for any reason a loan to an applicant who is a member of minority group

b)

exempts the owner of a private single-family residence if a real estate broker is not employed to sell the property and discriminatory ads are not used

c)

prohibits loans to minority college students

d)

exempts condominium owners from provisions of the act

14.

A $120,000 home carries fire insurance on 80% of its value. If the rate is $3.50 per $1,000 of insured value for a three-year policy, what is the annual premium?

a)

$112

b)

$168

c)

$224

d)

$336

15.

Which of the following BEST describes the highest and best use for a particular property?

a)

The use that the owner wants

b)

Whatever is the present use

c)

The use that produces the greatest net return

d)

Whatever use produces the highest density zoning

16.

In a deed that states "to Jonathan for his life," the grantor has what type of interest?

a)

Life estate

b)

Remainder

c)

Reversion

d)

Right of reenetry

17.

The useful life of a building, or period of time after which the income provided by it is NOT sufficient to warrant its maintenance, is called

a)

recapture limit

b)

economic life

c)

reversion limit

d)

investment duration

18.

When a borrower defaults on an FHA-insured loan, any losses sustained by foreclosure are made up through

a)

the Federal Treasury

b)

the Mutual Mortgage Insurance Plan

c)

an attachment lien against the borrow

d)

an assessment against the lending institution

19.

Two years ago, a property was assessed at $63,000. The tax rate was 90 mills. Last year, the assessment was up to 10%, but the tax rate was down 10%. The taxes paid were

a)

up $47.80

b)

up $56.70

c)

down $56.70

d)

the same

20.

When one has permission to use land but has no other rights, one has a

a)

tenancy in common

b)

leasehold estate

c)

tenancy at sufferance

d)

license

21.

In an assumption-of-mortgage transaction, the seller typically pays for

a)

the deed

b)

the promissory note

c)

the mortgage

d)

all closing costs

22.

A woman hands a man a deed with the intent to pass title and asks the man not to record the deed until the woman dies. When is the deed valid?

a)

The deed is valid on the woman's death

b)

The deed is valid immediately

c)

It is void

d)

The deed is valid when the man records the deed

23.

The covenant in a deed that states that the grantor has full possession of the premises in fee simple (or any other estate the grantor purports to convey) is called the covenant of

a)

seisin

b)

habendum

c)

quiet enjoyment

d)

further assurance

24.

The rights to the space above the ground within vertical planes are BEST described as

a)

air rights

b)

the bundle of rights

c)

solar rights

d)

riparian rights

25.

A back yard is drawn on a plan 6.5 by 3 in. If the scale is 0.5 in. = 5 ft. and sod costs $15 per square yard. How much would it cost to sod this lawn?

a)

$1,625

b)

$2,160

c)

$3,250

d)

$6,500

26.

A deed prepared and signed but NOT delivered is

a)

invalid as between the parties, but valid as to subsequent recorded interests.

b)

valid as between the parties

c)

valid as between the parties, but invalid as to subsequent recorded interests

d)

invalid as between the parties

27.

An example of less-than-freehold estate is

a)

a life estate

b)

a leasehold estate

c)

an estate on condition subsequent

d)

a mortgaged estate

28.

When there is a default on a mortgage, which of the following is TRUE?

a)

The lender can foreclose without the need of going through judicial proceedings if there is power-of-sale clause in the mortgage

b)

After the foreclosure sale, the borrower has a 10-year statutory right to redeem the property by paying all cash.

c)

The mortgagor can pay up all of the back payments at any time and thus remain in good standing with the lender

d)

The lender can foreclose only if there is an escalation clause in the mortgage

29.

A person receives a purchase-money $30,000 loan from the seller at a reduced rate of 9%. Assuming the loan interest is calculated on a declining balance, if the payment is $250/month, including interest, what is the person's balance after 3 payments?

a)

$29,898.86

b)

$29,924.43

c)

$29,949.81

d)

$29,975.00

30.

Under the statue of frauds, all contracts for the sale of real estate must be in writing. The principal reason for this statue is to

a)

prevent the buyer from defrauding the seller

b)

prevent perjury and fraudulent proof of a fictitious oral contract

c)

protect the buyer from broker

d)

protect the general public from fraud due to unrecorded deeds

31.

Which of the following is an essential element of any contract?

a)

Written instructment

b)

Words of conveyance

c)

Consideration

d)

Acknowledgment

32.

