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PERFORMANCE CHECK APP NOVEMBER 2023

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 4hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

  According KP 166, maximum control hour for air traffic controller per week is

 

a)

6 hours

b)

32 hours

c)

8 hours

d)

24 hours

2.

In longitudinal separation based on DME aircraft climbing and decending flying on reciprocal tracks maybe cleared to cross the level of other aircraft at least

a)

Passed each other

b)

Passed each orher and 5 NM apart


c)

Passed each other and 10 NM apart

d)

Passed each other and 3 NM apart

3.

  What is general terminology of a path between waypoint:

a)

A turn

b)

A course

c)

A leg

d)

A track

4.

An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft can land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure

a)

take off alternate

b)

alternate aerodrome

c)

point of destination

d)

aerodrome of departure

5.

Controller states a pilots distance of 25 NM as

a)

Twenty Five nautical miles

b)

Two five miles

c)

Twenty five miles

d)

Two five nautical miles

6.

Below are PBN performance requirement, except

a)

Availability

b)

Accuracy

c)

Continuity

d)

Stability

7.

   A waypoint demanding turn anticipation requiring the aircraft to start turning before it actually reaches the waypoint is called

a)

Fly-by

b)

Fly-pass

c)

Flyover

d)

Fly-away

8.

     The Minimum Visibility for RNP Approach Z runway 29 with ALS is

a)

2100 m

b)

1900 m

c)

1700 m

d)

2800 m

9.

    Which has the first priority in flight on sequence

a)

Delay a/c about to reach a slot  time

b)

Executive a/c carrying the president or foreign heads of government

c)

Aircraft immediately advises of fuel shortage

d)

A/c is carrying unfit person and paramedic on board

10.

One minutes separation for departing aircraft may be applied when the aircraft are to fly on tracks diverging at least

a)

45°

b)

20°

c)

40°

d)

30°

11.

     What is PBN implementation key enabler

a)

Area navigation

b)

Augmentation

c)

Navigation database evolution

d)

GNSS

12.

       CA ONE XRAY ARRIVAL IS

a)

arrival W 16S/W 17S from CA to LILMA to TEROB to TARIS to BIROL to BND

b)

arrival W 16S/W 17S from CA to TEROB to REPIG to TARIS to BIROL to BND

c)

arrival W 16S/W 17S from CA to

LILMA to TEROB to TARIS to BIROL to BND

d)

arrival W 16S/W 17S from CA to LILMA to TEROB to REPIG to TARIS to BIROL to BND


13.

  The Minimum Visibility profile for RNP Z RWY 11 LNAV/VNAV CAT C is

a)

4300 m

b)

3300 m

c)

2800 m

d)

2200 m

14.

   Separation or distance between aircraft flying VVIP with other civil aircraft is set as follows … Vertical Separation for flights in the airspace of Control Zone (CTR)

a)

1000 Feet

b)

2000 Feet

c)

1500 Feet

d)

3000 Feet

15.

  In Flightplan item Equipment, what letter show aircraft capabilities of PBN

a)

R

b)

P

c)

G

d)

N

16.

         Clearance limit shall be describe specifying the name of….

a)

Aerodrome

b)

Controlled airspace boundary

c)

Appropriate Reporting Point

d)

All answers are correct


17.

    ATIS broadcast messages containing arrival information , the element of information includes are

a)


Name of Aerodrome,designator, QAM, specific ATIS instruction and NOTAM (if available )

b)

Name of aerodrome ,designator , time observation QAM, RVR (when available ),specific ATIS instruction

c)

Name of Controller, designator, QAM, NOTAM (if Available )

d)

Name of city , designator , time observation, air temperature , present WX and ground visibility

18.

    A publication issued by or with the authority of a state and containing aeronautical information of lasting character essential to air navigation is…

a)

NOTAM

b)

ATIS

c)

AIRAC

d)

AIP

19.

      A surface of constant atmospheric pressure, which is related to a specific pressure datum, is….

a)

Height

b)

QNH

c)

Flight Level

d)

Altitude

20.

