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WorksheetsVTEC0211 Exam Review
Total questions: 77
Worksheet time: 41mins
Draw and label an ECG tracing.

You are working with a patient that has a known seizure disorder. Which of the following agents should be used and why?
Ketamine, decreases the seizure threshold
Alfaxan, potential for excitation
Propofol, can cause apnea
Propofol, can decrease ICP
What is the Minimum Alveolar Concentration of Isoflurane?
2.5%
1.3%
2.0%
0.75%
Which of the following statements about Isoflurane is untrue?
Isoflurane has decent muscle relaxation
Isoflurane is typically good for trauma patients
Isoflurane depresses the respiratory system
Isoflurane has some analgesic qualities
Which of the following statements about Sevoflurane is untrue?
Sevoflurane causes no heart depression or vasodilation
Sevoflurane can be good for trauma patients
Sevoflurane has no analgesic qualities
Sevoflurane causes good muscle relaxation
What is the Minimum Alveolar Concentration of Sevoflurane?
6.34%-7.23%
4.52%-5.15%
2.34%-2.58%
1.34%-2.5%
Which of the statements is untrue about Potassium when used as a fluid additive?
K is the most common electrolyte needing supplementation
usually dosed in mg/kg
Potassium Chloride is the most common source of K in vet med
often added to normal fluids
Which of the following is an in hospital cause of hypokalemia?
normal fluid replacement
furosemide therapy
use of NSAIDs
being on a liquid diet
Which of the following statements is untrue about Metoclopramide when used as a fluid additive?
a CRI of Metoclopramide is more effective than one dose
Patients with parvovirus can benefit from Metoclopramide
Metoclopramide is typically given in the IVF bag or Buretrol
Metoclopramide can be given if an obstruction is suspected
For how long must hospital records be kept for?
10 years
5 years
2 years
7 years
Without any equipment, what is the best way to monitor the cardiovascular system?
pulses
mucous membranes - color, CRT, moistness
respiration rate
temperature
If you can feel the dorsal pedal pulse the patient's systolic BP is likely to be above what?
80 mmHg
60 mmHg
50 mmHg
40 mmHg
What drug requires constant ECG monitoring when being given?
Dexmedetomidine
Propofol
Calcium Gluconate
Calcium Citrate
Which of the following is the correct placement locations for an ECG?
White - LF, Black - RF, Red- LH
White - RF, Black - LF, Red- RH
White - RH, Black - RF, Red - LF
White - RF, Black - LF, Red- LH
Normal respiration rate in both dogs and cats is what?
10-12 breaths per minute
40-60 breaths per minute
15-30 breaths per minute
20-40 breaths per minute
Signs of respiratory distress can include all of the following except?
patient laying down
open mouthed breathing
increased abdominal movements
orthopneic stance
Normal ranges of ETCO2 in anesthetized dogs and cats is what?
35-45 mmHg
25-35 mmHg
45-55 mmHg
55-65 mmHg
Hypocapnia can be caused by all of the following except?
hyperventilation
decreased metabolism
cardiac arrest
endobronchial intubation
Hypercapnia can be caused by all of the following except?
hypoventilation
decreased metabolism
endobronchial intubation
physical airway obstruction
As it relates to anesthesia, blood pressure can indicate all of the following except?
hyper or hypotension
patient clotting abilities
depth of anesthesia
presence of pain
Normal ranges for systolic BP in a cat are what?
60-100 mmHg
60-80 mmHg
80-140 mmHg
140-220 mmHg
Normal ranges for systolic BP in dogs is what?
60-80 mmHg
60-100 mmHg
90-140 mmHg
140-200 mmHg
Normal MAP ranges for anesthetized dogs and cats is what?
60-80 mmHg
120-140 mmHg
140-160 mmHg
60-100 mmHg
A Doppler can technically only give you which numeric value?
systolic BP
diastolic BP
systolic & diastolic BP
MAP only
If you are unable to palpate a femoral pulse it could mean your systolic BP is what?
at 100 mmHg
above 60 mmHg
less than 60 mmHg
between 60 and 90 mmHg
The correct blood pressure cuff size should be what circumference of the limb?
10-20 %
20-30 %
30-40 %
40-50 %
In which of the following situations would measuring lactate be mos useful?
a patient with diabetes mellitus
a patient with renal failure
a patient who has been hit by a car
a patient with pancreatitis
Which level of lactate is indicative of an animal in the early stages of shock?
3-5 mmol/L
2.5 mmol/L
5-10 mmol/L
over 10 mmol/L
A Sickle Scaler has what defining feature on its working end?
one sharp edge and one rounded edge
two sharp edges and a rounded tip
an atraumatic working end
two sharp edges and a sharp tip
A Gracey Curette has what defining features on its working end?
two sharp edges and a pointed tip
one sharp edge, one rounded edge, and a rounded tip
two sharp edges and a rounded tip
none of the previous fit a description of a Gracey Curette
A Universal Curette has what defining features on its working end?
two sharp edges and a sharp tip
two sharp edges and a rounded tip
one sharp edge, one rounded edge, and a rounded tip
none of the previous fit the description of a Universal Curette
The first maxillary canine tooth on the left side is which number (using the Triadan Numbering System)?
104
204
304
404
Adult dogs have how many teeth?
40
38
42
44
Adult cats have how many teeth?
30
28
32
34
The rule of 4 and 9 states which of the following?
the canine tooth is always 04 and the first molar is always 09
the first premolar is always 04 and the last molar is always 09
the canine tooth is always 04 and the last molar is always 09
the last incisor is always 04 and the last molar is always 09
How long should you use a powered scaler (either ultrasonic or piezoelectric) on a tooth before moving?
10-20 seconds
20-30 seconds
30-40 seconds
40-50 seconds
On the tips of the powered scalers a loss of 1 mm translates to how much loss of efficiency?
10%
15%
20%
25%
To be in the buccal direction means which of the following?
a surface facing the tongue
a surface facing the cheek
a direction towards the nose
a direction toward the tail
To be in a lingual direction means what?
to be facing the surface of the tongue
to be facing the surface of the cheek
in a direction toward to nose
in a direction toward the tail
To be in a rostral direction means what?
to be facing the surface of the tongue
to be facing the surface of the cheek
in a direction towards the nose
in a direction towards the tail
How quickly will plaque mineralize and develop into calculus?
4-6 hours
14-16 hours
24-48 hours
greater than 48 hours
Which of the following is the most accurate description of Stage 1 Periodontal Disease?
pocket depth greater than 5mm-dogs, 1 mm-cats, 25% structure loss
inflammation of the gingival tissue, reversible
pocket depth greater than 9mm-dogs, 1.5mm-cats, 50% structure loss
pocket depth greater than 9mm-dogs, 2mm-cats, over 50% structure loss
Which of the following is the correct definition of shock?
shock is the result of organs shutting down
shock is the result of an injury
shock is the result of poor perfusion
someone jumps out from behind a tree...I am in shock!
What is the most common form of shock seen in veterinary medicine?
hypovolemic shock
obstructive shock
distributive shock
cardiogenic shock
Which of the following is potentially a cause of obstructive shock?
a GI foreign body
intestinal parasites
GDV
HGE
Which of the following statements are true about distributive shock?
causes systemic vasoconstriction
results from severe blood loss
inadequate volume going to the wrong place
causes systemic vasodilation
Which of the following is not a sign of compensatory shock?
normal blood pressure
slightly slow CRT
tachycardia
bounding pulses
Which of the following is not a sign of early decompensatory shock?
bradycardia
weak pulses
hypothermia
hypotension
Which of the following is not a sign of late decompensatory shock?
undetectable CRT
tachycardia
hypothermia
pale mucous membranes
When delivering fluids to a shock patient, how high do we want to bring their systolic BP back to?
60-80 mmHg
90-110 mmHg
110-140 mmHg
it doesn't matter, just get their BP up
Why do we not want to give IVF to a cold cat?
they peripherally vasodilate and cannot maintain their BP
it makes them severely hypotensive
they develop pulmonary edema
it makes them bradycardic
In what situation would you skip the primary assessment on a patient?
a bloated dog
active seizures
a constipated cat
a vomiting and mildly dehydrated dog
Which of the following clotting factors are Vitamin K dependent?
VIII Antihemophilic
IX Christmas Factor
I Fibrinogen
IV Calcium
Which of the following is not a clinical sign if Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenia?
dehydration
petechial hemorrhage
epistaxsis
hematuria
Dogs with which of the following conditions might be at more risk for VonWillebrand's Disease?
hyperthyroidism
diabetes mellitus
addison's disease
hypothyroidism
In which of the following hospitilized patients might you be concerned about their clotting ability?
a dog with pancreatitis
a cat with hyperthyroidism
a cat with renal failure
a dog with liver failure
Which of the following is a clinical sign associated with left sided heart failure?
cyanosis
jugular distention
ascites
peripheral edema
Which of the following is a clinical sign associated with right sided heart failure?
cyanosis
hepatomegaly
coughing
weakness
What underlying cardiac conditions do cats with saddle thrombus have?
right sided heart failure
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
dilated cardiomyopathy
left sided heart failure
Which of the following conditions are dogs that have had a laryngeal tie back surgery prone to?
pulmonary edema
aspiration pneumonia
megaesophagus
esophageal strictures
Tracheal collapse often presents with which signs?
vomiting
neck pain
acute coughing
fever
Which of the following confirms a diagnoses of tracheal collapse?
bloodwork
palpation
radiographs or endoscopy
clinical signs alone
Which of the following is the most common cause of pulmonary edema?
increased pulmonary capillary pressure
low plasma protein levels
leaking alveolar capillary membrane
left sided heart failure
When air enters the pleural cavity but cannot escape, this is a what?
pneumothorax
bronchitis
pneumonia
tension pneumothorax
Which of the following pain control agents would be a poor choice for a patient with HGE?
hydromorphone
butorphanol
buprenorphine
meloxicam
Which of the following drugs is an anti-emetic?
metronidazole
maropitant
methocarbamol
magnesium
Secondary megaesophagus could potentially result from which condition?
Addison's Disease
Cushing's Disease
Hypothyroidism
Diabetes insipidus
Patients with GDV often have obstructive shock. This is from what?
increased venous return
ischemia
decreased cardiac output and decreased venous return
increased cardiac output
Which procedure can be done quickly by a veterinarian to quickly alleviate pressure in a GDV patient if needed?
thoracocentesis
gastrocentesis
abdominocentesis
only surgery
How long can Parvovirus live in the environment?
less than 6 months
6 months to 1 year
1 to 2 years
2 years or more
What is the toxic substance to dogs and cats in chocolate?
theobromine
theophylline
tetracycline
temazepram
Which of the following drugs causes rapid vomiting?
Apomorphine
Buprenorphine
Morphine
Apo-lorazepam
Which holiday plant is highly toxic to pets?
pointsettias
holiday trees (pine)
mistletoe
all of the above
What do onions cause damage do if they are ingested by dogs or cats?
the liver
the kidneys
the RBCs
clotting factors
What is the lowest dose that macadamia nut ingestion can cause clinical signs of toxicity?
0.4 g/kg
2.4 g/kg
5.4 g/kg
10 g/kg
If a patient has ingested ethanol, they are in what state?
alkalosis
acidosis
hyperkalemic
hypernatremic
Which of the following is the problematic substance in antifreeze?
propylene glycol
ethylene glycol
ethylene oxide
ethylene sulfate