When the seller finances the buyer's purchase of a home, it is MOST precisely described as

a)

An conventional mortgage

b)

a chattel mortgage

c)

a purchase-money mortgage

d)

home financing

33.

The federal Truth in Lending Act requires that the lender disclose which of the following when a purchase-money mortgage is made?

a)

Annual percentage rate

b)

Right of rescission

c)

Penalties for violating the act

d)

Total closing costs

34.

A copy of a listing agreement must

a)

be presented to the person signing the agreement

b)

include all the terms and conditions of the sale

c)

be given to the purchaser

d)

be given to the broker representing the purchaser

35.

Like other home owners, condo owners do NOT benefit from

a)

depreciation

b)

a federal deduction for paid mortgage interest

c)

the Taxpayer Relief Act 1997

d)

homestead exemption

36.

Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an administrator and an executor?

a)

An administrator is assigned by the courts to administer a decedent's estate while an executor is named in a decedent's will to execute the decedent's last will and testament

b)

An administrator is a devisee, while an executor is not

c)

An administrator is a testator, while an executor is not

d)

An executor has riparian rights, while and administrator does not

37.

An adjustable-rate mortgage has a margin of 240 basis points and its initial index is 4.25%. If the index moves at the end of year one to 5.00%, what is the newly adjusted interest rate?

a)

6.75

b)

7.50

c)

9.25

d)

9.50

38.

All owners of condominium units have all of the following EXCEPT their own

a)

real estate tax bills on their units

b)

deeds to their units

c)

maintenance dues on their units

d)

deeds to the common elements

39.

A borrower wishes to locate first-mortgage financing that will not be charge a penalty if it is paid off before maturity. In most states, which of these loans types generally will NOT meet this need?

a)

FHA

b)

Conventional

c)

Nonconvential

d)

VA

40.

Which of the following is NOT a way in which land use is regulated or controlled?

a)

Resolutions passed by local REALTORS boards

b)

Zoning ordinances

c)

Public ownership

d)

Restrictions contained in sellers' deeds

41.

A property is valued at $180,000 and is making an 8% annual net return on the investment. By what percentage must a monthly profit be increased to make a 10% annual return?

a)

15%

b)

20%

c)

25%

d)

30%

42.

A property on which a mortgage will be recorded is likely to have an on-site inspection under which of the following?

a)

 an ALTA extended policy

b)

a standard coverage policy

c)

Request by a mortgagor only

d)

An inspection is necessary for any type of title insurance policy

43.

The usual standard policy of title insurance insures against loss due to

a)

forgery in the chain of recorded title

b)

encumbrances not disclosed by official public records

c)

rights of parties in possession

d)

actions of government agencies

44.

A broker reading that “time is of the essence” and the client's contract would know that it most nearly means

a)

the contract is the least creating a tenancy for years

b)

the contract refers to that time period over which a property can be profitably used

c)

that the unity of time must be present

d)

that performance must be on or before the date specified in the contract, with no extensions.

45.

Where a contract of sale fails to mention the existence of a mortgage on the land but there is such a mortgage, which statement is true?

a)

the seller can compel the buyer to complete the deal

b)

the signing of the contract of sale automatically makes the mortgage void

c)

the buyer has the right to demand title free and clear of the mortgage

d)

the buyer must take title subject to the mortgage

46.

When a property is sold under agreement of sale (land contract)

a)

legal title passes to the buyer

b)

the buyer receives a deed at the close of initial escrow

c)

the vendor retains possession

d)

the buyer has equitable title until satisfaction

47.

Which of the following Provisions concerning the property should not be included in a rental agreement for a residential condominium apartment?

a)

Appraised value

b)

Intended use

c)

Amount of rent

d)

Expiration date

48.

What is the name of the Fannie Mae Form 1004 that is used by residential appraisers?

a)
Fannie Mae Residential Appraisal Form
b)
Residential Appraisal Report (RAR)
c)
Uniform Residential Appraisal Form (URAF)
d)
Uniform Residential Appraisal Report (URAR)
49.

Which statement is true regarding property having depreciation deductions that exceed the amount of income from the property?

a)

the property will devaluate more rapidly

b)

it is never advantageous to show a loss on income property

c)

the loss must always be used to offset other income

d)

within legal limits, it can be deducted and any excess depreciation may be applied for future years

50.

