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Worksheets

Biology EOC Review

Total questions: 254

Worksheet time: 4hrs 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A __________ includes all living and non-living things in an environment. 
a)
population
b)
niche
c)
abitotic
d)
ecosystem
2.

Which organism make their own food through the process of photosynthesis?

a)

decomposer, ex mushrooms

b)

consumer, ex tiger

c)

herbivore, ex cow

d)

producer, ex grass

3.
Which is true about the first (bottom) trophic level in an energy pyramid?
a)
It has the most available energy and includes all consumers
b)
It has the most avaliable energy and includes all producers
c)
It includes primary consumers (heterotrophs), which are known as herbivores
d)
In includes primary consumers (autotrophs), which are known as herbivores
4.
Which is true about the first (bottom) trophic level in an energy pyramid?
a)
It has the most available energy and includes all consumers
b)
It has the most avaliable energy and includes all producers
c)
It includes primary consumers (heterotrophs), which are known as herbivores
d)
In includes primary consumers (autotrophs), which are known as herbivores
5.
In the energy pyramid here, how much of the energy in the producers gets passed to the herbivores?
a)
10%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
90%
6.
Consumer that eats plants
a)
heterotroph
b)
herbivore
c)
producer
d)
community
7.
organisms that relies on other organisms for food; consumer
a)
herbivore
b)
decomposer
c)
heterotroph
d)
species
8.

How many autotrophs are in this food web?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

4

d)

2

9.
Organisms that feed on both living producers and other consumers.
a)
Carnivores
b)
Omnivores
c)
Herbivores
d)
Detritivores
10.
The image provided is an example of a(n):
a)
Producer
b)
Autotroph
c)
Consumer
d)
Insect
11.
What type of relationship is this?
a)
Predator-Prey
b)
Producer-Consumer
c)
Parasite-Host
12.
An organism that helps to recycle nutrients within an ecosystem by eating dead or decaying organisms is a:
a)
Predator
b)
Autotroph
c)
Producer
d)
Decomposer
13.
Where does the energy start in this food chain?
a)
Plant
b)
Sun
c)
Deer
d)
Wolf
14.
What is an autotroph?
a)
an organism that can make their own food. 
b)
an organism that cannot make their own food
c)
Herbivore
d)
Omnivore
15.
Natural disasters such as flooding and tornadoes are linked to ________________.
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
old field
d)
ecosystem
16.
How do lichens contribute to primary succession?
a)
Lichens decompose organic matter from animals and plants
b)
Lichens begin to break down rock to form soil
c)
Lichens are nitrogen fixing bacteria
d)
Lichens convert carbohydrates into fossil fuels.
17.
What is formed during primary succession that doesn't need to be formed during secondary succession?
a)
pioneer species
b)
soil
c)
climax community
d)
lichens
18.
After a forest fire, an ecosystem would start regrowth through -
a)
primary succession
b)
secondary succession
c)
climax community
d)
limiting factors
19.
succession that occurs in an area with no soil
a)
ecological succession 
b)
primary succession 
c)
secondary succession
d)
pioneer speciles
20.

Which experiences the least change over time?

a)

Pioneer Species

b)

Primary Succession

c)

Aquatic Succession

d)

Climax Community

21.

Which of the following best describes primary succession?

a)

Volcano wipes out ecosystem that gradually grows back from ash covered soil

b)

Volcano creates a new island of rock that must break down to form an ecosystem

c)

Forest fire burns down forest that must bounce back over time

d)

Tornado destroys a crop that must slowly grow back over time.

22.

Which would most likely result in primary succession?

a)

old forest growing

b)

undisturbed prairie

c)

pollution kills mountain lake species

d)

a Newly formed volcanic island

23.

Primary succession occurs in areas with:

a)

very little soil

b)

lots of soil

c)

no soil

d)

soil that has been disturbed

24.
What is the order of succession shown in this figure?
a)
A, B, C, D
b)
B, A, D, C
c)
C, D, A, B
d)
D, A, B, C
25.
What type of succession is shown going from figure A to figure B?
a)
primary succession
b)
ecological succession
c)
secondary succession
d)
intermediate
26.
What is the name given to lichen or algae after a primary succession?
a)
pioneer species
b)
volunteer species
c)
founder species
d)
conqueror species
27.
What are examples of pioneer species in a primary succession?
a)
Bushes and Shrubs
b)
Oak trees
c)
Mossess and Lichens 
d)
A rose Bush
28.
After a volcanic eruption, lava covers the land. What is the order that plants grow to repopulate the area?
a)
Lichens → Shrubs → Grasses → Trees
b)
Lichens → tree → shrubs→Grasses
c)
Grasses → Lichens → Shrubs → Trees
d)
Lichens → Grasses → Shrubs → Trees
29.
This is the process that forms a new ecosystem where no organisms lived before.
a)
resource
b)
invasive (non- native) species
c)
primary succession
d)
competition
30.
This is an example of...
a)
Climax communities
b)
Secondary succession
c)
Lichen
d)
Pioneer species
31.

What is an example of a disturbance that could bring about secondary succession?

a)

Humans cut down many trees in a small region

b)

A volcanic eruption covers a village in lava.

32.

Which of the following is an example of a fossil fuel?

a)

Coal

b)

Solar Energy

c)

Hydroelectric Power

d)

Nuclear Power

33.

The burning of fossil fuels is known as...

a)

Decomposition

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Combustion

d)

Respiration

34.

In order to be considered organic, a compound must contain...

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Carbon

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Phosphorus

35.

Animals inhale oxygen and exhale....

a)

CH4CH_4  

b)

CO2CO_2  

c)

NH3NH_3  

d)

N2ON_2O  

36.

In ______________, plants use sunlight and carbon dioxide to make glucose and oxygen

a)

Combustion

b)

Respiration

c)

Decomposition

d)

Photosynthesis

37.

Which of the following will DECREASE the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

a)

Combustion of fossil fuels

b)

Respiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Decomposition

38.

Soil bacteria can take N2N_2  gas and break apart its triple covalent bond. This is called...

a)

Ammonification

b)

Nitrification

c)

Nitrogen fixation

d)

Denitrification

39.

Some soil bacteria use up nitrates and release N2N_2 gas in a process called...

a)

Ammonification

b)

Nitrification

c)

Nitrogen Fixation

d)

Denitrification

40.

Eutrophication occurs when a body of water has too many nutrients leading to an increased population of....

a)

Fish

b)

Algae

c)

Legumes

d)

Bacteria

41.

Excess fertilizers might enter into an aquatic ecosystem through...

a)

Precipitation

b)

Evaporation

c)

Transpiration

d)

Runoff

42.

Aside from bacteria, another way that nitrogen gas can become "fixed" is through

a)

Thunder

b)

Magic

c)

Lightning

d)

Gravity

43.

What type of selection is depicted in the picture?

a)

stabilizing

b)

directional

c)

disruptive

44.

Robins typically lay fours eggs. If more then four eggs are produced then the baby chicks are malnourished while smaller egg numbers result in no viable (able to live) baby chicks. This is an example of

a)

stabalizing

b)

disruptive

c)

directional

45.
What type of selection?
a)
Directional 
b)
Stabilizing
c)
Disruptive
46.
Which of the three graphs shows stabilizing selection?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
47.
Which of the three graphs shows disruptive selection?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
48.
If finches with large beaks and finches with small beaks increase in a population while finches with average sized beaks decreases, which pattern of natural selection has occurred?
a)
Directional selection
b)
Disruptive selection 
c)
Stabilizing selection
49.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
50.
Study of embryos of various organisms to show a common ancestor because of similarities in development
a)
natural selection
b)
embryology
c)
speciation
d)
evolution
51.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
52.
What does Darwin's theory of evolution suggest?
a)
species change over time
b)
extinct species are not related to living species
c)
different species can interbreed
d)
animals that look alike are most closely related
53.
When all of the organisms of a species have died it is called
a)
evolution
b)
extinction
c)
adaptation
d)
natural selection
54.
Predict which moth would increase in population
a)
light 
b)
dark
55.
Scientists compare organisms' DNA to support the theory that all species share a common _________________
a)
separation
b)
ancestor
c)
population
d)
environment
56.
Structures are similar in appearance but not in structure
a)
Vestigial 
b)
Homologous 
c)
Analogous Structures 
d)
Embryonic 
57.

The picture shows a/an ___________

a)

homologous structure

b)

vestigial structure

58.

What is this an example of?

a)

Homologous structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Vestigial organs

d)

Functional adaption

59.
Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
the hind limbs of a house cat
c)
the fins of sharks
d)
the tailbone of a human
60.
Which species’ DNA is most similar to the DNA of the toothed whale? 
a)
Hippopotamus 
b)
Baleen Whale
c)
Grazing Mammals
d)
Camels
61.
According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to: 
a)
Species I
b)
Species II
c)
Species III
d)
Species IV
62.

What conclusions can be made based on this table shown?

a)

the American black bear and the giant panda are most closely related

b)

the giant panda and the red panda are most closely related

c)

the red panda and the racoon are the most closely related

d)

the giant panda and the racoon are most closely related

63.
__________ enable an organism to survive in its environment.
a)
adaptations
b)
natural selections
c)
divergence
d)
extinctions
64.

In the ocean surrounding Antarctica, there are fish that survive the cold water by using a molecule made of glycoproteins that circulates the blood and keeps it from freezing.  Certain kinds of worms that live in the Arctic ocean also make antifreeze proteins that help them live in icy water.

a)

convergent evolution

b)

divergent evolution

c)

coevolution

65.

Ants are the correct size and weight needed to open the flowers for the peony plant.  The peony plant provides food for the ant and the ant fertilizes the peony’s flowers

a)

divergent evolution

b)

convergent evolution

c)

coevolution

66.

The kit fox lives in the desert and has large ears with greater surface area that keep the fox from getting overheated.  The red fox lives in the forest and has a red coat that keeps it camouflaged.

a)

divergent evolution

b)

convergent evolution

c)

coevolution

67.

A form of evolution where two species having a close ecological relationship evolve together such that one species adapts to changes in the other, thereby affecting each other's evolution.

a)

divergent evolution

b)

convergent evolution

c)

coevolution

68.
What type of evolution where there is a sudden, rapid change then no change for a long time?
a)
Co-Evolution
b)
Punctuated Equilibrium
c)
Divergent Evolution
d)
Convergent Evolution
69.

Evolution occurring gradually and slowly over long periods of time

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Stasis

c)

Punctuated Equilibrium

d)

Gradualism

70.

According to evolutionary theory, all living things have a common

a)

Purpose

b)

Function

c)

Ancestor

d)

Phone Number

71.

Based on the image above, what type of Isolation is shown?

a)

Geographic Isolation

b)

Behavioral Isolation

c)

Temporal Isolation

72.

Fireflies make a pattern of flashes that attract mates of their own species. What type of isolation is this?

a)

Geographic Isolation

b)

Behavioral Isolation

c)

Temporal Isolation

73.

One species of lizard breeds in the spring, one breeds in the summer. What type of isolation is this?

a)

Geographic Isolation

b)

Behavioral Isolation

c)

Temporal Isolation

74.

Which organism is most closely related to the cat?

a)

Fish

b)

Frog

c)

Salamander

d)

Goose

e)

Human

75.

Two species of whales are divided by a physical barrier that connects two continents. What type of isolation is this?

a)

Geographic Isolation

b)

Behavioral Isolation

c)

Temporal Isolation

76.

Which is NOT an example of an ecosystem service?

a)

provisioning

b)

regulating

c)

associating

d)

supporting

77.

The aesthetic value of an ecosystem provides

a)

a supporting service.

b)

a regulating service.

c)

an intrinsic value.

d)

a cultural service.

78.

When a spruce tree is harvested so the wood can be used to build a house, the tree is providing

a)

a cultural service.

b)

a provision.

c)

an intrinsic value.

d)

a monetary unit.

79.

Human waste is often dumped in the ocean. Microbial organisms in marine ecosystems can break down organic waste into less harmful components. This is an example of

a)

a cultural service.

b)

an ecosystem provision.

c)

a regulating service.

d)

an intrinsic value.

80.

Fruits, fish, and livestock are all examples of what type of ecosystem service?

a)

Economic

b)

Provisioning

c)

Regulating

d)

Cultural

81.

Music, art, and architecture born from interactions with nature are all examples of what type of ecosystem service?

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Cultural

d)

Supporting

82.

Natural processes such as nutrient cycling and the creation of soils are all examples of what type of ecosystem service?

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Cultural

d)

Supporting

83.

Which of the following would be an example of a regulating service?

a)

Nutrient cycling

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Drinking water from a creek

d)

Bees pollinating flowers

84.

Pick the provisional service

a)

natural resources

b)

water cycle and nutrients

c)

plants and animals

d)

recreational services

85.

Pick the supporting service

a)

natural resources

b)

water cycle and nutrients

c)

plants and animals

d)

recreational services

86.

Pick the regulating service

a)

natural resources

b)

water cycle and nutrients

c)

plants and animals

d)

recreational services

87.
What is the most basic unit of life?
a)
cell
b)
tissue
c)
organ
d)
organ system
88.
An organism made of one cell is called
a)
unicellular
b)
multicellular
89.

The combination of chemical reactions through

which an organism builds up or breaks down

materials as it carries out its life processes is called ...

a)

absorption

b)

metabolism

c)

digestion

d)

consumption

90.

Maintaining a stable internal

environment is called

a)

homeostasis

b)

equilibrium

c)

balance

d)

evenness

91.

When you step out into the cold, your body shivers in order to keep its temperature at 98.6F. Which characteristic of life does this represent?

a)

All living things use energy

b)

All living things contain cells

c)

All living things maintain homeostasis

d)

All living things grow

92.

Green plants produce their own food through the process of photosynthesis. Which characteristic of life does this represent?

a)

All living things use energy

b)

All living things contain cells

c)

All living things maintain homeostasis

d)

All living things grow

93.

A baby song bird hatches from its egg with both parent songbirds watching. Which characteristic of life does this represent?

a)

All living things reproduce

b)

All living things maintain homeostasis

c)

All living things use energy

d)

All living things grow

94.

A camel has eyelashes that work to keep the dust and sand out of its eyes. Which characteristic of life does this represent?

a)

All living things adapt to their environment

b)

All living things grow

c)

All living things have cells

d)

All living things use energy

95.
A worm turns away from light is an example of a worm
a)
reproducing
b)
doing cellular respiration
c)
having cells
d)
responding to its environment
96.

Over three years, Tim's height has increased from 5'4" to 5'11". Which characteristic of life does this represent?

a)

All living things contain cells

b)

All living things maintain homeostasis

c)

All living things use energy

d)

All living things grow

97.

Over many hundreds of years, a population of rabbits living in the woods adapts to its surrounding with brown fur. Which characteristic of life does this represent?

a)

All living things adapt to their environment

b)

All living things grow

c)

All living things use energy

d)

All living things have cells

98.
Which of the following is the correct order of organization in living things from most basic (simple) to most complex?
a)
a.  Organism, cell, tissue, organ, organ system
b)
a.  Organ system, organ, tissue, cell, organism
c)
a.  Cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism
d)
a.  Cell, organ, tissue, organ, organism, organ system
99.
When a baby kitten becomes an adult cat, this is an example of...
a)
energy metabolism
b)
growth and development
c)
response to stimuli
d)
having cells
100.

Why do viruses need living hosts, such as bacteria or eukaryote cells?

a)

Viruses have a cellular structure which never require a host.

b)

Viruses depend on the host cells that they infect to reproduce.

c)

Viruses depend on a host cell because they lack their own DNA or RNA.

d)

The host cell is the source of food for the virus.

101.

When scientists classify living things, they do not include viruses.

This is because viruses

a)

do not contain DNA.

b)

are much smaller than other organisms.

c)

are not made of one or more cells.

d)

cause disease.

102.

Viruses CANNOT

a)

be crystallized.

b)

live in bacteria.

c)

cause disease in plants.

d)

reproduce on their own.

103.

Is this characteristic define as living organisms, viruses, or both:

Needs a host.

a)

Living Organisms

b)

Viruses

c)

Both

104.

Is this characteristic define as living organisms, viruses, or both:

Ability to reproduce independently.

a)

Living Organisms

b)

Viruses

c)

Both

105.

Is this characteristic define as living organisms, viruses, or both:

Not made of cells.

a)

Living Organisms

b)

Viruses

c)

Both

106.

Is this characteristic define as living organisms, viruses, or both:

Can have a DNA genome.

a)

Living Organisms

b)

Viruses

c)

Both

107.

Is this characteristic define as living organisms, viruses, or both:

May mutate and evolve.

a)

Living Organisms

b)

Viruses

c)

Both

108.

Is this characteristic define as living organisms, viruses, or both:

The ability to grow.

a)

Living Organisms

b)

Viruses

c)

Both

109.

Which type of cell DOES NOT have a nucleus?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

110.

Which type of cell HAS a nucleus?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

111.

Which type of cell is found in BACTERIA?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

112.

Which type of cell is found in plants, animals, fungi and protists?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

113.

Which type of cell has DNA that is NOT in a nucleus?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

114.

Which type of cell has DNA IN A NUCLEUS?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

115.

Which type of cell is surrounded by a cell membrane?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Both

116.

