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REVIEW: Biology NOW Ch. 4-8

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The chromosomes in a homologous pair

a)

both came from the organism’s mother.

b)

both came from the organism’s father.

c)

do not line up together during meiosis.

d)

consist of one maternal and one paternal chromosome.

2.

The centromeres split and the sister chromatids move to opposite ends of the cell during which phase of mitosis?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

3.

When examining the rapidly dividing cells of a fish embryo, a researcher notices a cell that seems to contain two nuclei. The middle of the cell is pinched inward. This cell must be in __________ of mitosis.

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

4.

Which of the following would promote a cell to advance through the G2 checkpoint?

a)

The cell lacks necessary nutrients.

b)


The genetic information has been duplicated.

c)

The cell is too small in size.

d)

A chromosome has been damaged.

5.

Which of the following is a possible consequence of disabling the G2 checkpoint in the cell cycle?

a)

Damaged DNA would be immediately replicated and passed on to the two daughter cells, giving rise to helpful, new alleles.

b)

Incompletely replicated DNA may be passed to the two daughter cells; these cells could be lacking specific genes or chromosomes and would likely not survive.

c)

The cell cycle would pause if cell size or nutrient supply is inadequate, DNA is damaged, or DNA replication is incomplete.

d)

The cell cycle would simply skip mitosis and go directly to G1 to start over.

6.

Which of the following cell types can be produced by meiosis?

a)

skin

b)

muscle

c)

pancreatic

d)

sperm

7.

When a cell has completed both rounds of meiosis, the resulting cells are

a)

diploid, and each of two daughter cells has twice the number of chromosomes as the starting cell.

b)

diploid, and each of four daughter cells has half the number of chromosomes as the starting cell.

c)

haploid, and each of four daughter cells has half the number of chromosomes as the starting cell.

d)

haploid, and each of two daughter cells has twice the number of chromosomes as the starting cell.

8.

If a diploid animal cell has a total of 18 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would be present in each of its gametes?

a)

36

b)

18

c)

9

d)

6

9.

In a sexually reproducing animal, the gametes are produced by meiosis rather than mitosis because

a)

mitosis would produce too many sister cells

b)

meiosis reduces the chromosome number so that the zygotes that are produced will have one full genome.

c)

meiosis doubles the chromosome number so that each gamete has twice the usual number of genes.

d)

meiosis ensures that the gametes are identical to the cell that produced them.

10.

Which two processes combine to create genetic diversity and maintain chromosome number?

a)

mitosis and meiosis

b)


meiosis and independent assortment

c)


binary fission and mitosis

d)

fertilization and meiosis

11.

Select the steps in meiosis that generate genetic diversity.

a)

prophase and metaphase of meiosis I

b)

prophase and metaphase of meiosis II

c)

anaphase and telophase of meiosis I

d)

anaphase and telophase of meiosis II

12.

Which of the following is a form of genetic recombination that occurs naturally within cells?

a)

mitosis

b)

independent assortment

c)

crossing-over

d)

asexual reproduction

13.

Select the correct statement regarding the chemical bisphenol A (BPA).

a)

only disrupts the cell cycle in very large doses

b)

has been replaced with BPS, an alternative demonstrated to be safe

c)

exerts its effects on cell division by mimicking the hormone estrogen

d)

is inactivated with high heat or by microwaving

14.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Prophase II
b)
Metaphase I
c)
Metaphase II
d)
Anaphase I
15.

In humans, the haploid number of chromosomes is ____.

a)

23

b)

46

c)

69

d)

92

16.

Which stage facilitates cell growth and preparation for both mitosis and meiosis?

a)

Interphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Anaphase

17.

These chromosomes result in the biological sex of a human

a)

XX; Female

XY; Male

b)

XX; Male

XY; Female

c)

X; Female

Y; Male

18.
The physical appearance of an organism based on traits
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Meiosis
d)
Genetics
19.
Which is the correct phenotype for this organism?
a)
BB
b)
blue
c)
green
d)
bb
20.
What is the genotype for this organism?
(E= 3 eyes, e= 1 eye)
a)
EE
b)
Ee
c)
ee
d)
EE or Ee
21.
T - tall and t = short
In the Punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
22.
B = brown fur  b = white fur
In the Punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
23.
If T=Tall & t=short, what is the genotypic ratio?
a)
1:3
b)
3:1
c)
1:2:1
d)
2:2
24.

Which of the following genotypes is homozygous recessive?

a)

RR

b)

Rr

c)

rr

25.

Brown eyes (B) are dominant over blue eyes (b). Mr. Mallin has blue eyes. What is his genotype?

a)

BB

b)

Bb

c)

bb

26.

Brown eyes (B) are dominant over blue eyes (b). Assume Mr. Ward is homozygous dominant for brown eyes. What is his son’s phenotype?

a)

Brown eyes

b)

Blue eyes

c)

Bb

d)

BB

27.

Free earlobes (E) are dominant over attached earlobes (e). Ms. Palmeri’s phenotype is free earlobes and her genotype is heterozygous (Ee). Which of these statements is true?

a)

Both of her parents have attached ear lobes

b)

At least one of her parents has free earlobes

c)

Both of her parents are homozygous recessive

28.
How are Incomplete Dominance and Co Dominance different than a normal Mendelian cross?
a)
There is no difference
b)
The heterozygous genotype has a unique phenotype
c)
There is no heterozygous genotype
d)
There is only one phenotype regardless of genotype.
29.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
c)
Independent assortment
d)
Recessive inheritance
30.

Polygenic Inheritance

a)

an inheritance pattern in which an offspring’s phenotype is a 

      combination of the parent’s phenotypes

b)

an inheritance pattern in which both alleles can be observed in a phenotype

c)

an inheritance pattern in which multiple genes determine the 

    phenotype of a trait

31.

If all F1 generation is Aa, then the expected crossing between parents' genotypes are

a)

AA x Aa

b)

AA x aa

c)

Aa x Aa

32.

The A in both chromosomes represent

a)

phenotype

b)

gene

c)

genotype

d)

locus

33.

A segment of a DNA that codes for a particular phenotype is called

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

gene

d)

locus

34.

Two Martians fall in love and marry. One Martian is homozygous for red eyes and the other is heterozygous. The recessive eye color is purple. What are the chances that the alien couple will have a child with red eyes?

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

25%

35.

Alleles segregate independently of other alleles because…………………

a)

maternal and paternal chromosomes line up randomly on either side of the equator during metaphase I

b)

separation of sister chromatids during anaphase I

c)

homologous chromosomes moves to the opposite poles of the cell

d)

crossing over during prophase I

36.

Which type of inheritance results in the color pink in snapdragon flowers?

a)

dihybrid inheritance

b)

incomplete dominant alleles inheritance

c)

codominant alleles inheritance

d)

monohybrid inheritance

37.

If your genotype is Bb, then you can only pass a B or b to your child but you can't pass both.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

38.

Which states that different traits are inherited independently of each other (usually applied when more than one trait is being analyzed)?

a)

Law of independent assortment

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Dominance

39.

Codominance occurs in calico cats, which allows for the Black and Tan colors to show. What percentage of the offspring will be calico (black and tan spotted)?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

75

d)

100

40.

Incomplete dominance occurs in cats, which allows them to be Black, White, or gray as shown on this Punnett square. What percentage of the offspring will be black?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

75

d)

100

41.

Name the proteins on the surface of red blood cells.

a)

Antibodies

b)

Antigens

c)

Plasma

d)

Collagen

42.

What type of antigens can be found on the surface of RBC's when someone has blood type O?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

none

43.
What types of antigens are present in a person with O+ blood?
a)
A and B
b)
Rh, only
c)
A, B and Rh
d)
None
44.
What blood type is the "universal donor" because it can be donated to anyone?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
O
45.
What type of blood can receive any type of blood?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
0
46.
Mike has type O blood. Mike can receive blood from someone who has Type A or Type B.
a)
True
b)
False
47.
Someone with type A blood can receive blood from someone who is type AB.
a)
True
b)
False
48.
Which blood type is also known as the universal recipient?
a)
O-
b)
O+
c)
AB+
d)
AB-
49.

Red blood cells will do this if they encounter the wrong antibodies...

a)

swell

b)

agglutinate

c)

dehydrate

d)

no reaction will occur

50.

This determines whether a person's blood type is positive or negative...

a)

Rh factor

b)

platelets

c)

D antibodies

d)

plasma

51.

What is the possible blood types for the offspring produced by a type “AO” mother and a type “BO” father.

a)

AB, AO, BO, OO

b)

AO, BO

c)

OO

d)

AB, OO

52.
What are the blood types of the possible children that a woman (type O) and man (type AB) can have?
a)
O and AB
b)
O and A
c)
O and B
d)
A and B
53.

Assuming a trait is AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT, what genotypes could make a person AFFECTED?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

XAY

e)

XaY

54.

Assuming a trait is X-LINKED RECESSIVE, what are the genotypes of an AFFECTED person?

a)

XAY

b)

XaY

c)

XAXA

d)

XAXa

e)

XaXa

55.
In the second generation-how many people are carriers of the trait?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
6
56.

What does A indicate?

a)

A male that has the trait.

b)

A female that has the trait.

c)

A female that does not have the trait.

d)

A male that does not have the trait.

57.

In the diagram, individual II-1 indicates

a)

a female with no freckles

b)

a male with no freckles

c)

a male with freckles

d)

a female with freckles

58.

What is the Genotype of individual I-1?

a)

FF

b)

Ff

c)

ff

d)

Can't know for sure

59.

What is the Genotype of individual II-6?

a)

FF

b)

Ff

c)

ff

d)

Can't know for sure

60.
Occurs when a person has an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.

a)
Down syndrome
b)
Huntington's disease
c)
Parkinson's disease
d)
Zika syndrome
61.

This genetic disorder causes red blood cells to exhibit an irregular shape. Symptoms of this disorder can include joint pain, poor circulation, and a shorter lifespan. It is highly prevalent in African and African American populations.

a)

Anemia

b)

Albinism

c)

Turner syndrome

d)

Sickle-cell Anemia

62.

The karyotype diagram below represents a human female with the genetic disorder known as Turner syndrome. Chromosomal analysis of this karyotype reveals the mutation is a result of

a)

a missing X chromosome

b)

a missing Y chromosome

c)

an extra 21 chromosome

d)

missing chromosome #9

63.
Notice the abnormal 23rd chromosome.  This individual suffers from which chromosomal genetic disorder?
a)
Klienfelter's Syndrome
b)
Down Syndrome
c)
Cris-du-Chat Syndrome
d)
Andrew's Syndrome
64.
What process occurs during meiosis that can result in chromosomal disorders?
a)
crossing over
b)
non-disjunction
c)
anaphase I
d)
prophase II
65.

Describe this karyotype.

a)

Male with no obvious disorder

b)

Female with no obvious disorder

c)

Female with disorder

d)

Male with disorder

66.

A piece of a chromosome is lost

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

67.

A piece of a chromosome is copied and remains within the chromosome

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

68.

A piece of one chromosome detaches and reattaches to a different chromosome

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

69.

The chromosomal mutation shown in the image is a

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

70.
Mutations affect the ________ of a protein. Because of this the proteins ______ is affected as well. 
a)
gene, function 
b)
sequence, gene
c)
shape,function

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