At what stage in the typical real estate transaction is the sales contract signed by buyer and seller?

a)

prior to the issuance of the buyer's title insurance policy

b)

immediately after the lender commits to the loan

c)

at the same time as recordation

d)

before the listing contract

51.

When an easement exists between two parcels of land that are separately owned, the

a)

dominant tenement has use of this easement only for Ingress and egress

b)

servient tenement must have created the easement in writing

c)

dominant tenement is benefited by the easement

d)

servient tenement may revoke the use of easement by giving proper notice

52.

What is the name of the search that examines all the public records to determine whether any defect exists in the chain of ownership beginning with the present owner and Trace backward to a defined. of time?

a)

title search

b)

ownership search

c)

root search

d)

lien search

53.

A person owning beachfront property sells the two lots between his lot and the public road. This person would be best advised to reserve from the transfer of which type of right-of-way?

a)

Easement in gross

b)

Easement of necessity

c)

Easement appurtenant

d)

license

54.

This type of easement is distinguished by the existence of a dominant estate, which is the property that benefits from the easement and to which the easement attaches to

a)

Easement in gross

b)

Easement appurtenant

c)

Easement by necessity

d)

Easement by prescription

55.

This type of an easement occurs where someone uses another's property for a certain amount of time without permission in a way in which the owner should be aware of. States set the time limits required for someone to achieve this type of an easement which can range from a few years to over twenty.

a)

Easement in gross

b)

Easement appurtenant

c)

Easement by necessity

d)

Easement by prescription

56.

A legal right to use someone else's properties when there is no other reasonable physical or legal access depending on specific rules. It arises when a landlocked property owner requires an easement to access their property because there are no other reasonable means of entry. Giving a landowner right-of-way over an adjoining parcel of land in order to access a public road is the most common example of this type of easement.

a)

Easement in gross

b)

Easement appurtenant

c)

Easement by necessity

d)

Easement by prescription

57.

This type of easement agreement benefits the property owner as an individual, not the property. A holder of this type of an easement will be unable to transfer the benefits to another party. For example, if your family owns land that is next to or has a common boundary with a highway and a local dairy farm wants to access that highway by cutting through your land, your family may sell a commercial easement ______________ to the dairy.

a)

Easement in gross

b)

Easement appurtenant

c)

Easement by necessity

d)

Easement by prescription

58.

Is a form of ownership in which two or more people own an undivided interest in an entire property. A key characteristic of this type of ownership is that if one of the owners dies, their share is conveyed to their heirs, not the other owners who are still alive.

a)

Tenancy in Common

b)

Joint Tenancy

c)

Tenancy by Entirety

d)

Tenancy in Severalty

59.

Is a form of ownership that exists when two or more people purchase a property. y. Each has equal rights to the property, and if one of them passes away, their share of ownership simply passes through to the surviving owner or owners; This type of ownership creates a right of survivorship, which means that when one owner dies, the other owners absorb the deceased owner's interest.

a)

Tenancy in Common

b)

Joint Tenancy

c)

Tenancy by Entirety

d)

Tenancy in Severalty

60.

is a legal arrangement that only married couples can enter into. With this type of agreement, each partner owns an equal share

a)

Tenancy in Common

b)

Joint Tenancy

c)

Tenancy by Entirety

d)

Tenancy in Severalty

61.

This type of tenancy occurs when someone has an exclusive right to ownership not shared with anyone else. This could apply to people or a corporation as the owner. An easy way to think of this type of tenancy is to just think: Sole Ownership.

a)

Tenancy in Common

b)

Joint Tenancy

c)

Tenancy by Entirety

d)

Tenancy in Severalty

62.

A seller told an agent that he was thinking about selling, so the agent acted on their conversation and brought an offer for the seller to accept. if no conversation regarding agency transpired between the two, what is their agency relationship?

a)

consensual dual

b)

appointed

c)

ostensible

d)

non-client

63.

Constructive notice of a fact is established by

a)

entering it in the public record

b)

acting openly in accordance with the fact

c)

communicating the fact directly to each interested party

d)

testifying to the existence of the fact under oath in open court

64.

Which of the following is true about a tax credit?

a)

it applies against tax deductions

b)

it offsets gross taxable income

c)

it is a dollar-for-dollar reduction and taxes owed

d)

it increases the tax exclusion

65.

A hospital receives a gift of real property from an elderly couple who reserve a life estate. the hospital is the

a)

grantor

b)

remainderman

c)

reversionary party

d)

donor

66.

The seller's broker negotiating a difficult sales contract between an experienced seller of real estate and a novice purchaser should

a)

not be concerned about the buyer’s lack of experience

b)

refuse to continue negotiating with the purchaser

c)

insist that the purchaser employee an attorney

d)

suggest that the purchaser consider employing another broker or an attorney

67.

To be admissible to record in the appropriate public record office, a deed must be

a)

signed by grantor and grantee

b)

a printed form

c)

signed by the grantee

d)

signed by the grantor

68.

Fee simple is all of the following except

a)

an estate of inheritance

b)

a freehold estate

c)

a less-than-freehold estate

d)

indefinite as to its duration

e)

periodic estate

69.

A type of estate that consists of a long-term rental agreement secured by a written contract.

a)

leasehold estate

b)

periodic estate

c)

life estate

d)

estate in years

e)

estate at will

70.

A legal way to own property with someone else and pass it on to them automatically when you die. Creating this type of ownership arrangement can help remove the property from the probate process.

a)

leasehold estate

b)

estate in land

c)

life estate

d)

estate in years

e)

estate at will

71.

Is an ownership of a temporary right to hold land or property in which a lessee or a tenant has rights of real property by some form of title from a lessor or landlord; This type of estate allows the tenant to take possession of a real property for a period of time. If you're a landlord, you rent property to your tenants and have this form of estate.

a)

leasehold estate

b)

periodic estate

c)

life estate

d)

estate in years

e)

estate at will

72.

is a type of leasehold agreement between a tenant and a landlord that has successive terms but no end date and is only terminated if one of the parties wishes to end the agreement.

a)

leasehold estate

b)

periodic estate

c)

life estate

d)

estate for years

e)

estate at will

73.

This type of estate automatically terminates. This of course is due to the fact that the parties agreed to the ending date when the arrangement began.

a)

leasehold estate

b)

periodic estate

c)

life estate

d)

estate for years

e)

estate at will

74.

The most important thing to know about this type of estate is that it has no defined duration; The lease can run for an indefinite period. This arrangement may last for a month or go on for years.

a)

leasehold estate

b)

periodic estate

c)

life estate

d)

estate for years

e)

estate at will

75.

Three individuals from a business alliance for investment purposes. If all three of equal managerial responsibilities and share equally in the profits and losses they have formed a

a)

Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT)

b)

limited partnership

c)

general partnership

d)

real estate mortgage investment conduit (REMIC)

76.

Which statement is true if a broker established a real estate trust account and an FDIC or NCUA institution?

a)

the account may be called an escrow account

b)

the account must include the word trust in its name

c)

the account must be in a big differ from the broker's business checking account

d)

the account must be interesting-bearing for the seller

77.

A complainant under the federal fair housing act must file a complaint

a)

directly with the governor's office

b)

within 45 days of the alleged discriminatory act

c)

within one year of the discriminatory act

d)

directly to the State Attorney General

78.

Besides delegated authority, what else is required to create an agency relationship?

a)

an agreed commission

b)

consent to act

c)

a written agreement

d)

power of attorney

79.

A farm was listed by a seller. An interested buyer paid $5,000 for a 60-day option to purchase the farm for $85,000. After 45 days, the buyer submitted an offer to purchase the form for $75,000. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

the option is terminated

b)

the seller must accept the subsequent offer

c)

a commission became payable when the seller gave a written option to the buyer

d)

only if the seller accepts the offer will he owe a commission

80.

Which unity is required to create a tenancy in common ownership interest?

a)

possession

b)

interest

c)

property

d)

time

e)

title

81.

An agency agreement to sell a specific piece of real property will not be terminated by

a)

the death of the broker

b)

bankruptcy of the seller

c)

revocation of the listing salesperson's license

d)

insanity of the broker

82.

An installment contract for the sale of real estate does not give the buyer

a)

the right to live on the property

b)

the right to lease the property

c)

the right of possession

d)

legal title to the property

83.

Who would most probably pay the initial 1% origination fee allowed by VA on guaranteed loans?

a)

lending institution

b)

buyer

c)

seller

d)

escrow

84.

A person buys a house for $50,000 and wants to realize an 8% profit after paying a 6% real estate commission. Which should be the selling price?

a)

$50,760

b)

$53,191

c)

$57,446

d)

$90,000

85.

Assume that a buyer is making fully amortized payments of $600 per month on a purchase-money mortgage. Which statement is true?

a)

the amount applied to principal decreases each month

b)

the interest payment stays the same

c)

interests and principal payments are constant

d)

the amount applied to interest decreases each month

86.

