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WorksheetsGenetics Final Review
Total questions: 114
Worksheet time: 57mins
Induced mutations
result from exposure to mutagens, physical and chemical agents that cause changes in DNA (ionizing irradiation, ultraviolet light, certain chemicals)
occur without a known cause due to inherent metabolic errors, errors during DNA replication or unknown agents in the environment.
Spontaneous mutations
result from exposure to mutagens, physical and chemical agents that cause changes in DNA (ionizing irradiation, ultraviolet light, certain chemicals)
occur without a known cause due to inherent metabolic errors, errors during DNA replication or unknown agents in the environment.
Somatic mutations
in somatic cells; the mutant phenotype will occur only in the descendants of that cell and will not be transmitted to the offspring (cause of many cancers in humans)
in germ-line cells; will be transmitted through the gametes to the progeny
Germinal mutations
in somatic cells; the mutant phenotype will occur only in the descendants of that cell and will not be transmitted to the offspring (cause of many cancers in humans)
in germ-line cells; will be transmitted through the gametes to the progeny
Point mutations
changes at specific sites in a gene (caused through substitution, insertion, or deletion)
insertions or deletions of one or two base pairs alter the reading fram of the gene distal to the site of mutation.
Frameshift mutations
changes at specific sites in a gene (caused through substitution, insertion, or deletion)
insertions or deletions of one or two base pairs alter the reading fram of the gene distal to the site of mutation.
What causes mutations?
errors in DNA replication or from the damaging effects of mutagens, such as chemicals and radiation
Chemicals that are mutagenic to both replicating and nonreplicating DNA (e.g., alkylating agents and nitrous acid); Chemicals that are mutagenic only to replicating DNA (e.g., base analogs and acridine dyes)
Types of chemical mutagens
errors in DNA replication or from the damaging effects of mutagens, such as chemicals and radiation
Chemicals that are mutagenic to both replicating and nonreplicating DNA (e.g., alkylating agents and nitrous acid); Chemicals that are mutagenic only to replicating DNA (e.g., base analogs and acridine dyes)
What do all amino acids have in common?
the same basic structure; each molecule has a central carbon atom linked together with a basic amino group, a carboxylic acid group, a hydrogen atom and an R-group, or side-chain group
long chain of amino acids
What is a polypeptide?
the same basic structure; each molecule has a central carbon atom linked together with a basic amino group, a carboxylic acid group, a hydrogen atom and an R-group, or side-chain group
long chain of amino acids
What determines the structure and function of a protein?
the function is determined through the structure; structure of a protein is determined through the sequence of amino acids in the primary structure
composed of nucleotide triplets; contains start and stop codons; nonoverlapping; degenerate (redundant); not ambiguous; nearly universal
Why did people favor amino acids/proteins over nucleotide bases/DNA as the carrier of information?
their structural diversity and complexity derived from their composition of 20 different amino acids, as opposed to DNA's 4 nucleotide bases
set of three nucleotides (codons) that have the instructions to make a specific amino acid (or to start or stop the making of the polypeptide chain)
What is meant with ‘triplet code’?
their structural diversity and complexity derived from their composition of 20 different amino acids, as opposed to DNA's 4 nucleotide bases
set of three nucleotides (codons) that have the instructions to make a specific amino acid (or to start or stop the making of the polypeptide chain)
What is a reading frame?
The beginning of the coding sequence
means all events before the formation of a peptide bond between the first two amino acids
What is initiation?
The beginning of the coding sequence
means all events before the formation of a peptide bond between the first two amino acids
What is termination?
occurs when a chain-termination codon (stop codon) enters the A site of the ribosome; A water molecule is added to the carboxyl terminus of the nascent polypeptide
transcription and translation
What are the steps of protein synthesis?
occurs when a chain-termination codon (stop codon) enters the A site of the ribosome; A water molecule is added to the carboxyl terminus of the nascent polypeptide
transcription and translation
What are aminoacyl-tRNAs?
matches the right amino acid with the right tRNA (with the corresponding anti- codon); According to the genetic code, there are 64 different tRNA
Workbench: machines and tools to make a polypeptide; 50% protein, 50% RNA
What are ribosomes?
matches the right amino acid with the right tRNA (with the corresponding anti- codon); According to the genetic code, there are 64 different tRNA
Workbench: machines and tools to make a polypeptide; 50% protein, 50% RNA
How are bacterial and eukaryotic ribosomes different from each other?
In prokaryotes: ribosomes are distributed throughout the cell; In eukaryotes: in the cytoplasm and/or attached to endomembrane system
During initiation, the ribosomes attach at a specific site of the mRNA, The ribosome starts matching tRNA anticodon sequences to the mRNA codon sequence; during termination, ribosome continues until it hits a stop sequence, then it releases the polypeptide and the mRNA
How is protein synthesis initiated and terminated?
In prokaryotes: ribosomes are distributed throughout the cell; In eukaryotes: in the cytoplasm and/or attached to endomembrane system
During initiation, the ribosomes attach at a specific site of the mRNA, The ribosome starts matching tRNA anticodon sequences to the mRNA codon sequence; during termination, ribosome continues until it hits a stop sequence, then it releases the polypeptide and the mRNA
The purpose of meiosis is to:
produce diploid gametes
produce clonal cells
produce haploid gametes
produce a haploid zygote
divide the chromosome number by a third
Mendel proposed that each individual organism (i.e. pea plants) carried how many alleles, or copies of a gene?
1
2
3
4
5
The process that leads to development haploid gamete is best described as ________.
segregation
independent assortment
Mendelian inheritance
replication
dominance or recessiveness
Which if the following is not a source of genetic variation in meiosis?
crossing over
law of independent assortment
the random lining up of chromosomes on the metaphase plate
tetrad formation
polar body formation
The central point that connects the two rod-like portions of the chromosome is known as:
Centrosome
Centromere
Central element
Central spindle
Connecting element
At the end of meiosis, each of the four daughter cells, which will be involved in sexual reproduction, will exist in a _________ state.
Haploid
Diploid
Triploid
Polyploid
None of these
Prior to mitosis, each chromosome of an eukaryotic cell consists of a pair of identical structures called
chromatin.
sister chromosomes.
nucleoli.
sister chromatids.
Two chromosomes in a nucleus that carry genes controlling the same inherited characteristics are
homologous chromosomes.
heterologous chromosomes.
complementary chromosomes.
parallel chromosomes.
What is the final product of mitosis?
sperm and egg cells
two daughter cells identical to the parent cell
4 daughter cells identical to the parent
2 daughter cells not identical to the parent cell
3 brother cells
How many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes can be packaged in gametes made by an organism with a diploid number of 8 (2n = 8)?
2
4
8
16
32
Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. What does this suggest?
that the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits
that the trait shows incomplete dominance
that a blending of traits has occurred
that the parents were both heterozygous for a single trait
that each offspring has the same alleles for each of two traits
The principle of dominance states that:
In a heterozygote, one allele can never conceal the presence of another allele.
In a heterozygote, one allele may conceal the presence of another allele.
In a homozygote, one allele may never conceal the presence of another allele.
In a homozygote, one allele may conceal the presence of another allele.
None of these
According to Mendel's model, because of the ________ of chromosomes during meiosis, all possible combinations of gametes will be formed in equal frequency.
independent assortment
chromosomal theory of inheritance
law of unit factors
the product rule
law of segregation
In the cross AaBbCc × AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype AABBCC?
1/4
1/8
1/16
1/32
1/64
Which of the following calculations require that you utilize the addition rule (sum rule)?
Calculate the probability of black offspring from the cross AaBb × AaBb, when B is the symbol for black.
Calculate the probability of children with both cystic fibrosis and polydactyly when parents are each heterozygous for both genes.
Calculate the probability of each of four children having cystic fibrosis if the parents are both heterozygous.
Calculate the probability of a child having either sickle-cell anemia or cystic fibrosis if parents are each heterozygous for both
Bob and Sue are both heterozygote for the recessive allele which causes cystic fibrosis. Their first child is homozygote recessive and therefore shows the affected phenotype. The couple seeks the help of a genetic counselor on future family planning. They would like to know what their chances are for having an unaffected second child, especially considering that they already have one affected child. The genetic counselor will tell them....
The chances for having a second child with the disorder are increased because of the first child having the disorder
The chances for having a second child with the disorder are decreased because of the first child having the disorder
The condition of the first child has no influence on the chances for having a second affected
child, because each birth is an independent event.
An organism that inherits two different alleles for a single trait, one from its mother and one from its father is known as a(n):
Homozygote
Homo sapiens
Heterozygote
Allelic variation
Blended individual
The house fly, Musca domestica, has a haploid chromosome number of 6. How many chromatids should be present in a diploid, somatic, metaphase cell?
3
6
12
18
24
Which of the following is true about the second meiotic division?
Sister chromatids are pulling apart.
Homologous chromosomes are pulling apart.
Nondisjunction would lead to extra bivalents forming.
Synapsis occurring in the second meiotic division.
