wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

PERFOMANCE CHECK RATING 2026

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 2hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many categories of ATS messages shall be handled by AFTN?

a)

10

b)

6

c)

8

d)

12

2.
What is the priority indicator of Flight Regularity Messages?
a)
FF
b)
GG
c)
DD
d)
KK
3.

Copies of all messages, in their entirety, transmitted by an AFTN origin station shall be retained for...

a)

31 days

b)

No Longer 30 Days

c)

30 days

d)

At Least 30 Days

4.

Three-digit channel-sequence numbers for AFTN.

a)

001 to 000 (representing 1,000)

b)

000 to 000 (representing 1,000)

c)

001 to 999

d)

000 to 999

5.

Regulation concerning the License, Rating, Training, and Proficiency of Navigation Personnel is…

a)

Ministerial Regulation No. 18 of 2023

b)

Ministerial Regulation No. 07 of 2025

c)

Ministerial Regulation No. 87 of 2021

d)

Ministerial Regulation No. 113 of 2017

6.

Based on Civil Aviation Safety Regulations Part 69-02 on License, Rating, Training, and Proficiency of Navigation Personnel, the validity period of the Medical Certificate is…

a)

Valid for 24 months

b)

Valid for 48 months

c)

Apply from the date of inspection to the end of the month running for 24 months

d)

Apply from the date of inspection to the end of the month running for 48 months

7.

Error message 'EXTERNAL POINT EXPECTED' means...

a)

An external point is needed for Inbound and/or Outbound Routes.

b)

When an element in the Flight Plan is not accessible when the action is performed over the Flight Plan.

c)

When a Flight Plan field is compulsory for a specific action over it.

d)

When flight plan data is not coherent with the information of the Flight Plan.

8.

Which one is the Format International Alphabet (IA) No. 5, in part of the HEADING message?

a)

Heading Line, Address, Origin, Text

b)

Starting Pulse, Address, Origin

c)

Heading Line, Address, Origin, Text, Ending

d)

Address, Origin, Text, Ending

9.

Which one is the correct format for a Delayed Message?

a)

(DLA-PKABC-WIOO-0900-WIII)

b)

(DLA-PKABC-WIOO0900-WIII)

c)

(DLA-PKABC-WIOO0900-WIII-DOF/250330)

d)

(DLA-PKABC-WIOO-0900-WIII-DOF/250330)

10.

AFTN address for Channel 12 in Sub Communication Center Pontianak Table Address is...

a)

WIOOZTZW

b)

WIOOZPZ

c)

WIOOZAZW

d)

WIOOYFY

11.

In the Flight Plan item 10a, item ‘W’ means for…

a)

PBN Approved

b)

RVSM Approved

c)

ADF

d)

MNPS Approved

12.

The text of the message entered by the AFTN origin station shall not exceed...

a)

1800 characters in length

b)

3700 characters in length

c)

2100 characters in length

d)

3600 characters in length

13.

In Item 15, the New Flight Plan format consists of:

a)

Cruising Speed, Flight Level, and Route

b)

Type of Aircraft, Weight, Turbulence Category

c)

Destination Aerodrome, Total EET, and Alternate

d)

Departure Aerodrome and Time

14.

When there are changes to specific items in the flight plan that have been sent, which kind of message needs to be sent to change the flight plan content?

a)

Created a New Flight Plan

b)

Correction Messages

c)

Duplicated Messages

d)

Change Messages

15.

AWQ531 departed from Kuching International Airport to Soekarno-Hatta Airport, but due to bad weather at the destination aerodrome, AWQ531 diverted to Supadio Airport and landed at 09:50 UTC. The correct arrival message is?

a)

(ARR-AWQ531-WBGG-WIII-WIOO0950)

b)

(ARR-AWQ531-WBGG-WIII0950-WIOO)

c)

(ARR-AWQ531-WBGG-WIOO)

d)

(ARR-AWQ531-WBGG-WIOO0950)

16.

Indicator in the FP Corrector Windows that informs erroneous input is?

a)

Area Warning Windows

b)

Field highlighted red color in background

c)

Field highlighted green color in background

d)

Display Area

17.

Where can you view Rejected Messages in the Flight Data Display of the new ATMAS?

a)

FP ACT

b)

HIST RTR

c)

QUEUES SUMMARY AFTN

d)

FP RTR

18.

Based on the image beside, what should onduty do to correct the FPL message so that it can be distributed to ATMAS ?

a)

Remove all PBN items

b)

Remove the C2 D2 items from PBN

c)

Remove all characters highlighted in red

d)

Add XZ items to the PBN

19.

Based on Civil Aviation Safety Regulations Part 69-02 on License, Rating, Training, and Proficiency of Navigation Personnel, what is the validity period of the Rating Aeronautical Communication Officer ?

a)

Valid for 12 months

b)

Valid for 06 months

c)

Valid for 24 months

d)

Valid for 48 months

20.

The document that is needed when there is a change in the type or series of aircraft that causes a change in seat capacity, cargo, and/or aircraft dimensions to become larger on an international flight is?

a)

Security Clearance

b)

Flight Permit

c)

Flight Clearance

d)

Flight Approval

21.

The validity period of Flight Approval (FA) for flight activities crossing Indonesian airspace by scheduled foreign civil aircraft, based on the latest regulation, is?

a)

FA is valid for 2 flights, with a period valid for 3 (three) calendar days (according to the date listed on the FA form)

b)

FA is valid for 1 flight, with a period valid for 2 (two) calendar days (according to the date listed on the FA form)

c)

FA is valid for 1 flight, with a period valid for 3 (three) calendar days (according to the date listed on the FA form)

d)

FA is valid for 2 flights, with a period valid for 2 (two) calendar days (according to the date listed on the FA form)

22.

Flight approval is valid for 2 flights, with a period valid for 2 (two) calendar days according to the date listed on the FA for….

a)

Private flight, humanitarian flight, aerial work

b)

Joy flight, air taxi, affinity group

c)

Ferry flight, test flight, joy flight

d)

Change schedule, re-route, change aircraft, extra flight, change flight number

23.

Which one is the correct PDAI member for WIOOWADD?

a)

WIIFZQZX, WADDZTZA, WIOOYFYB, WIOOYFY, WIOOYOY, WIOOZTZ, WIOOZAZ, WIOOATCA, WIOOATCB, WIOOZPZ, WIOOAIIS

b)

WIIFZQZX, WAAFZQZX, WADDZTZA, WIOOYFYB, WIOOYFY, WIOOYOY, WIOOZTZ, WIOOZAZ, WIOOATCA, WIOOATCB, WIOOAIIS

c)

WIIFZQZX, WAAFZQZX, WADDZTZA, WIOOYFYB, WIOOYFY, WIOOYOY, WIOOZTZ, WIOOZAZ, WIOOATCA, WIOOATCB, WIOOZPZ, WIOOAIIS

d)

WIIFZQZX, WAAFZQZX, WIOOYFYB, WIOOYFY, WIOOYOY, WIOOZTZ, WIOOZAZ, WIOOATCA, WIOOATCB, WIOOZPZ, WIOOAIIS

24.

Based on LOCA internal coordination between ARO, ATFM, FDO, and TWR, ensuring that all scheduled flights have appropriate route permits and that flight approvals for unscheduled flights are issued by the Director of Air Transport is the authority of which unit?

a)

ATFM

b)

ARO

c)

TWR

d)

FDO

25.

Receiving, checking, managing, and distributing ATS messages is the responsibility of which unit?

a)

ATFM

b)

ARO

c)

TWR

d)

FDO

26.

A special series NOTAM notifying, by means of a specific format, a change in the activity of a volcano, a volcanic eruption, and/or a volcanic ash cloud that is significant to aircraft operations is called:

a)

SNOWTAM

b)

NOTAM

c)

METAR

d)

ASHTAM

27.

When receiving information about changes to the call sign of the aircraft and the destination aerodrome, what should you do as the ATSRO on duty?

a)

Send CNL Messages, and inform the operator to send a new FPL

b)

Inform the operator to send a new FPL

c)

Send CHG Messages

d)

Send CNL Messages

28.

A service message in the rejected retrieval AFTN that has a completely damaged address or no address at all is called:

a)

Unknown Address

b)

Address Unknown

c)

Address Corrupt

d)

Unknown

29.

When an aeronautical station does not receive a flight plan, the station in need can send a ……… message in AFTN.

a)

Filling Flight Plan

b)

Free Text

c)

RQN

d)

RQP

30.

Message advice of immediate concern to an aircraft in flight or the aircraft about to depart, the priority indicator is:

a)

FF

b)

KK

c)

DD

d)

SS

31.

Channel-check transmissions. In the case where continuous control of channel conditions is not provided, the following periodic transmissions shall be sent at:

a)

H + 00, H + 20, H + 40

b)

H + 00, H + 30, H + 00

c)

H + 10, H + 30, H + 50

d)

Not Necessary

32.

The AFTN message format IA-5 shall comprise the following parts:

a)

Starting pulse, Origin, Text, Ending

b)

The Heading (Heading Line, Address, Origin), Text, Ending

c)

Address, Text, Ending

d)

Address, Origin, Text, Ending with the exception of the message separation signal

33.