The seller under a land contract is called the

a)

grantor

b)

grantor

c)

vendor

d)

vendee

87.

Which of the following does not appear in a promissory note?

a)

interest

b)

interest

c)

term of lease

d)

purchase price of property

88.

What phase in an environmental audit requires the taking and analyzing of soil and/or water samples?

a)

phase I

b)

phase II

c)

phase III

d)

phase IV

89.

The mortgage clause that permits the borrower to pay off the entire debt ahead of schedule without being charged a penalty is

a)

an acceleration clause

b)

an escalation clause

c)

A level-off-payment clause

d)

A prepayment clause

90.

Which of the following are the four characteristics of value in the real estate market?

a)

 demand, location, utility, and stability

b)

 scarcity, utility, price, and location

c)

 demand, utility, scarcity, and transferability

d)

 demand, discount rate, obsolescence, and stability

91.

A freehold could be any of the following except

a)

 a life estate

b)

 a fee simple estate

c)

 An estate for years

d)

 a defeasible fee estate

92.

The FHA does NOT

a)

Help stabilize the mortgage market

b)

 improve housing standards

c)

 make Direct Loans in the primary mortgage market

d)

 stimulate housing activity 

93.

Which of these statements concerning the principal-agent disclosure is false?

a)

as long as a broker discloses that he's acting for a named principal, the broker usually is not liable when the principal default

b)

a broker is personally liable for the principal’s default on a contract that the broker negotiate it without naming the principal

c)

the broker may work for either the buyer or seller, but not for both

d)

The broker can act for both the buyer and the seller in the same transaction as long as his position is disclosed and agreed to in writing by both of the parties

94.

Buying real property “subject to the mortgage” is

a)

a type of conditional loan

b)

a mortgage bought by Fannie Mae and sold to Ginnie Mae

c)

the taking of title to property by a grantee with no personal responsibility to the lender for paying the mortgage loan

d)

the right to foreclose without going to court

95.

In real estate financing, the debt is evidenced by a

a)

mortgage

b)

promissory note 

c)

chattel mortgage

d)

financing statement

96.

Which of the following exemplifies a voluntary alienation?

a)

 eminent domain

b)

esheat

c)

A sale

d)

adverse possession

97.

Which of the following statements about deed restrictions is false?

a)

 they are frequently encountered in residential subdivisions

b)

 they are also called restrictive covenants

c)

 they terminate on the death of the grantor

d)

 once established, they run with the land and are limitations on the use of future grantees

98.

For a deed to be valid, which of the following statements must be true?

a)

the grantee must execute the deed

b)

the deed must be delivered during the lifetime of grantor

c)

the deed must be dated

d)

the grantee must have legal capacity to contract

99.

Which of the following can the listing broker usually not show the buyer?

a)

a Subdivision map of the property

b)

a copy of the seller's recorded deed

c)

the listing contract

d)

Tax Office data

100.

An action brought by a landowner against the government in which the landowner claims money damages because her property value has been lessened due to government action is best called

a)

subrogation

b)

Attachment

c)

inverse condemnation

d)

lis pendens

101.

When a deed does not specify the estate being conveyed, it is presumed to transfer

a)

A defeasible fee

b)

a fee simple absolute

c)

an estate for years

d)

a life estate

102.

A secured loan with a payback based on 25 years, but that is to be paid in full in 10 years, may not be

a)

a balloon mortgage

b)

an installment contract

c)

an amortized loan

d)

a graduated payment mortgage

103.

A property manager most likely would conduct a market survey to determine

a)

appropriate use of the building

b)

appropriate rents to charge

c)

required maintenance

d)

the availability of money

104.

The legal remedy most likely used by the seller on abandonment and default by the buyer under a recorded contract of sale is called a

a)

Trustee’s sale

b)

Lis pendens action

c)

partition action

d)

Quiet Title suit

105.

Both VA and FHA Loans cannot be made by

a)

savings associations

b)

commercial Banks

c)

mortgage companies

d)

credit unions

106.

A man sells the residents for $115,000 that he bought 2 years ago for $78,000. He added a bathroom for $2,500 and a basketball court for $6,000. He buys another house 10 months later for $125,000. The realized gain on the sale is

a)

$28,500

b)

$34,500

c)

$38,500

d)

$41,000