What service shall be provided by an aerodrome control tower or an ACC, when it is necessary or desirable to combine under the responsibility of one unit the functions of the approach control service and those of the aerodrome control service or the area control service

a)

approach control service

b)

aerodrome control tower

c)

area control service

d)

air traffic service

21.

     A situation where in there is reasonable certainty that an aircraftand its occupants are threafened by grave and imminent dager or required immediate assistant is

a)

Alert phase

b)

Uncertainty phase

c)

ALERFA

d)

Distress phase

22.

    Aircraft call sign/flight number,clearance limit,route of flight,flihgt level or altitude and other partinent instruction and information,are the item of

a)

Security clearance

b)

Flight approval

c)

ATC Clearance

d)

Flight plan

23.

Secondary frequency Bandung APP is….

a)

121,0 MHz

b)

119,65 MHz

c)

123,75MHz

d)

126,35 Mhz

24.

    Procedural separation will be applied, if:

a)

Aircraft leaving surveillance area and entering non surveillance area (procedural service)

b)

Aircraft can’t maintain position identification in ATS Surveillance coverage facility;


c)

  ATS Surveillance systemUnserviceable

d)

all answer are correct


25.

Type of ATC Rating according to KP 166 / 2020 are

 

a)

ADC, APP, APS, ACP

b)

TWR, ADC, APP, APS, ACP,ACS

c)

ADC, APP, APS, ACP, ACS

 


d)

TWR, APP, APS, ACP, ACS

26.

      CKG two Juliet departure is

a)

climb on course 289 to PIGUB

to IKOBO to NODER to CKG


b)

climb on course 289 to PIGUB

to CKG


c)

climb on course 289 to PIGUB to to NODER to CKG


d)

climb on course 289 KAGPO to CKG

27.

Information issued by an air traffic services unit to alert a pilot to other known or observed air traffic which may be in proximity to the position or intended route of filgt and to help the pilott avoid a collision is :

a)

Traffic circuit

b)

Traffic identification

c)

Traffic avoidance advise

d)

Traffic information.

28.

The altimeter setting procerures are designated to ensure

 

a)

Vertical separation

b)

Terrain clearance

c)

Lateral separation

d)

Both A and B are correct

29.

      Upper limit for WIR 14 is

a)

7000ft

b)

9500ft

c)

10000ft

d)

7500ft

30.

STAR Kertajati for RNP approach runway 14 ,except :

a)

DAGOH TWO CHARLIE ARRIVAL

b)

HLM ONE CHARLIE ARRIVAL

c)

CA ONE QUEBEC ARRIVAL

d)

HLM ONE ECHO ARRIVAL

31.

    ELBA is an abbreviation of Emergency locator beacon

 

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

32.

      Squawk for radio failure aircraft is 7600

 

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

33.

The aerodrome elevation of Husein Sastranegara airport is 2445 M

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

34.

       ATC on duty is ATC responsible for operation and safety of ATS unit involve during hours at that time

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

35.

   A Distress or Urgency call normally be made on the frequency 121,5 Mhz

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

36.

  Secondary frequency radio comunication Bandung Approach is 122,70 Mhz

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

37.

   The phrase which is used for the meaning ‘repeat all or the following part your last transmission’ is read back

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

38.

The phrase which is used for the meaning “ permission for the proposed action

granted “ is ROGER

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

39.

ARP is the Refrence of the Minimum Sector Altitude

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

40.

      "Final Segment" third segment of Instrument Approach segment

 

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

41.

  The initial approach level of RNP approach Rwy 29 is 8500ft

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

42.

frequency for kertajati tower is 124,3

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

43.

STAR Kertajati for RNP APP runway 32 is "HLM ONE CHARLIE ARRIVAL"

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

44.

take off alternate is alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft can land should this become

necessary shortly take off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of

Departure

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

45.

  The vertical limit Bandung Control Zone is 4500-FL150

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE