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VTEC0211 Exam Review

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Draw and label an ECG tracing.

2.

You are working with a patient that has a known seizure disorder. Which of the following agents should be used and why?

a)

Ketamine, decreases the seizure threshold

b)

Alfaxan, potential for excitation

c)

Propofol, can cause apnea

d)

Propofol, can decrease ICP

3.

What is the Minimum Alveolar Concentration of Isoflurane?

a)

2.5%

b)

1.3%

c)

2.0%

d)

0.75%

4.

Which of the following statements about Isoflurane is untrue?

a)

Isoflurane has decent muscle relaxation

b)

Isoflurane is typically good for trauma patients

c)

Isoflurane depresses the respiratory system

d)

Isoflurane has some analgesic qualities

5.

Which of the following statements about Sevoflurane is untrue?

a)

Sevoflurane causes no heart depression or vasodilation

b)

Sevoflurane can be good for trauma patients

c)

Sevoflurane has no analgesic qualities

d)

Sevoflurane causes good muscle relaxation

6.

What is the Minimum Alveolar Concentration of Sevoflurane?

a)

6.34%-7.23%

b)

4.52%-5.15%

c)

2.34%-2.58%

d)

1.34%-2.5%

7.

Which of the statements is untrue about Potassium when used as a fluid additive?

a)

K is the most common electrolyte needing supplementation

b)

usually dosed in mg/kg

c)

Potassium Chloride is the most common source of K in vet med

d)

often added to normal fluids

8.

Which of the following is an in hospital cause of hypokalemia?

a)

normal fluid replacement

b)

furosemide therapy

c)

use of NSAIDs

d)

being on a liquid diet

9.

Which of the following statements is untrue about Metoclopramide when used as a fluid additive?

a)

a CRI of Metoclopramide is more effective than one dose

b)

Patients with parvovirus can benefit from Metoclopramide

c)

Metoclopramide is typically given in the IVF bag or Buretrol

d)

Metoclopramide can be given if an obstruction is suspected

10.

For how long must hospital records be kept for?

a)

10 years

b)

5 years

c)

2 years

d)

7 years

11.

Without any equipment, what is the best way to monitor the cardiovascular system?

a)

pulses

b)

mucous membranes - color, CRT, moistness

c)

respiration rate

d)

temperature

12.

If you can feel the dorsal pedal pulse the patient's systolic BP is likely to be above what?

a)

80 mmHg

b)

60 mmHg

c)

50 mmHg

d)

40 mmHg

13.

What drug requires constant ECG monitoring when being given?

a)

Dexmedetomidine

b)

Propofol

c)

Calcium Gluconate

d)

Calcium Citrate

14.

Which of the following is the correct placement locations for an ECG?

a)

White - LF, Black - RF, Red- LH

b)

White - RF, Black - LF, Red- RH

c)

White - RH, Black - RF, Red - LF

d)

White - RF, Black - LF, Red- LH

15.

Normal respiration rate in both dogs and cats is what?

a)

10-12 breaths per minute

b)

40-60 breaths per minute

c)

15-30 breaths per minute

d)

20-40 breaths per minute

16.

Signs of respiratory distress can include all of the following except?

a)

patient laying down

b)

open mouthed breathing

c)

increased abdominal movements

d)

orthopneic stance

17.

Normal ranges of ETCO2 in anesthetized dogs and cats is what?

a)

35-45 mmHg

b)

25-35 mmHg

c)

45-55 mmHg

d)

55-65 mmHg

18.

Hypocapnia can be caused by all of the following except?

a)

hyperventilation

b)

decreased metabolism

c)

cardiac arrest

d)

endobronchial intubation

19.

Hypercapnia can be caused by all of the following except?

a)

hypoventilation

b)

decreased metabolism

c)

endobronchial intubation

d)

physical airway obstruction

20.

As it relates to anesthesia, blood pressure can indicate all of the following except?

a)

hyper or hypotension

b)

patient clotting abilities

c)

depth of anesthesia

d)

presence of pain

21.

Normal ranges for systolic BP in a cat are what?

a)

60-100 mmHg

b)

60-80 mmHg

c)

80-140 mmHg

d)

140-220 mmHg

22.

Normal ranges for systolic BP in dogs is what?

a)

60-80 mmHg

b)

60-100 mmHg

c)

90-140 mmHg

d)

140-200 mmHg

23.

Normal MAP ranges for anesthetized dogs and cats is what?

a)

60-80 mmHg

b)

120-140 mmHg

c)

140-160 mmHg

d)

60-100 mmHg

24.

A Doppler can technically only give you which numeric value?

a)

systolic BP

b)

diastolic BP

c)

systolic & diastolic BP

d)

MAP only

25.

If you are unable to palpate a femoral pulse it could mean your systolic BP is what?

a)

at 100 mmHg

b)

above 60 mmHg

c)

less than 60 mmHg

d)

between 60 and 90 mmHg

26.

The correct blood pressure cuff size should be what circumference of the limb?

a)

10-20 %

b)

20-30 %

c)

30-40 %

d)

40-50 %

27.

In which of the following situations would measuring lactate be mos useful?

a)

a patient with diabetes mellitus

b)

a patient with renal failure

c)

a patient who has been hit by a car

d)

a patient with pancreatitis

28.

Which level of lactate is indicative of an animal in the early stages of shock?

a)

3-5 mmol/L

b)

2.5 mmol/L

c)

5-10 mmol/L

d)

over 10 mmol/L

29.

A Sickle Scaler has what defining feature on its working end?

a)

one sharp edge and one rounded edge

b)

two sharp edges and a rounded tip

c)

an atraumatic working end

d)

two sharp edges and a sharp tip

30.

A Gracey Curette has what defining features on its working end?

a)

two sharp edges and a pointed tip

b)

one sharp edge, one rounded edge, and a rounded tip

c)

two sharp edges and a rounded tip

d)

none of the previous fit a description of a Gracey Curette

31.

A Universal Curette has what defining features on its working end?

a)

two sharp edges and a sharp tip

b)

two sharp edges and a rounded tip

c)

one sharp edge, one rounded edge, and a rounded tip

d)

none of the previous fit the description of a Universal Curette

32.

The first maxillary canine tooth on the left side is which number (using the Triadan Numbering System)?

a)

104

b)

204

c)

304

d)

404

33.

Adult dogs have how many teeth?

a)

40

b)

38

c)

42

d)

44

34.

Adult cats have how many teeth?

a)

30

b)

28

c)

32

d)

34

35.

The rule of 4 and 9 states which of the following?

a)

the canine tooth is always 04 and the first molar is always 09

b)

the first premolar is always 04 and the last molar is always 09

c)

the canine tooth is always 04 and the last molar is always 09

d)

the last incisor is always 04 and the last molar is always 09

36.

How long should you use a powered scaler (either ultrasonic or piezoelectric) on a tooth before moving?

a)

10-20 seconds

b)

20-30 seconds

c)

30-40 seconds

d)

40-50 seconds

37.

On the tips of the powered scalers a loss of 1 mm translates to how much loss of efficiency?

a)

10%

b)

15%

c)

20%

d)

25%

38.

To be in the buccal direction means which of the following?

a)

a surface facing the tongue

b)

a surface facing the cheek

c)

a direction towards the nose

d)

a direction toward the tail

39.

To be in a lingual direction means what?

a)

to be facing the surface of the tongue

b)

to be facing the surface of the cheek

c)

in a direction toward to nose

d)

in a direction toward the tail

40.

To be in a rostral direction means what?

a)

to be facing the surface of the tongue

b)

to be facing the surface of the cheek

c)

in a direction towards the nose

d)

in a direction towards the tail

41.

How quickly will plaque mineralize and develop into calculus?

a)

4-6 hours

b)

14-16 hours

c)

24-48 hours

d)

greater than 48 hours

42.

Which of the following is the most accurate description of Stage 1 Periodontal Disease?

a)

pocket depth greater than 5mm-dogs, 1 mm-cats, 25% structure loss

b)

inflammation of the gingival tissue, reversible

c)

pocket depth greater than 9mm-dogs, 1.5mm-cats, 50% structure loss

d)

pocket depth greater than 9mm-dogs, 2mm-cats, over 50% structure loss

43.

Which of the following is the correct definition of shock?

a)

shock is the result of organs shutting down

b)

shock is the result of an injury

c)

shock is the result of poor perfusion

d)

someone jumps out from behind a tree...I am in shock!

44.

What is the most common form of shock seen in veterinary medicine?

a)

hypovolemic shock

b)

obstructive shock

c)

distributive shock

d)

cardiogenic shock

45.

Which of the following is potentially a cause of obstructive shock?

a)

a GI foreign body

b)

intestinal parasites

c)

GDV

d)

HGE

46.

Which of the following statements are true about distributive shock?

a)

causes systemic vasoconstriction

b)

results from severe blood loss

c)

inadequate volume going to the wrong place

d)

causes systemic vasodilation

47.

Which of the following is not a sign of compensatory shock?

a)

normal blood pressure

b)

slightly slow CRT

c)

tachycardia

d)

bounding pulses

48.

Which of the following is not a sign of early decompensatory shock?

a)

bradycardia

b)

weak pulses

c)

hypothermia

d)

hypotension

49.

Which of the following is not a sign of late decompensatory shock?

a)

undetectable CRT

b)

tachycardia

c)

hypothermia

d)

pale mucous membranes

50.

When delivering fluids to a shock patient, how high do we want to bring their systolic BP back to?

a)

60-80 mmHg

b)

90-110 mmHg

c)

110-140 mmHg

d)

it doesn't matter, just get their BP up

51.

Why do we not want to give IVF to a cold cat?

a)

they peripherally vasodilate and cannot maintain their BP

b)

it makes them severely hypotensive

c)

they develop pulmonary edema

d)

it makes them bradycardic

52.

In what situation would you skip the primary assessment on a patient?

a)

a bloated dog

b)

active seizures

c)

a constipated cat

d)

a vomiting and mildly dehydrated dog

53.

Which of the following clotting factors are Vitamin K dependent?

a)

VIII Antihemophilic

b)

IX Christmas Factor

c)

I Fibrinogen

d)

IV Calcium

54.

Which of the following is not a clinical sign if Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenia?

a)

dehydration

b)

petechial hemorrhage

c)

epistaxsis

d)

hematuria

55.

Dogs with which of the following conditions might be at more risk for VonWillebrand's Disease?

a)

hyperthyroidism

b)

diabetes mellitus

c)

addison's disease

d)

hypothyroidism

56.

In which of the following hospitilized patients might you be concerned about their clotting ability?

a)

a dog with pancreatitis

b)

a cat with hyperthyroidism

c)

a cat with renal failure

d)

a dog with liver failure

57.

Which of the following is a clinical sign associated with left sided heart failure?

a)

cyanosis

b)

jugular distention

c)

ascites

d)

peripheral edema

58.

Which of the following is a clinical sign associated with right sided heart failure?

a)

cyanosis

b)

hepatomegaly

c)

coughing

d)

weakness

59.

What underlying cardiac conditions do cats with saddle thrombus have?

a)

right sided heart failure

b)

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

c)

dilated cardiomyopathy

d)

left sided heart failure

60.

Which of the following conditions are dogs that have had a laryngeal tie back surgery prone to?

a)

pulmonary edema

b)

aspiration pneumonia

c)

megaesophagus

d)

esophageal strictures

61.

Tracheal collapse often presents with which signs?

a)

vomiting

b)

neck pain

c)

acute coughing

d)

fever

62.

Which of the following confirms a diagnoses of tracheal collapse?

a)

bloodwork

b)

palpation

c)

radiographs or endoscopy

d)

clinical signs alone

63.

Which of the following is the most common cause of pulmonary edema?

a)

increased pulmonary capillary pressure

b)

low plasma protein levels

c)

leaking alveolar capillary membrane

d)

left sided heart failure

64.

When air enters the pleural cavity but cannot escape, this is a what?

a)

pneumothorax

b)

bronchitis

c)

pneumonia

d)

tension pneumothorax

65.

Which of the following pain control agents would be a poor choice for a patient with HGE?

a)

hydromorphone

b)

butorphanol

c)

buprenorphine

d)

meloxicam

66.

Which of the following drugs is an anti-emetic?

a)

metronidazole

b)

maropitant

c)

methocarbamol

d)

magnesium

67.

Secondary megaesophagus could potentially result from which condition?

a)

Addison's Disease

b)

Cushing's Disease

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Diabetes insipidus

68.

Patients with GDV often have obstructive shock. This is from what?

a)

increased venous return

b)

ischemia

c)

decreased cardiac output and decreased venous return

d)

increased cardiac output

69.

Which procedure can be done quickly by a veterinarian to quickly alleviate pressure in a GDV patient if needed?

a)

thoracocentesis

b)

gastrocentesis

c)

abdominocentesis

d)

only surgery

70.

How long can Parvovirus live in the environment?

a)

less than 6 months

b)

6 months to 1 year

c)

1 to 2 years

d)

2 years or more

71.

What is the toxic substance to dogs and cats in chocolate?

a)

theobromine

b)

theophylline

c)

tetracycline

d)

temazepram

72.

Which of the following drugs causes rapid vomiting?

a)

Apomorphine

b)

Buprenorphine

c)

Morphine

d)

Apo-lorazepam

73.

Which holiday plant is highly toxic to pets?

a)

pointsettias

b)

holiday trees (pine)

c)

mistletoe

d)

all of the above

74.

What do onions cause damage do if they are ingested by dogs or cats?

a)

the liver

b)

the kidneys

c)

the RBCs

d)

clotting factors

75.

What is the lowest dose that macadamia nut ingestion can cause clinical signs of toxicity?

a)

0.4 g/kg

b)

2.4 g/kg

c)

5.4 g/kg

d)

10 g/kg

76.

If a patient has ingested ethanol, they are in what state?

a)

alkalosis

b)

acidosis

c)

hyperkalemic

d)

hypernatremic

77.

Which of the following is the problematic substance in antifreeze?

a)

propylene glycol

b)

ethylene glycol

c)

ethylene oxide

d)

ethylene sulfate