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BIOCHEM

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following will specifically increase the fluidity of the cell membrane?

a)

Decrease in temperature

b)

Increase the unsaturated fatty acids

c)

Increase the saturated fatty acids

d)

Removal of cholesterol

2.

Transport of solute against its concentration gradient:

a)

Primary active transport

b)

Simple diffusion

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Osmosis

3.

Which of the following is NOT TRUE about glycine?

a)

Achiral

b)

Aliphatic

c)

Simplest amino acid

d)

Has and I-configuration

4.

Acidic amino acids:

a)

Are negatively charged at neutral pH

b)

Are ionizable amino acids

c)

Include glutamic acid and aspartic acid

d)

Form H bonds

5.

Which of the following statements differentiates simple passive diffusion from facilitated

diffusion?

a)

Facilitated diffusion is saturable, meaning, the carriers may be fully occupied.

b)

Facilitated diffusion is an active process.

c)

Facilitated diffusion moves against concentration gradient.

d)

Facilitated diffusion is not a carrier-mediated transport process.

6.

Which of the following protein structure is resistant from denaturation?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

7.

The organelle which has its own DNA and the site of energy-yielding oxidation reactions:

a)

Nucleus

b)

Golgi Apparatus

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Mitochondrion

8.

Deficiency of Se is associated with decreased efficiency of:

a)

Urease

b)

Nitrate reductase

c)

Glutathione peroxidase

d)

Superoxide dismutase

9.

These are enzymes that facilitate group transfer:

a)

Oxidoreductases

b)

Transferases

c)

Hydrolases

d)

Ligases

10.

Which of the following factors can affect the rate of reaction held by enzymes?

a)

Temperature

b)

pH

c)

[P] = Rate of reaction

d)

[S]

11.

What is the difference between active transport (AT) and facilitated diffusion (FD)?

a)

AT requires protein carriers; FD does not.

b)

AT requires energy; FD does not.

c)

AT requires a concentration gradient; FD does not.

d)

AT requires a membrane; FD does not.

12.

A substrate has the same affinity towards enzyme A and B. However, when all other conditions are identical, a higher molar concentration of the product is seen when enzyme A is used. This means that compared to enzyme B:

a)

Enzyme A has a higher Km

b)

Enzyme A has a lower Km

c)

Enzyme A has a higher Vmax

d)

Enzyme A has a lower Vmax

13.

What is the significance of Km?

a)

A crude measure of the affinity between the enzyme and substrate

b)

Tells how fast the enzyme can generate product under saturating substrate conditions

c)

Measurement of the relationship between the enzyme concentration and substrate concentration

d)

Measurement of the relationship between V0 and pH

14.

The Lineweaver-Burk plot of noncompetitive inhibition shows lines that intersect on the:

a)

X axis

b)

Y axis

c)

Origin

d)

No intersection

15.

In what cell component does fatty acid synthesis occur?

a)

Lysosome

b)

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Cytosol

d)

Mitochondrion

16.

In diagnosing patients with suspected Cu poisoning, which enzyme must be monitored?

a)

CK

b)

Amylase

c)

Ceruplasmin

d)

Lipase

17.

Which of the following is not found in the cytoplasm?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Inclusions

c)

Mitochondrion

d)

Plasma membrane

18.

Ketogenic amino acids may include all of the following, except:

a)

Phenylalanine

b)

Phenylalanine

c)

Lysine

d)

Asparagine

19.

Lysine and arginine amino acids are ____.

a)

Acidic

b)

Neutral

c)

Nonpolar

d)

Basic

20.

This amino acid is considered as a semi-essential amino acid in humans.

a)

Lysine

b)

Tryptophan

c)

Lysine

d)

Arginine

21.

This structure of peptides refers to the order of amino acids in the polypeptide chain/s:

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

22.

A fibrous protein that is important component of arterial blood vessels and ligaments.

a)

Keratin

b)

Collagen

c)

Elastin

d)

Fibronectin

23.

Protein present in hemoglobin has a structure known as:

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

24.

In sickle cell anemia, Glu is replaced by which amino acid?

a)

Val

b)

Lys

c)

Ile

d)

Ala

25.

Which component is not part of a nucleotide?

a)

A nitrogen-containing base

b)

A monosaccharide

c)

An amino acid

d)

A phosphate group

26.

Which base is found in DNA or RNA, but not both?

a)

Uracil

b)

Adenine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Guanine

27.

Compute for the isoelectric point of lysine: pK1 = 2.2, pK2 = 9.2, pK3 = 10.8

a)

10

b)

6.5

c)

5.7

d)

10.7

28.

Which type of RNA is a template for protein synthesis?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dDNA

29.

All amino acids found in proteins are in L configuration except:

a)

Leucine

b)

Thymine

c)

Threonine

d)

Glycine

30.

Which does NOT correctly describe collagen?

a)

It is a structural protein

b)

It is the most abundant fibrous protein

c)

It is globular in shape

d)

It is found in all tissues and organs

31.

Which one of the following statements concerning the peptide shown below is correct?

Val-Cys-Glu-Ser-Asp-Arg-Pro

a)

The peptide contains asparagine.

b)

The peptide contains a side chain with a secondary amino group.

c)

The peptide contains a thioether side chain.

d)

The peptide cannot form an internal disulfide bond.

32.

What is a nucleoside?

a)

Monosaccharide + Base

b)

A polymer of nucleotides

c)

monosaccharides ribose and deoxyribose

d)

monosaccharide + a base + phosphate

33.

Which sequence is not possible?

a)

GAGA

b)

TAU

c)

TATA

d)

TGA

34.

What is the function of myosin in the human body?

a)

as connective tissue found in tendons, bone, cartilage, and blood vessels

b)

control muscle contractions

c)

stores iron in the liver

d)

stores oxygen in tissues

35.

What is the structure of the amino acid leucine at pH 7.4?

a)

b)

c)

d)

36.

Which of the following bonds provides attachment of the sugar to the N-base?

a)

H bond

b)

PD bond

c)

Glycosidic bond

d)

Peptide bond

37.

What is the strongest type of interaction between two cysteine amino acids in a protein?

a)

Hydrogen bonding

b)

London dispersion forces

c)

Disulfide bond

d)

Electrostatic interactions

38.

What is the process of altering the shape of a protein without breaking the amide bonds (peptide bond) that form the primary structure?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Competitive inhibition

c)

Denaturation

d)

Oxidation

39.

How many chirality centers are in leu-enkephalin (structure shown)?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

40.

What is the particular sequence of amino acids of a protein that are joined together by peptide bonds called?

a)

The primary structure of a protein

b)

The tertiary structure of a protein

c)

The secondary structure of a protein

d)

The quaternary structure of a protein

41.

Evaluate the two statements:

I. Amino acid [Q] has a nonionic polar side chain.

II. It is also classified as an aliphatic amino acid with hydroxyl group.

a)

Only statement 1 is correct

b)

Only statement 2 is correct

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

42.

This amino acid contains the indole functional group.

a)

Histidine

b)

Arginine

c)

Tryptophan

d)

Proline

43.

Helical formation of helix is a characteristic of what protein structure?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

44.

The main mode of linkage in primary protein structure is:

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Peptide bonds

c)

Salt bridges formation

d)

Covalent bonds

45.

Hydrogen atom at 2’ of the ribose ring indicates that the nucleic acid is:

a)

RNA

b)

DNA

c)

ATP

d)

ADP

46.

Which of the following base pairs is bound by a triple bond?

a)

Adenine and Thymine

b)

Guanine and Thymine

c)

Adenine and Cytosine

d)

Cytosine and Guanine

47.

The chromatin structure is an example of _____ structure.

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

48.

Each amino acid in the chain is called:

a)

Carboxyl

b)

Amino

c)

Residue

d)

Peptide

49.

This is not a feature of a genetic code:

a)

Degenerate

b)

Unambiguous

c)

Overlapping

d)

Universal

50.

These cause neurodegenerative diseases to cause improper folding of proteins:

a)

Chaperones

b)

Protein denaturation

c)

Domain

d)

Prion

51.

Which among the following is not a characteristic of a peptide bond?

a)

Has freedom of rotation

b)

Side chains are free to rotate on either side

c)

Partially double bond

d)

Rigid and planar

52.

5’-3’ exonuclease activity is exhibited by what type of DNA polymerase?

a)

DNA Polymerase I

b)

DNA Polymerase II

c)

DNA Polymerase III

d)

DNA Polymerase IV

53.

Unzipping of dsDNA is catalyzed by:

a)

Polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Topoisomerase

d)

Ligase

54.

Which type of mutation is expressed when a DNA sequence changes from GGA TCA CCG GAA…. to GGA TCC CGG….?

a)

a deletion mutation

b)

an insertion mutation

c)

a point mutation

d)

all of the above

55.

A purine that substitutes for a pyrimidine and vice versa is what type of point mutation?

a)

Transition

b)

Transversion

c)

Translocation

d)

Transmission

56.

Which of the following is the complementary RNA strand of the sequence CGATTGAC?

a)

CAGTTAGC

b)

GCUAACUG

c)

TCUAACTG

d)

GCTAACTG

57.

The point where unwinding occurs in DNA is:

a)

Replication fork

b)

Replication bubble

c)

Leading strand

d)

Lagging strand

58.

This is defined as the continual maintenance of active set of cellular proteins required under a given set of conditions:

a)

Amyloidoses

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Proteostasis

d)

Collagenopathies

59.

Nascent proteins are non-functional. Native proteins are functional.

a)

true ; false

b)

false ; true

c)

true ; true

d)

false ; true

60.

These are also known as cage-like chaperones in eukaryotes:

a)

GroEL

b)

Hsp70

c)

PDI

d)

Hsp60

61.

In post-transcriptional modifications of mRNA, the following are observed, except:

a)

Addition of 7-methylguanosine cap at the 3’ end

b)

Addition of Poly(A) tail

c)

RNA Splicing

d)

None of the above

62.

Agents that promote protein denaturation:

a)

Heat

b)

UV Radiation

c)

Strong Cids

d)

All of the choices

63.

Increased levels of b-amyloid is critical in aggravating

a)

Huntington’s Disease

b)

Alzheimer’s Disease

c)

b-Thalassemia

d)

Parkinson’s Disease

64.

Which is the sum of all of the chemical reactions that take place in an organism?

a)

anabolism

b)

catabolism

c)

metabolism

d)

citric acid cycle

65.

Complete 3D conformation:

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

66.

The addition of a phosphate group to ADP, forming ATP is an example of what type of reaction?

a)

hydration

b)

hydrolysis

c)

phosphorylation

d)

reduction

e)

decarboxylation

67.

Which of the following correctly describe/s collagen?

a)

Triple helix

b)

In every 3rd amino acid residue, proline is observed

c)

Gly-X-Y sequence

68.

What is the essence of having P in the structure of collagen?

a)

Flexibility

b)

Integrity

c)

Kinks

d)

Rigidity

69.

Which of the following cofactor/s is/are needed in the hydroxylation of proline and lysine?

a)

Iron

b)

Oxygen

c)

Vitamin C

d)

All of the above

70.

How many reactions in the citric acid cycle generate FADH2?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

71.

This protein is found in lungs with rubber-like properties:

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Myoglobin

c)

Keratin

d)

Elastin

72.

A storage protein of oxygen:

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Myoglobin

c)

Keratin

d)

Elastin

73.

CO poisoning is caused by increased levels of:

a)

Methemoglobin

b)

Carboxyhemoglobin

c)

Myoglobin

d)

Hemoglobin

74.

Glycolysis converts _____:

a)

polysaccharides to glucose

b)

glucose to pyruvate

c)

fatty acids to thioesters

d)

amino acids to urea

75.

Which is not one of the three major products that are formed in glycolysis?

a)

glucose

b)

ATP

c)

NADH

d)

pyruvate

76.

True statements concerning hemoglobin, except:

a)

It has a hyperbolic shape in its oxygen dissociation curve

b)

It has 4 polypeptide subunits

c)

It is a quaternary structure type of protein

d)

All are correct

77.

Which process requires the coenzyme NADH?

a)

glucose to pyruvate

b)

pyruvate to acetaldehyde

c)

pyruvate to lactate

d)

pyruvate to acetyl CoA

78.

Which factors increase the rate of gluconeogenesis?

a)

high glycogen reserves

b)

low carbohydrate diet

c)

high carbohydrate diet

d)

low oxygen concentration

79.

Where does the electron transport chain process take place?

a)

in the inner membrane of mitochondria

b)

in the outer membrane of mitochondria

c)

in the intermembrane space of mitochondria

d)

in the matrix of mitochondria

80.

Glucogenic amino acids _____

a)

are converted to acetyl CoA

b)

are converted to the thioester acetoacetyl CoA

c)

are catabolized to pyruvate or an intermediate in the citric acid cycle

d)

can be converted to ketone bodies

81.

The electron transport chain (ETC) is the final common pathway by which electrons derived from the different fuels of the body flow to oxygen. Where does ETC occurs?

a)

) Outer mitochondrial membrane

b)

Cytosol

c)

Golgi complex

d)

Inner mitochondrial membrane

82.

Which of the following is called transamination?

a)

Conversion of amino acids to hydroxyl acids

b)

Conversion of amino acids to keto acids

c)

Loss of ammonia from amino acids

d)

Formation of ammonium salts from ammonia

83.

The energy producing reaction:

a)

Metabolic

b)

Catabolic

c)

Anabolic

d)

Amphibolic

84.

Which one of the following statements concerning glycolysis is correct?

a)

The conversion of glucose to lactose requires the presence of oxygen

b)

Hexokinase is important in hepatic glucose metabolism only in the absorptive period following consumption of a carbohydrate-containing meal

c)

Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate is a potent inhibitor of phosphofructokinase

d)

The regulated reactions are also the irreversible reactions

85.

It is the building block of essential fatty acids.

a)

Malonyl CoA

b)

Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate

c)

Acetyl CoA

d)

HMG CoA

86.

Insulin promotes the storage of fat and glucose in specialized target cells. What pancreatic cell type is responsible for secreting this hormone?

a)

A cell

b)

B cell

c)

D cell

d)

F cell

87.

Ketogenic amino acids may include all of the following, except:

a)

Phenylalanine

b)

Isoleucine

c)

Lysine

d)

Asparagine

88.

Which of the following biochemical pathways occur in the cytoplasm?

a)

Decarboxylation of Pyruvate

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

HMP Pathway

d)

Fatty Acid Synthesis

89.

The process where 6-carbon glucose molecule is split into two molecules of pyruvic acid.

a)

glycolysis

b)

citric acid cycle

c)

calvin cycle

d)

TCA

90.

A molecule that carries energy within cells.

a)

NADH

b)

ATP

c)

NADPH

d)

glucose

91.

Which of following is not a product of citric acid cycle?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

NADH

c)

FADH2

d)

oxygen

92.

If oxygen is not present, this step will happen after glycolysis.

a)

citric acid cycle

b)

ETC

c)

fermentation

d)

glycogenesis

93.

What are the products of aerobic respiration?

a)

Acetyl CoA and oxygen

b)

Carbon dioxide and water

c)

Lactic acid

d)

Ethanol

94.

What are the reactants in the equation for cellular respiration?

a)

oxygen and lactic acid

b)

carbon dioxide and water

c)

glucose and oxygen

d)

water and glucose

95.

Where does the Krebs Cycle take place?

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

cytoplasm

d)

nucleus

96.

Which is the correct order of the steps of cellular respiration?

a)

Glycolysis > Krebs cycle > ETC

b)

Glycolysis > ETC > Krebs cycle

c)

Krebs cycle > ETC > Glycolysis

d)

ETC > Glycolysis > Krebs cycle

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