Which type of cell has ribosomes?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Both

117.

Which type of cell makes up ONLY unicellular organisms?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

118.

Which type of cell has DNA floating in its cytoplasm?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

119.

What type of cell is this?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

120.

Which type of cell is this?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

121.

Which type of cell has organelles like endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Both

122.
Which organelle is only found in a plant cell? 
a)
nucleus
b)
chloroplast
c)
mitochondria
d)
cell membrane
123.

Which organelle is for packaging and shipping?

a)

vacuole

b)

ribosome

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

golgi apparatus

124.

Which organelle is the trash collector, but also recycles parts of the cell?

a)

mitochondria

b)

lysosome

c)

vacuole

d)

ribosome

125.

This organelle takes food and turns it into ENERGY for plant and animal cells.

a)

chloroplast

b)

mitochondria

c)

lysosome

d)

ribosome

126.

This controls what goes in and out of the cell.

a)

lysosomes

b)

nucleus

c)

cell membrane

d)

cytoplasm

127.

This provides structure and helps the cell keep its shape.

a)

cytoskeleton

b)

cell membrane

c)

nucleus

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

128.

What organelle is called the "powerhouse" of a cell?

a)

endoplasmic reticulum

b)

nucleus

c)

mitochondria

d)

chloroplast

129.

What is the gel-like substance inside of cells called?

a)

photoplasm

b)

cell membrane

c)

cytoskeleton

d)

cytoplasm

130.

What is the blue organelle surrounding the nucleus?

a)

mitochondria

b)

lysosomes

c)

golgi apparatus

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

131.

Which organelle stores food and water?

a)

vacuole

b)

chloroplast

c)

lysosome

d)

ribosome

132.

Which organelle is called the control center of the cell?

a)

mitochondria

b)

endoplasmic reticulum

c)

nucleus

d)

ribosomes

133.

Which organelles are the workers that make proteins?

a)

golgi apparatus

b)

lysosomes

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

ribosomes

134.

What two organelles are ONLY in plant cells?

a)

cell membrane and mitochondria

b)

nucleus and ribosomes

c)

cell wall and chloroplasts

d)

golgi apparatus and lysosomes

135.

Which organelle stores the genetic material, DNA?

a)

lysosomes

b)

vacuoles

c)

ribosomes

d)

nucleus

136.

The rough endoplasmic reticulum, has what organelle attached to it?

a)

vacuoles

b)

ribosomes

c)

lysosomes

d)

mitochondria

137.
What does “high concentration area” mean?
a)
Spread out
b)
Tightly packed together
c)
Uncrowded
d)
Spacious
138.
When particles move from areas of high concentration to areas less concentrated, this has taken place.
a)
diffusion
b)
mitosis
c)
endocytosis
d)
photosynthesis
139.
What process occurs when WATER diffuses across a membrane?
a)
endocytosis
b)
mitosis
c)
osmosis
d)
nuclear fission 
140.

Why are diffusion and osmosis important to cells?

a)

It allows them to take in materials/substances without using energy.

b)

It allows them to reproduce.

c)

It allows them to absorb sunlight.

d)

It allows cells to use all energy.

141.

What does selectively-permeable mean?

a)

Allow certain things to enter and leave the cell

b)

Nothing gets through

c)

The cell lets only large substances through

142.

Passive transport requires ________________

a)

concentration gradients

b)

no energy

c)

motion

d)

energy

143.
During osmosis
a)
water moves from high to low concentration
b)
large or oddly shaped molecules move across a cell membrane
c)
water moves when energy is used
d)
proteins are built
144.

The diffusion of particles through the cell membrane from high to low concentration is called ....

a)

exocytosis

b)

active transport

c)

passive transport

d)

osmosis

145.

Particle of movement from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration.

a)

Active transport

b)

Passive transport

146.

Which type of transport uses energy in the form of ATP to transport substances?

a)

Active transport

b)

Passive transport

147.

Which type of passive transport uses transport proteins to transport items such as glucose through the membrane?

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Diffusion

148.

Which type of diffusion is represented?

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Diffusion

149.

Which type of solution has a greater solute concentration INSIDE of the cell?

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

150.

Which type of solution has a greater solute concentration OUTSIDE of the cell?

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

151.

Which type of solution has the same solute concentration inside of and outside of the cell?

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

152.

The cell shrunk in size, which means it was placed in a ____ solution.

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypertonic

c)

Hypotonic

153.

The cell expanded in size to the point of lysing (bursting), which means it was placed in a ____ solution.

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypertonic

c)

Hypotonic

154.

The cell shows water moving in and out equally, which means it was placed in a ___ solution.

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypertonic

c)

Hypotonic

155.

Which type of active transport is displayed?

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

156.

Which type of active transport uses a vesicle to allow a large molecule to exit the cell?

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

157.

___ is reached when there are stable internal and external cell conditions.

a)

Energy

b)

Active transport

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Passive transport

158.

Adenine pairs with

a)

Thymine

b)

Thyme

c)

Guanine

d)

Glutamine

159.

The backbone of DNA is made of

a)

base pairs

b)

sugars and phosphates

c)

only sugars

d)

only phosphates

160.

The two strands of DNA are held together with

a)

covalent bonds

b)

hydrogen bonds

c)

nothing

161.

If a DNA molecule has 30% Guanine bases, how many Cytosine bases will it have?

a)

30%

b)

25%

c)

20%

d)

10%

162.

The first step in DNA replication is

a)

to unwind and unzip the two strands

b)

to break the backbone in half so the sequence can be copies

c)

to attach new nucleotides

d)

to proof read the sequence

163.

What does semiconservative replication mean?

a)

that the DNA is proof read at the end of the process

b)

that the newly made DNA has one strand from the original DNA and one new strand

c)

that the newly made DNA will send half of its strand to one cell and leave the old strand in the original cell

d)

that the original DNA strands come back together after replication is over

164.

Bacteria DNA looks the same as human DNA structurally speaking

a)

True

b)

False

165.

Which is this picture showing?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

DNA replication

c)

Gene editing

166.

The DNA sequence is TTA CCG What is the complementary sequence?

a)

TTA CCG

b)

AAT GGC

c)

GGC AAT

167.

The DNA sequence is ATG what is the complementary sequence?

a)

ATG

b)

GTA

c)

TAC

168.
RNA contains the sugar
a)
ribose
b)
deoxyribose
c)
glucose
d)
lactose
169.
What will be the resulting mRNA from this DNA sequence:
GAT-TAC-AGA-TTA-CAT?
a)
CTA-ATG-TCT-AAT-GTA
b)
GAU-UAG-UGA-UUA-GUT
c)
CUA-AUG-UCU-AAU-GUA
d)
CAT-ACA-TAC-ATA-TAG
170.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
171.
Every three letters (example: ATC) in DNA codes for what??
a)
Amino Acid
b)
Nucleotide
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
172.
One difference between DNA and RNA is that RNA....
a)
is double stranded 
b)
contains the base Thymine
c)
contains the base Uracil 
d)
contained the base Guanine
173.
The anti-codon 
a)
contains a sequence the same as the codon
b)
contains a sequence complementary to the codon 
c)
contains the base thymine
174.
tRNA is involved in
a)
carrying amino acids 
b)
carrying ribosomes
c)
carrying glucose
d)
carrying lipids
175.
Amino acids are joined together in order to form
a)
DNA
b)
ribosomes
c)
proteins 
d)
RNA
176.
Transcribe the following piece of DNA:
ATCGTA
a)
UAGCAU
b)
TAGCAT
c)
ATCGTA
d)
AUCGUA
177.
The process of making RNA (i.e. mRNA) from DNA is called
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Protein synthesis
178.
Which  represents the bases of mRNA?
a)
A U C G
b)
A T U G
c)
A T C G
d)
U T C G
179.
What is the correct sequence?
a)
RNA --> DNA --> Protein
b)
Protein --> RNA --> DNA
c)
DNA --> RNA --> Protein
d)
DNA --> Protein --> RNA
180.
If an mRNA codon is AGU, which of the following would be the appropriate tRNA anticodon?
a)
TCA
b)
UGA
c)
AGU
d)
UCA
181.
Enzymes are considered to be 
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
182.
What 3 letters do enzymes typically end in?
a)
-ose
b)
-ase
c)
-ese
d)
-tic
183.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
184.
Which of these is NOT true?
a)
Enzymes can denature (change shape) when the temperature gets too high.
b)
Enzymes can only be used once in a chemical reaction. 
c)
Extreme pH can denature enzymes.
d)
Enzymes speed up chemical reactions. 
185.

What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?

a)

reusable

b)

catalyst

c)

specific

d)

fragile

186.

In the diagram, what is letter A?

a)

product

b)

enzyme-substrate complex

c)

substrate

d)

active site

187.

Letter D...

a)

enzyme

b)

active site

c)

substrate

d)

products

188.

Letter B...

a)

substrate

b)

active site

c)

enzyme

d)

products

189.

Letter C...

a)

products

b)

substrate

c)

enzymes

d)

active site

190.

Letter E...

a)

active site

b)

products

c)

substrate

d)

enzyme

191.

The goal of mitosis is to

a)

make a new parent cell

b)

make two new daughter cells with the same DNA

c)

make two new daughter cells with different DNA

d)

to grow a larger toe

192.

In interphase, the cell is

a)

multiplying chromosomes

b)

growing and copying DNA

c)

destroying DNA

d)

moving inside

193.

A good way to remember the stages of cell division is:

a)

AMPT

b)

ATMP

c)

PMAT

d)

PMA

194.

Why does our body undergo mitosis?

a)

fun and games

b)

checks and balances

c)

growth and repair

d)

to build bigger muscles

195.

What stage of mitosis is this?

a)

Interphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Prophase

196.

What stage of mitosis is this?

a)

metrophase

b)

middlephase

c)

centraphase

d)

metaphase

197.

In what stage do the chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell?

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphae

198.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
199.
The stages of mitosis in order
a)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
b)
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase
200.
Where does a cell contain its genetic material?
a)
nucleus
b)
nucleolus
c)
cytoskeleton
d)
chloroplasts
201.
What are the reactants (what's needed) for photosynthesis?
a)
glucose and oxygen
b)
light, water, and carbon dioxide
202.
What gas is released by plants during photosynthesis?
a)
sulfur
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
oxygen
d)
hydrogen
203.
What is the purpose of photosynthesis?
a)
make glucose
b)
make ATP
c)
make light
d)
release carbon dioxide
204.
What are the products (what's made) during photosynthesis?
a)
glucose and oxygen
b)
water, light, and carbon dioxide
205.
In which organelle (part of the cell) does photosynthesis take place?
a)
mitochondria
b)
chloroplast
c)
nucleus
d)
cell membrane
206.
What is the gas we breath out that plants use for photosynthesis?
a)
sulfur
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
oxygen
d)
hydrogen
207.
How can photosynthesis be related to cellular respiration?
a)
What's produced (made) by one is needed (the reactants) for the other
b)
They both produce the same products
c)
They both have the same reactants (need the same things)
d)
These 2 processes have nothing in common
208.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
6CO2 + 6H2O --> 6O2 + C6H12O6
b)
6CO2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O --> O2 
c)
6O2 + 6H2O --> 6CO2 + C6H12O6
d)
C6H12O6 + 6O2 ---> 6H2O + 6CO2 
209.
What is another name for glucose?
a)
Chlorophyll
b)
Chloroplasts
c)
Stomata
d)
Sugar
210.

Cellular Respiration is an aerobic process which means it requires Oxygen.

a)

True

b)

False

211.

What organelle does cellular respiration take place?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Central Vacuole

212.
What is the name of the 1st step of cellular respiration?
a)
Glycolysis
b)
Kreb's Cycle
c)
ETC
d)
Anaerobic respiration
213.
This process releases chemical energy from sugars and other carbon-based molecules to make ATP when oxygen is present.
a)
photosynthesis
b)
light-independent reaction
c)
cellular respiration
d)
light-dependent reaction
214.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
215.
What is cellular respiration?
a)
the breakdown of glucose  to release ATP
b)
the breakdown of glucose to release NADH
c)
the breakdown of glucose to release FADH
d)
the breakdown of glucose to release carbon
216.

Asexual reproduction has

a)

1 parent

b)

2 parents

217.

Sexual reproduction has

a)

1 parent

b)

2 parents

218.

Asexual reproduction creates offspring that are

a)

genetically identical to the parent

b)

different from the parent

c)

different from each other

d)

formed by 2 parents

219.

In mitosis, how many cells are made?

a)

2 cells with identical genetic information

b)

2 cells with different genetic information

c)

4 cells with identical genetic information

d)

4 cells with different genetic information

220.

In meiosis, how many cells are made?

a)

2 cells with identical genetic information

b)

2 cells with different genetic information

c)

4 cells with identical information

d)

4 cells with different genetic information

221.

Compared to the amount in a normal human cell, a sperm cell will have

a)

the same amount of chromsomes

b)

twice the amount of chromosomes

c)

half the amount of chromosomes

d)

one fourth the amount of chromosomes

222.

Gametes are made in

a)

skin cells

b)

stomach cells

c)

reproductive systems

d)

the circulatory system

223.

What is it called when the egg and sperm cell join?

a)

zygote

b)

gamete

c)

fertilization

d)

mitosis

224.

What is the scientific term that refers to sex cells?

a)

autosome

b)

gamete

c)

karyotype

d)

chromosome

225.

The stage of meiosis where crossing over or the exchange of genetic information happens between pairs of chromosomes

a)

Prophase II

b)

Telophase I

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Prophase I

226.

The exchange of genetic information that insures that every gamete is unique is referred to as

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

reduction division

d)

crossing over

227.

How many times does a sex cell undergo mitosis?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

228.

Name the stage: Chromosomes pull away from each other and move to opposite sides of the cell

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

229.

Sea turtles have 56 chromosome in their somatic cells. How many chromosomes are in their gametes?

a)

28

b)

56

c)

112

d)

46

230.

What is another term for body cells?

a)

somatic cells

b)

gamete

c)

stem cell

d)

neural cell

231.

A version of a gene is called a(n)

a)

allele

b)

characteristic

c)

specific gene

d)

trait

232.

An organism’s genetic makeup; the pair of alleles for a trait is called a(n)

a)

dominant trait

b)

genotype

c)

phenotype

d)

recessive trait

233.

An organism’s physical expression of a trait is called a(n)

a)

dominant trait

b)

genotype

c)

phenotype

d)

recessive trait

234.

Which pair of alleles is an example of homozygous recessive?

a)

bb

b)

BB

c)

Bb

235.

Which pair of alleles is an example of homozygous dominant?

a)

tt

b)

TT

c)

Tt

236.

In a pedigree, which shape represents a male?

a)

circle

b)

square

237.

Which gender has an X and a Y chromosome?

a)

male

b)

female

238.

How many individuals are there in the 3rd generation?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

239.

On this pedigree, the allele for curly hair is dominant. The couple labeled 2 both have curly hair, but have a daughter who does not have curly hair. Therefore, we can tell from the chart that for the couple labeled 2 -

a)

the male is heterozygous and the female is heterozygous.

b)

the male is homozygous recessive and the female is homozygous dominant.

240.
What is the phenotype of the offspring? (A-Brown hair; a-blond hair) 
a)
50 % Brown Hair and 50% Blond Hair 
b)
25 % Brown Hair and 75% Blond Hair 
c)
75 % Brown Hair and 25% Blond Hair 
d)
0% Brown Hair and 100% Blond Hair 
241.

Look at the punnett square. What is the probability that the offspring would have homozygous alleles for the trait?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

e)

0%

242.

Fill in the Yellow Box

a)

Bb

b)

BB

c)

bb

243.
A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.  What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
244.
This type of inheritance pattern shows BOTH traits in possible offspring
a)
complete dominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
co-dominance
d)
dominant pattern
245.
this image is an example of
a)
codominance
b)
dominance
c)
incomplete dominance
246.

characteristic, such as red-green color blindness, controlled by genes on the X chromosome; also called an X-linked trait.

a)

sex-linked trait

b)

pedigree

c)

polygenic trait

d)

carrier

247.
In humans, hemophilia is an X-linked recessive trait. If a man and a woman have a son who is affected with hemophilia, which of the following is definitely true?
a)
The mother carries an allele for hemophilia
b)
The father carries an allele for hemophilia
c)
The father is afflicted with hemophilia
d)
both parents carry an allele for hemophilia
248.

Which blood-type is co-dominant, where both alleles are expressed in the phenotype

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type AB

d)

Type O

249.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a female who is a carrier for hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHXH
d)
XhY
250.

What is the gender of this person?

a)

Male

b)

Female

251.
Occurs when a person has an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.

a)
Down syndrome
b)
Huntington's disease
c)
Parkinson's disease
d)
Zika syndrome
252.

The karyotype diagram below represents a human male. The chromosomal analysis of this karyotype reveals that the abnormality in this karyotype is:

a)

a missing X chromosome

b)

a missing Y chromosome

c)

an extra 21st chromosome

d)

missing chromosome #9

253.

What is the gender of this person?

a)

Male

b)

Female

254.

When looking at the chromosomes, how can you tell that this person is biologically female?

a)

Because there are two X chromosomes

b)

Because there are more chromosomes than in a man

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