Free Printable PMLS 2 FINAL EXAM

Free Printable Worksheets

Worksheets

PMLS 2 FINAL EXAM

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name

Class

Date

1.

The Pre-analytical testing phase are procedures that takes place before the testing phase.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

2.

The basal state is an ideal reference range and it represents the condition of the metabolism of the body early in the morning or after fasting for approximately 12 hours.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

3.

An implanted port is surgically implanted placed in the arm of the patient.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

4.

Procedural error risks includes hematoma formation, iatrogenic anemia, infection, nerve injury, reflux of antiocoagulant and vein damage.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

5.

Proper needle position during venipuncture is critical to the success of the procedure.

a)

TRUE

b)

FLASE

6.

The concentration of glucose in blood is lower in the capillary reference values.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

7.

The order of draw for capillary puncture should be CBG, EDTA followed by other additive specimen and serum specimen

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

8.

The general criterion for the puncture site is that the skin should be pink, normal in color and warm.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

9.

The routine smear preparation checks for abnormalities in the blood cells.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

10.

Autologous donation is a blood donation from the patient himself usually for elective surgeries

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

11.

The blood culture checks for pathogens such as bacteremia and glucose from patients with fever of unknown origin.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

12.

Pregnancy could be detected as early as 20 days from conception

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

13.

Blood transfusion is the main purpose of blood donor collection

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

14.

The results are not compromised when the proper collection precedures, storage, processing and transporting protocol were not followed during the preanalytical phase.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

15.

The routine blood specimen should be transported and should reach the laboratory within 45 minutes.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

16.

BURNS, SCARS AND TATTOOS

a)

Problem areas in site selection

b)

Patient complaints associated with blood collection

17.

DAMAGED VEINS

a)

Problem areas in site selection

b)

Patient complaints associated with blood collection

18.

HEMATOMA

a)

Problem areas in site selection

b)

Patient complaints associated with blood collection

19.

ALLERGIES

a)

Problem areas in site selection

b)

Patient complaints associated with blood collection

20.

FAINTING

a)

Problem areas in site selection

b)

Patient complaints associated with blood collection

21.

SCRAMBLED WORD. Requirements for patient preparation for drug screening- yitdenif

(a)

22.

SCRAMBLED WORD.Requirements for patient preparation for drug screening- necocisas

(a)

23.

SCRAMBLED WORD. Requirements for patient preparation for drug screening- rsot

(a)

24.

SCRAMBLED WORD. Requirements for patient preparation for drug screening- ulevatae

(a)

25.

SCRAMBLED WORD. Nutrients that are tested using POCT electrolyte panels- 1.Specimen is not ifdeyetidn properly.

(a)

26.

SCRAMBLED WORD. Nutrients that are tested using POCT electrolyte panels- 2.It has inadequate elmuvo to complete the test.

(a)

27.

SCRAMBLED WORD. Nutrients that are tested using POCT electrolyte panels- 3. There is moysehils.

(a)

28.

SCRAMBLED WORD. Nutrients that are tested using POCT electrolyte panels-4.rgown ubet for collection is used.

(a)

29.

SCRAMBLED WORD. Nutrients that are tested using POCT electrolyte panels-5.Tube used is dotadute.

(a)

30.

SCRAMBLED WORD. Nutrients that are tested using POCT electrolyte panels-6.There is improper nhaldgin.

(a)

31.

Blood type and screen

a)

determines the presence of infection

b)

determine blood type and Rh factor

c)

screening for diabetes and other metabolic disorders

d)

determines lack of mucosal lactase

32.

Cross-match test

a)

determines the presence of infection

b)

determine blood type and Rh factor

c)

screening for diabetes and other metabolic disorders

d)

determines lack of mucosal lactase

33.

Coagulation Culture

a)

checks compatibility of the blood between the donor and recipient

b)

determine blood type and Rh factor

c)

determines the presence of infectionevaluates the blood clotting function

d)

determines lack of mucosal lactase

34.

2-hour Postprandial glucoses

a)

checks compatibility of the blood between the donor and recipient

b)

screening for diabetes and other metabolic disorders

c)

determines the presence of infectionevaluates the blood clotting function

d)

determines lack of mucosal lactase

35.

Paternity Test

a)

checks compatibility of the blood between the donor and recipient

b)

verifies the parentage of a child

c)

determines the presence of infectionevaluates the blood clotting function

d)

determines lack of mucosal lactase

36.

Which reason is not applicable to the order of urine analysis?

a)

physical analysis

b)

chemical analysis

c)

diagnose sterility

37.

Which analysis refers to the color, clarity and odor of the urine?

a)

physical analysis

b)

chemical analysis

c)

diagnose sterility

d)

Routine analysis

38.

Which urine test is ordered to screen any urinary or systematic disorders?

a)

physical analysis

b)

chemical analysis

c)

diagnose sterility

d)

Routine analysis

39.

Which of the following does not need a pool timed chemistry test of the urine?

a)

ketone level

b)

sugar

c)

protein

40.

Which timed specimen is collected 2 hours after a meal?

a)

4-hour postprandial test

b)

first morning

c)

OGTT

d)

2-hour postprandial test

41.

The phlebotomist maybe involved in transporting specimen to the laboratory. He should verify and check the label of the specimen before receiving them.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

42.

Midstream collection of urine specimen is recommended and ideal there is no contamination.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

43.

Drug testing using urine detects illicit use of recreational drugs, use of anabolic steroids, and unwarranted use of prescription drugs.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

44.

Throat swabs comes in a special kit that has a cotton polyester-tipped swab and a covered transport tube.

a)

true

b)

false

45.

The amniotic fluid specimen can be collected by physician using transabdominal amniocentesis preferably 25 weeks after gestation.

a)

true

b)

false

46.

Which of the following is used for blood collection for ABG analysis which is used to manage cardiopulmonary disorders and maintain acid-base balance of the body ?

a)

CBC

b)

ABG

c)

CLOTTING TIME

d)

BLEEDING TIME

47.

The evaluation of ABGs provide information on the following except:

a)

Ph

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Glucose

48.

ow many minutes should a patient be stable prior to starting the arterial puncture?

a)

1 hr

b)

2 hrs

c)

20 to 30 minutes

d)

10 to 20 minuttes

49.

Which test is performed to determine the collateral circulation of the patient?

a)

bleeding time

b)

bleeding time

c)

pt/aptt

d)

modified Allen's test

50.

Which of the following is not a criteria for rejection of the ABG specimen?

a)

blood clot

b)

insufficient amount

c)

bubbles

d)

disposal of sharps

51.

The integrity of the blood sample is compromised due to the use of improper anticoagulant.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

To avoid hematoma formation during arterial puncture, multiple puncture in a single site must be avoided.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

If the patient experienced numbness during the procedure, it should be reported immediately to the nurse or the physician.

a)

true

b)

false

54.

Local anesthesia could be applied to ease discomfort, however, it should have an order from the patient's physician.

a)

true

b)

false

55.

In modified allen test, if hand flushes pink it is negative but if not then it is positive

a)

true

b)

false

56.

is the collection, testing, preparation, and storage of blood from volunteers ?

a)

venipuncture

b)

capillary puncture

c)

Blood Donation

57.

A well-fitting set of gloves should be worn after performing proper hand hygiene

a)

true

b)

false

58.

The medical laboratory assistant or laboratory receptionist does not handle clerical or telephone duties.

a)

true

b)

false

59.

An ______________ is used to sterilize instruments and glassware in the testing area.

a)

autoclave

b)

dry bath

c)

warmer

60.

amount of waste generatedWhat is the primary consideration of waste disposal?

a)

amount of waste generated

b)

safety

c)

disposal

61.

DOH launched the Health Care Waste Management Program to provide guidelines under license by BHFS on the following except:

a)

incinerations

b)

disintegration

62.

Commonly used ABG Analytes- O2 Saturation

a)

35-45 mm Hg

b)

22-26 mEq/L

c)

80-100 mm Hg

d)

97% - 100%

63.

Commonly used ABG Analytes- HCO2

a)

35-45 mm Hg

b)

22-26 mEq/L

c)

7.35 - 7.45

d)

97% - 100%

64.

CLASSIFY AND PLACE IN THE SPECIAL HANDLING CATEGORY-for site cleaning

a)

Hypodermic

b)

Antiseptic

c)

Luer-tip

d)

Coolant

65.

CLASSIFY AND PLACE IN THE SPECIAL HANDLING CATEGORY- to numb the site (optional).

a)

Hypodermic

b)

Antiseptic

c)

Coolant

d)

Local Anesthetic

66.

FILL IN THE BLANKS- refers to the step when the patient completes a donor registration form with personal information.

a)

DONOR REGISTRATION

b)

DONOR REGISTRATION

c)

DONOR REGISTRATION

d)

GUIDANCE

67.

bonus question: after understanding the Principles of Medical Technology will you still continue this course? why or why not? choconut

(a)

68.

what is the mortal sin of a Medical Technologist?

(a)

69.

FILL IN THE BLANKS-. Donor care phlebotomy includes site and offering refreshments before the donor leaves the area

a)

INSPECTION

b)

DIZZINESS

c)

MEDICAL

d)

SAFETY

70.

what do you call a person who donates blood ?

(a)

71.

Which is not an antiseptic used in blood-collection?

a)

betadine

b)

70 % alcohol

c)

sodium hypochlorite

d)

alcohol pads

72.

What is considered the most efficient system for collecting blood samples?

a)

Evacuated tube system

b)

winged system

c)

hypodermic

d)

capillary prick

73.

What additive is commonly known as blood thinner?

a)

Gin

b)

Anticoagulants

c)

aspirin

d)

redhorse

74.

The syringe system is used as alternative method for drawing blood with numerous draws.

a)

true

b)

false

75.

The multisample, hypodermic and butterfly needles are needles used in phlebotomy

a)

true

b)

false

76.

how many valves does our heart have

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

77.

RMT STANDS FOR?

(a)

78.

What is the contact time for disinfectants used in venipuncture?

a)

1 min

b)

2min

c)

3min

d)

1hr

79.

small masses of lymphoid tissues around the pharynx

a)

peyer’s patches

b)

S A node

c)

tonsils

d)

arteries

80.

Cupping and leeching during the 17th century were performed using ________ and fleams.

a)

diagnoses

b)

5 minscertification

c)

1 minlancet/crude tools/ sharp stones

d)

leeching

81.

Which of the following status designation is a first priority?

a)

ASAP

b)

STAT

c)

hindi mo ba ako kilala? ako si Mayor!

d)

now na!

82.

How far should a tourniquet from the puncture site? by the book

a)

1-2 inches

b)

2- 3 inches

c)

3- 4 inches

d)

1 inch

83.

Which warning is not applicable when air-drying a venipuncture site?

a)

Do not use antiseptic.

b)

let it air dry

c)

do not touch the site after application

d)

blow the site with bad breath

84.

What is not a proper way to restrict the movement of a pediatric patient?

a)

Place them in a wheel chair.

b)

wrapped in the blancket

c)

seated in his or her parent's lap

85.

A sleeping patient should not be awakened during a venipuncture procedure

a)

true

b)

false

86.

If there is a physician or a clergy in a room, the phlebotomist should interrupt and proceed with the venipuncture procedure

a)

true

b)

false

87.

When patients makes inquiries about the purpose and results of the test, it is best to tell the patient to direct them to the nurse or the physician.

a)

true

b)

false

88.

A properly tied tourniquet has its ends pointed towards the shoulder

a)

true

b)

false

89.

A phlebotomist can select a site on the arm that is used with AV fistula

a)

true

b)

false

90.

the herapin or saline lock is also called a

a)

hep-hep

b)

hooray!

c)

lock

d)

Hep-lock

91.

Proper needle position during venipuncture is critical to the success of the procedure.

a)

true

b)

false

92.

Procedural error risks includes hematoma formation, iatrogenic anemia, infection, nerve injury, reflux of antiocoagulant and vein damage.

a)

true

b)

false

93.

No Additive

a)

Orange

b)

Red

c)

Light Blue

d)

Purple

94.

Coagulant

a)

Orange

b)

Red

c)

Light Blue

d)

Purple

95.

Heparin Sodium

a)

Green

b)

Orange

c)

Red

d)

Purple

96.

Stat

a)

Nothing by mouth

b)

Before an operation

c)

Imemediately

d)

Established Procedure

97.

Med Emerg

a)

Nothing by mouth

b)

Before an operation

c)

Medical Emergency

d)

Imemediately

98.

ano to?

(a)

99.

ano to?

(a)

100.

the current PAMET PRESIDENT

(a)

Reset

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