DLA messages must be distributed by ATS unit departure aerodrome when a flight has been delayed during

a)

Delay less than 15 minutes EOBT Flight plan

b)

Delay more than 15 minutes from EOBT Flight plan

c)

Delay less than 30 minutes EOBT Flight plan

d)

Delay more than 30 minutes from EOBT Flight plan

34.

Telecommunication logs, written automatically, shall be retained for a period

a)

No more than 30 days

b)

Less than 30 days

c)

At least 30 days

d)

At least 40 days

35.

(CHG-BTK6221-WIOO0450-WIII-DOF/250401-13/WIOO0400) This message means…

a)

BTK6221 estimated time of departure WIOO0450 to WII

b)

BTK6221 actual time of departure WIOO0450 to WIII

c)

BTK6221 revised estimated time of departure WIOO from 0450 to 0400

d)

BTK6221 actual time of arrival WIOO0450 from WIII

36.

When the supervisor detects an invalid circuit identification (incorrect CID), what service messages are received in the correction terminal?

a)

RCV DCA002 EXP CDA002

b)

RCV DCA002-CDA002

c)

RCV DCA002 EXP CDA004

d)

RCV DCA002 EXP CDA002-004

37.

In Item 9, the new Flight Plan format consists of…

a)

number, type of aircraft, wake turbulence category, equipment and capabilities

b)

cruising speed, level, route

c)

number, type of aircraft, wake turbulence category

d)

departure aerodrome, time

38.

Item C on NOTAM describes...

a)

Content of NOTAM

b)

Expiration date of NOTAM

c)

Effective date of NOTAM

d)

Effective and expiration date of NOTAM

39.

The ICAO three-letter designator for the Air Traffic Service Reporting Office is

a)

ZSZ

b)

ZPZ

c)

ZAZ

d)

ZTZ

40.

In the Flight Plan item 10a, item ‘Z’ means for…

a)

RVSM Approved

b)

MNPS Approved

c)

RNAV 5 All Permitted Sensors

d)

Other Equipment Carried or Other Capabilities

41.

The priority alarm signal of a message received is shown by the following component part of the message:

a)

HEADING

b)

TEXT

c)

ORIGIN LINE

d)

ADDRESS LINE

42.

Flight Plan will expire at....

a)

120 Minutes From EOBT

b)

60 Minutes From EOBT

c)

60 Minutes Before EOBT

d)

120 Minutes Before EOBT

43.

The indicator RCF on the Flight Plan means…

a)

Radio Communication Failure

b)

Request Communication Frequency

c)

Request Current Flight Plan

d)

Request Current Frequency

44.

The indicator ALR on the Flight Plan means…

a)

Urgency Messages

b)

Flight Safety Messages

c)

Alerting Messages

d)

Advice Messages

45.

An extra flight with callsign LNI715 operated by Lion Air Mentari. The flight approval has issued that LNI715 will depart from Supadio International Airport with DOF 260103 at 06:30 UTC to Soekarno Hatta International Airport. Slot time has been approved at 06:30 UTC, but for some operational reasons, LNI715 requests a delay to 08:50. From this case, what is the action as an ATS Reporting Officer?

a)

Send delay message to 08:50 UTC

b)

Inform the operator to update the new flight plan

c)

Inform the operator to update the new flight approval and send new FPL according to the slot stated in the new Flight Approval

d)

Send CNL message and inform the operator to update the new flight plan

46.

B0089/25 NOTAMN [Erected Obstacle] Q)WAAF/QOBCE/IV/M/AE/000/999/0754S11002E001 A)WAHI B)2501272300 C)2502282300 E)OBSTACLE CRANE ERECTED HGT 46FT PSN ON COORD AS FLW: -075404.8S1100146.2E -075357.5S1100149.7E From the NOTAM above, when will the NOTAM end?

a)

January 27, 2025 at 23:00 UTC

b)

February 28, 2025 at 23:00 UTC

c)

January 28, 2025 at 23:00 UTC

d)

February 27, 2025 at 23:00 UTC

47.

What is the AFTN address for Singapore FIR?

a)

WSJCZQZX

b)

WMSAZQZX

c)

WBFCZQZX

d)

WMFCZQZX

48.

Emergency and Survival Equipment that is not available or not carried in Field 19 Supplementary Information on the flight plan form is marked with a cross (X).

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

49.

Flight approval must be attached if non-scheduled commercial air transportation of domestic passengers is conducted using aircraft with a capacity of more than 20 (twenty) seats.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

50.

LKN196 departed from WAHS to WAGI with an alternate aerodrome of WIOO. Due to bad weather conditions at WAGI, LKN196 landed at WIOO. The ATS Reporting Office at WIOO on duty sent an Arrival Message (ARR-WAHS-WAGI-WIOO0900-DOF/250401).

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE