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Program final Practice part2

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Once processing is complete, urine from several nephrons flows directly into what structure?

a)

Renal cortex

b)

Pyramids

c)

Calyx

d)

Ureter

2.

What is the definition of physiology?

a)

All homeostatic changes in the body

b)

Study of the structures that make up the human organism

c)

The study of the functions of the human organism and all its component parts

d)

The combined processes of living, metabolism, and reproduction

3.

In the second messenger method of hormone action, the first messenger is the:

a)

RNA inside the receptor cells of the target organ

b)

hormone that stimulates the target cells

c)

specialized chemical inside the target cells called cAMP

d)

receptor chemical on the target cells surface

4.

Which of these back muscles elevates, retracts, and upwardly rotates the scapula?

a)

Trapezius

b)

Latissimus dorsi

c)

Rhomboids

d)

Levator scapula

5.

Which of these processes is NOT a function of the integumentary system?

a)

Monitor and adjust blood pH levels

b)

Serve as body's largest sensory organ

c)

Synthesize vitamin D

d)

Assist in temperature and fluid regulation

6.

Which of the following is a function of the skin?

a)

Monitor and adjust blood pH levels

b)

Serve as body's largest sensory organ

c)

Synthesize vitamin D

d)

Assist in temperature and fluid regulation

7.

What is the largest sesamoid bone in the body?

a)

Hyoid

b)

Patella

c)

Calcaneus

d)

Mandible

8.

Which horizontal fascial planes should be prioritized in a treatment plan to help relieve chronic neck pain associated with a forward head posture, rounded shoulders, and collapsed thorax?

a)

Pelvic floor and cranial base

b)

Diaphragm and iliotibial band

c)

Thoracic inlet and diaphragm

d)

Cranial base and diaphragm

9.

Which of the following is a key characteristic of a tender point?

a)

Moderate pressure over the point causes a predictable pattern of pain around it

b)

The localized spasm is due to a neurologic signal

c)

Palpable as a ropy or gritty knot in the muscle

d)

Always found in a taut band of tissue

10.

What term describes the specific and quantifiable changes created by manual therapy in the tissues, organs, or systems of the body?

a)

Benefits

b)

Intentions of the therapist

c)

Physiologic effects

d)

Purpose of manual therapies

11.

What structural feature allows capillaries to carry out their distinctive function?

a)

A) A series of intracapillary valves

b)

B) Pre-capillary sphincters

c)

C) A vessel wall made up of a single layer of epithelial cells

d)

D) The thick muscular layer

12.

Which of these physiologic changes is considered a structural effect of manual therapy?

a)

Increased circulation

b)

Reducing adhesions

c)

Improved sleep patterns

d)

Relief of pain

13.

What is a pre-lymphatic channel?

a)

A non-structural “preferred pathway” for fluid flow around cells in the interstitium

b)

The central pathway inside a lymph node that

c)

A fragile connective tissue bridge between the cardiovascular and lymphatic capillaries

d)

The microscopic capillary where interstitial fluid first enters the system

14.

The “deep six” muscles that laterally rotate the hip are the piriformis, gemellus superior and inferior, the:

a)

A) obturator internus, quadratus femoris, and obturator externus

b)

B) external obliques, internal obliques, and obturator major

c)

C) gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and pectineus

d)

D) internal and external femoris, plus vastus lateralis

15.

Which physiologic feedback mechanism for maintaining homeostasis is most common?

a)

Neutral

b)

Autoregulation

c)

Positive

d)

Negative

16.

Where does the chemical digestion of protein begin?

a)

Pancreas

b)

Mouth

c)

Small intestine

d)

Stomach

17.

Muscles that abduct the hip include the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and:

a)

Gluteus minimus

b)

Adductor longus

c)

Rectus femoris

d)

Semitendinosus

18.

After applying direct compression to the cramp, how can you apply your knowledge of muscle physiology to relieve a calf cramp?

a)

Immediately straighten the leg fully

b)

Engage the dorsiflexors in an isometric contraction

c)

Engage the dorsiflexors in an eccentric contraction

d)

Engage the plantarflexors in an isometric contraction

19.

What is the common function of the anterior and posterior tibialis?

a)

Dorsiflexion

b)

Eversion

c)

Plantarflexion

d)

Inversion

20.

What are the two basic categories of fiber arrangements in skeletal muscles?

a)

Fusiform and pennate

b)

Circular and fusiform

c)

Parallel and pennate

d)

Bi-pennate and multipennate

21.

What is the function of the leukocytes?

a)

Transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide

b)

Blood clotting

c)

Immune response

d)

Identifying a person's blood group

22.

What is the name of the large central portion of a muscle?

a)

Belly

b)

Fascicle

c)

Magnus

d)

Aponeurosis

23.

What bone forms the floor of the skull?

a)

Sphenoid

b)

Occipital

c)

Intracranial

d)

Ethmoid

24.

What is a functional purpose of the nose and sinuses?

a)

Warm and moisten air before it enters lungs

b)

Provide an easy method of discharging mucus from the system

c)

Trap pathogens and control air volume

d)

Balance the pH of the air

25.

What is the pathophysiology behind trigger point development?

a)

Fibrotic build-up within the sarcomeres

b)

Calcium leak that causes actin and myosin bonding

c)

Nerve compression or tension

d)

False stretch reflex report from the muscle spindle

26.

The structures in the male reproductive system that are also called the gonads are:

a)

testes

b)

vas deferens

c)

prostate gland

d)

seminal vesicles

27.

Which of these benefits and effects of manual therapy is most likely to positively influence functions of the urinary system?

a)

Increased hyperemia

b)

Enhanced focus and concentration

c)

Improved local fluid flow

d)

Decreased stress and anxiety

28.

Which of these muscles serves as a major stabilizer and has no movement function?

a)

Pectoralis minor

b)

Teres minor

c)

Serratus anterior

d)

Subclavius

29.

Which of these muscles is a type of parallel muscle?

a)

Deltoid

b)

Pectoralis major

c)

Extensor digitorum longus

d)

Rectus femoris

30.

Which of these skeletal muscles is a type of pennate muscle?

a)

Pectoralis major

b)

Deltoid

c)

Gastrocnemius

d)

Orbicularis oris

31.

What is the final step in blood clot formation?

a)
Agglutination
b)

Vascular spasm

c)

Platelet plug

d)

Coagulation

32.

What type of bone tissue makes up the shaft of a long bone?

a)

Cancellous

b)

Fibrous

c)

Spongy

d)

Cortical

33.

The key structural features that allow initial vessels to take in interstitial fluid include their measurement at one epithelial cell thick, their slight overlapping arrangement like fish scales, and:

a)

fibrous extensions that have a spongy tip to allow fluid absorption

b)

an anchor filament extending into the interstitium that opens the flap to allow fluid to enter

c)

a thin and porous basement membrane that allows fluid to enter between the cells

d)

microscopic pores between the cells that suck interstitial fluid into the vessel

34.

Which neuroglial cell produces myelin in the central nervous system?

a)

Oligodendrocytes

b)

Astrocytes

c)

Microglia

d)

Schwann cells

35.

The kidneys help regulate both blood pressure and volume by initiating the RAA pathway with the release of what enzyme?

a)

Renostatic angiotensin

b)

Renin

c)

Renal enzyme 2

d)

Resistoral

36.

What is the other anatomic term for the serosa layer of the GI tract?

a)

Greater omentum

b)

Visceral peritoneum

c)

Lesser omentum

d)

Parietal peritoneum

37.

Where is the adductor muscle group located?

a)

Lateral thigh

b)

Medial brachium

c)

Chest

d)

Medial thigh

38.

The functions of the muscular system are to maintain posture, create movement:

a)

Stabilize joints and generate heat

b)

Store energy and regulate body temperature

c)

Synthesize ATP and generate proteins

d)

Regulate temperature and water balance

39.

Arterial flow and pulse have a major influence on lymph flow through which portion of the lymph system?

a)

Initial vessels and collecting capillaries

b)

Collecting capillaries and anastomosis

c)

Lymphangia and catchments

d)

Collecting trunks

40.

What is the function of articular cartilage?

a)

Production of red blood cells

b)

Synthesize synovial fluid

c)

Feed the end of the bone

d)

Cushion bone ends and stabilize the joint

41.

Which type of range of motion assessment is best at identifying a muscle strain?

a)

Active ROM

b)

Isometric resistive

c)

Isotonic resistive

d)

Passive ROM

42.

Where is the wrist located in relationship to the elbow?

a)

Proximal

b)

Superior

c)

Distal

d)

Inferior

43.

Which of the following structures secretes progesterone?

a)

Ovum

b)

Corpus luteum

c)

Fimbriae

d)

Follicle

44.

When atoms bind together, they form microscopic particles called what?

a)

Elements

b)

Cells

c)

Molecules

d)

Compounds

45.

What fascial layer surrounds each skeletal muscle fiber?

a)

Fibromysium

b)

Epimysium

c)

Endomysium

d)

Perimysium

46.

What portion of a muscle cell is the actual contractile unit?

a)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

Sarcomere

c)

Myofibrils

d)

Myofibers

47.

What movement role is a muscle playing when it assists larger muscles during a particular motion?

a)

Antagonist

b)

Synergist

c)

Stabilizer

d)

Agonist

48.

The epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium of skeletal muscle collectively form which of the four fascial tubes in the body?

a)

Axial

b)

Visceral

c)

Pannicular

d)

Menigeal

49.

Which of the adductor muscles is also a knee flexor?

a)

Pectinius

b)

Adductor longus

c)

Gracilis

d)

Adductor magnus

50.

Which of these terms is a synonym for agonist?

a)

Synergist

b)

Prime function

c)

Antagonist

d)

Prime mover

51.

Which of these structures is implicated when pain or limitation is present with both active and passive range of motion in one direction?

a)

Tendon

b)

Fascia

c)

Ligament

d)

Muscle

52.

Which of these statements is the best explanation of reciprocal inhibition?

a)

When the antagonist is contracting, the agonist is inhibited.

b)

The agonist and synergists are reciprocally inhibited during contraction.

c)

In order for movement to occur, the stabilizers must reciprocate contraction of the antagonist.

d)

When the agonist is signaled to contract, the antagonist is inhibited.

53.

What happens to antigens when antibodies attach to them?

a)

They are rendered ineffective.

b)

Their nucleus is ruptured.

c)

They are expelled via ciliary action.

d)

The microbes get clumped together for NK cell destruction.

54.

Muscle names are generally descriptive of their size, shape, function, location, attachment points, fiber direction, and:

a)

Strength

b)

Number of origins

c)

Number of fibers

d)

Movement role

55.

The term used to describe the balance of tension and compression forces in the musculoskeletal system is:

a)

Viscoelastic

b)

Tensegrity

c)

Thixotropic

d)

Piezoelectric

56.

What is the name of the thin superficial layer of the dermis?

a)

Spiney

b)

Papillary

c)

Granulosum

d)

Reticular

57.

Which cardinal plane divides the body into right and left sides?

a)

Horizontal

b)

Sagittal

c)

Coronal

d)

Lateral

58.

How does the muscular system help maintain body temperature?

a)

Skeletal muscles have their own set of sweat glands to dissipate heat.

b)

Heat is generated as a byproduct of muscle contraction.

c)

When cold, the brain inhibits muscle contraction to shift energy toward heat production.

d)

Increased muscle tension when cold signals the brain to increase metabolism.

59.

What is the anatomic name of the lateral projection off the spine of the scapula?

a)

Scapular process

b)

Acromion process

c)

Coracoid process

d)

Lateral angle

60.

Which of these muscles is part of the hamstring group?

a)

Biceps femoris

b)

Vastus medialis

c)

Vastus intermedius

d)

Rectus femoris

61.

The cells, tissues, and organs of which two body systems carry out most of the immune responses in the body?

a)

Lymphatic and nervous

b)

Digestive and respiratory

c)

Nervous and

62.

What membrane covers the organs in the abdominopelvic cavity?

a)

Parietal peritoneum

b)

Visceral peritoneum

c)

Visceral pleura

d)

Parietal pleura

63.

Nervous system functions can be summarized as sensory, __________ , and integration.

a)

regulation and integration

b)

motor and cognitive

c)

motor and endocrine

d)

integration and motor

64.

Which formed element in blood plays a key role in blood clotting?

a)

Fibrocytes

b)

Leukocytes

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Thrombocytes

65.

What is the common function for all of the quadriceps?

a)

Knee extension

b)

Hip extension

c)

Knee flexion

d)

Hip flexion

66.

Which layer of skin contains the blood vessels and sensory receptors?

a)

Subcutaneous

b)

Epidermis

c)

Hypodermis

d)

Dermis

67.

What anatomic term is used to describe the position of two structures on the same side of the sagittal plane?

a)

Ipsilateral

b)

Unisagittal

c)

Homosagittal

d)

Contralateral

68.

Fascia is classified as what type of connective tissue?

a)

Disorganized cartilaginous

b)

Areolar

c)

Organized fibrous

d)

Disorganized fibrous

69.

What is the most abundant type of plasma protein?

a)

Complements

b)

Globulins

c)

Fibrin

d)

Albumins

70.

The endocrine system exerts the most control over which of these physiologic processes?

a)

Short-term changes in heart rate

b)

Sweat production to dissipate heat

c)

Secretion of digestive enzymes

d)

Adjustments in fluid and pH levels

71.

Similar to plasma, lymph fluid is mostly made up of what two substances?

a)

Cellular debris and water

b)

Proteins and antibiotics

c)

Water and electrolytes

d)

Fats and hormones

72.

What movement role is an extensor muscle playing during a flexion motion?

a)

Fixator

b)

Synergist

c)

Agonist

d)

Antagonist