The products are four identical gametes.
The definition of a dominant allele is:
an allele that is the most common in a given population individuals with dominant personalities
the latent allele in a heterozygous individual
the expressed factor in the heterozygote
the allele that causes disease
both c and d
Which of the following is an example of codominance?
a certain plant can have jagged, rough, or smooth edges on its leaves
flowers of a certain plant can come in purple, blue, or yellow
a scorpion's venom is more potent when it's younger
there are many possible mutations that lead to white eyes in flies
in roan cattle, you can see a mix of both red and white furs
A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following is possible in a gamete from this organism?
tt
Hh
HhTt
T
HT
In tomatoes, red fruit color is dominant (Y) and yellow is recessive (y). A red-fruited plant, when crossed with a yellow-fruited plant, produces offspring about half of which are yellow- fruited and half of which are red-fruited. What are the genotypes of the parents?
YY and yy
Yy and yy
Yy and Yy
yy and yy
A mutation in a gene often results in a reduction of the product of that gene. The term for this type of mutation is ________.
codominance
incomplete dominance
gain of function
multiple allelism
loss of function or null (in the case of complete loss)
The trait of medium-sized leaves in iris is determined by the genetic condition PP′. Plants with large leaves are PP, whereas plants with small leaves are P′P′. A cross is made between two plants each with medium-sized leaves. What is the term for this allelic relationship?
incomplete dominance
codominance
multiple alleles
epistasis
positional effect
A ________ ratio indicates incomplete dominance.
1:1:1:1
1:2:1
9:7
3:1
2:2:2
Which of the following best describes the relationship at the molecular level between mutant alleles and phenotype?
a mutant allele will cause the wild-type protein not to be made.
a mutant allele can have different effects depending on the gene product's function.
The wild-type allele is always dominant.
Mutant alleles will only cause problems when seen in the homozygous form, no matter the gene affected.
A mutant allele will cause only one phenotype.
Albinism, lack of pigmentation in humans, results from an autosomal recessive gene. Two parents with normal pigmentation have an albino child. What is the probability that their next child will be albino? (In other words: What is the probability for the scenario of having two kids, both albino?)
1/4
1/3
1/2
3/4
1/16
A recessive allele in dogs causes white spots. If two solid colored dogs are mated and produce a spotted offspring, what is the percentage chance their next puppy would be solid colored?
25%
50%
about 66%
75%
about 90%
Mendel decides he wants to save some time and do one large experiment. He sets up a self-cross of a plant with the genotype Tt Rr Yy Pp Ii Gg Aa. How many squares would you need to make a Punnett square large enough to account for all of the potential offspring?
256
1024
16384
65536
In cats, there is a gene which causes additional toes. Cats which have this gene always have additional toes, but the number of additional toes varies. This is an example for
expressivity
penetrance
dominance
sex-linked inheritance
The presence of more than two alternative forms of a given gene would be called ________.
multiple alleles
alternation of generations
codominance
incomplete dominance
hemizygosity
The phenomenon of a gene which has multiple phenotypic effects on an individual is referred to as ________.
continuous variation
pleiotropy
expressivity
penetrance
epistasis
A trait exhibited in one sex but not the other is referred to as ________.
sex-influenced
sex-linked
sex-limited
genomic imprinting
90% of children that inherit a mutated retinoblastoma gene develop the disease. This represents an example of ________.
penetrance
expressivity
pleiotropy
a conditional mutation
genetic imprinting
Which of the following terms refers to a situation where a single phenotypic character (like skin color) is determined by the additive effects of two or more genes?
incomplete dominance
codominance
pleiotropy
polygenic inheritance
A ________ is one whose expression is influenced by some environmental condition.
X-linked allele
conditional mutant
positional effect
multiple allele
expressive allele
Which region(s) of the X chromosome can recombine during meiosis?
the pseudoautosomal regions
the heterochromain
the centromere
the male-specific region of the Y
SRY
Sex-linked conditions are more common in men than in women because
men acquire two copies of the defective gene during fertilization.
men need to inherit only one copy of the recessive allele for the condition to be fully expressed.
the sex chromosomes are more active in men than in women.
the genes associated with the sex-linked conditions are linked to the Y chromosome, which determines maleness.
In mammals, dosage compensation for X-linked genes is achieved by:
Hyperactivation of X-linked genes
Down regulation of X-linked genes
Inactivation of one X-chromosome during early development
All of these
None of these
An X chromosome that has been inactivated becomes a(an)___________ in female mammals.
Barr body
Oncogene
Bacteriophage
All of these
None of these
Among different species, sex may be determined by
differences in sex chromosomes
differences in the number of of sets of chromosomes
environmental factors
all of the above
A white-eyed Drosophila female (white/white) is crossed with a red-eyed male. Assuming the trait for eye color is sex-linked, what are the possible phenotypes of the progeny? (red eyes is the wildtype allele and dominant to white eyes).
All red-eyed individuals
Red- and white-eyed females and males
Red-eyed females and white-eyed males
Red- and white-eyed males and only-white eyed females
None of these
A color blind male marries a woman who has normal vision. The woman has no history of colorblindness in her family. What percentages of their sons are expected to be colorblind?
25%
50%
75%
100%
0%
Assume that a man who carries an X-linked gene has children. Assuming normal meiosis and random combination of gametes, the man would pass this gene to ________.
half of his daughters
all of his daughters
all of his sons
half of his sons
all of his children
Which of the following is the part of the Y chromosome that is critical for normal male development?
SRY
Pseudoautosomal region
Centromere
All of these
None of these
An individual with two kinds of gametes (i.e. X bearing and Y bearing) is referred to as:
Homogametic
Heterogametic
Heterozygous
None of these
All of these
Suppose you cross a female cat with orange fur and a male cat with black fur, giving you a litter of kittens that are heterozygous for fur coat color. Which of the following best describes the phenotypes you expect to observe in the offspring?
Male kittens will be orange and female kittens will be tortoiseshell.
Male kittens will be black, and female kittens will be orange.
Male and female kittens will all be tortoiseshell.
Male kittens will be black or orange, and female kittens will be tortoiseshell.
Male kittens will be tortoiseshell and female kittens will be orange or black.
Which of the following is required to unambiguously link a gene to a chromosome?
The gene must be defined by a mutant allele
The chromosome must be morphologically distinguishable
The pattern of gene transmission must reflect the chromosome's behavior during reproduction.
All of these
None of these
The centimorgan (cM) is a unit named in honor of Thomas Hunt Morgan. To what is it equal?
the physical distance between two linked genes
1% frequency of recombination between two genes
1 nanometer of distance between two genes
the distance between a pair of homologous chromosomes
the recombination frequency between two genes assorting independently
You conduct a dihybrid cross. A ________ ratio would make you suspect that the genes are linked.
3:1
1:1:1:1
12:1:1:4
9:3:3:1
A frequency of recombination that is less than 50% implies:
The genes are linked on the same chromosome
The genes are linked on different chromosomes
The genes are not linked and are on different chromosomes
The genes assort independently
The genes are not linked and are on the same chromosome
A ________ is all the genes on a single chromosome.
linkage group
recombination group
chromosomal conglomeration
genetic allele formation
gene loci line
What is a physical map of a chromosome?
description of the base pair difference between two loci
determination of where the centromere lies
determination of how far apart genes are by recombination mapping
Which of the following most accurately represents how “Hot Dog” Sturtevant created the first chromosome map?
He used a microscope to view the genes
He used a set of microcalipers to measure the distance between the genes on the chromosome
He used the data he retrieved from experimental crosses to determine the distance between the genes on the chromosome
All of these
None of these
Which of the following is a true statement?
Genes that are on the same chromosome should be inherited together
Genes that are on the same chromosome proceed through meiosis together
Genes that are on different chromosomes are not linked
All of these are true
None of these are true
Cytoplasmic or extranuclear inheritance occurs due to
chromosomes that have detached from the spindle apparatus during meiosis
genetic material that is found not in the nucleus but in chloroplasts and mitochondria
mutations that disrupt the integrity of the nuclear membrane
none of the above
In a three-point mapping experiment (means there are 3 linked genes under consideration), how many different genotypic classes are expected?
0
1
2
4
8
The genetic map distance between two loci is roughly equal to
The estimated number of crossovers that occur between two points
The recombination frequency written as a percentage
The non-recombination frequency written as a percentage
The number of parental phenoytpes seen in the progeny
None of these
In a three-point cross, the double crossover classes can be used to identify
the chi-square value
the nonrecombinant phenotype
gene distance
gene linkage
the gene in the middle
A pictorial chart of chromosomes arranged from largest to smallest is known as a(an):
Karyotype
Genetic analysis
Pedigree chart
Amniocentesis
Chorionic villus sample
Which of the following can cause a phenotypic change in an organism?
Too many chromosomes
Too few chromosomes
Changes in part of a chromosome
Too many chromosomes and too few chromosomes
All of these
Having a complete set or sets of chromosomes is called ________.
euploid
monoploid
ploidy
diploid
aneuploidy
The most common cause for trisomy events in human beings is:
Normal disjunction during meiosis
Non-disjunction during meiosis
Normal disjunction during oogenesis
Normal disjunction during spermatogenesis
None of these is a cause for trisomy
Why are many polyploids sterile?
Extra sets of chromosomes segregate irregularly in meiosis leading to aneuploidic gametes
Extra sets of chromosomes segregate regularly in meiosis leading to aneuploidic gametes
Extra sets of chromosomes segregate irregularly in mitosis leading to aneuploidic gametes
All of these
None of these
Although the most frequent forms of Down syndrome are caused by a random error, nondisjunction of chromosome 21, Down syndrome occasionally runs in families. The cause of this form of familial Down syndrome is ________.
an inversion involving chromosome 21
a chromosomal aberration involving chromosome 1
too many X chromosomes
a translocation between chromosome 21 and another chromosome
a maternal age effect
The chromosomal aberration that causes cri-du-chat syndrome can be referred to as a(n) ________.
duplication
inversion
reciprocal translocation
simple translocation
segmental deletion
What is explained by a major population genetics theory?
1. The number of individuals in a population
2. The allelic frequencies within a population
3. The number of individuals outside a population
1
2
3
1 and 2
All of these
Which of the following best expresses the concept of natural selection?
differential reproductive success based on inherited characteristics
inheritance of acquired characteristics
change in response to need
a process of constant improvement, leading eventually to perfection
A population is
a group of individuals of the same species that live in the same area and interbreed.
all individuals of a species, regardless of location or time period in which they live.
a group of individuals of different species living in the same place at the same time.
a group of individuals of a species plus all of the other species with which they interact.
Which of the following accurately describes the Hardy-Weinberg equation?
P2 + 2p +q2
P2 + 2pq + q3
P2+2pq+q2
P3 + 3pq+q3
The frequency of homozygous dominant individuals in a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is equal to
q or p
p2
2pq
2p
Which of the following terms represents the frequency of heterozygotes in a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
p
q
2pq
q2
The recessive allele of a gene causes cystic fibrosis. For this gene among Caucasians, frequency p (a) = 0.98. If a Caucasian population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with respect to this gene, what proportions of babies are born homozygous recessive, and therefore suffer from cystic fibrosis?
0.022 = 0.0004
0.02
0.982 = 0.9604
2(0.02 × 0.98) = 0.0392
Thirty people are selected for a long-term mission to colonize a planet many light years away from Earth. The mission is successful and the population rapidly grows to several hundred individuals. However, certain genetic diseases are unusually common in this group, and their gene pool is quite different from that of the Earth population they have left behind. Which of the following phenomena has left its mark on this population?
founder effect
bottleneck effect
high rates of mutation
natural selection
Imagine that you are studying a very large population of moths that is isolated from gene flow. A single gene controls wing color. Half of the moths have white-spotted wings (genotype WW or Ww) and half of the moths have plain brown wings (ww). There are no new mutations, individuals mate randomly, and there is no natural selection on wing color. How will p, the frequency of the dominant allele, change over time?
p will increase; the dominant allele will eventually take over and become most common in the population.
p will neither increase nor decrease; it will remain more or less constant under the conditions described.
p will decrease because of genetic drift
p will fluctuate rapidly and randomly because of genetic drift
What is a form of recombination in bacteria that involves the F plasmid?
conjugation
transduction
transformation
adaptation
fluctuation
When mapping genes in bacteria, which of the following is true about the interrupted mating technique?
Time of contact is not applicable to this protocol.
Donor will pass only beneficial genes to the recipient.
Genes will be passed from the centromere.
Genes are transferred from the donor to recipient in a linear fashion based upon time of contact.
The recipient bacterium will choose the best genes.
Bacteria that are in a particular physiological state to become transformed are called
episomal
resistant
temperate
competent
transformable
Which large organic molecules are essential chromosome components?
Lipids and proteins
Proteins and nucleic acids
Nucleic acids and polysaccharides
Proteins and polysaccharides
In Sia and Dawson's 1931 experiment,
Mice were required to demonstrate the transforming principle
Used serum to precipitate IIIS cells from a mixture of heat-killed IIIS and living IIR cells
They showed that the mouse hosts play no direct role in the transforming principle
Heat-killed IIR cells mixed with living IIIS cells gave rise to IIR colonies
None of these
Whose experiments provided direct evidence indicating that DNA, rather than RNA or protein, is the genetic material in bacteriophages?
Griffith
Avery, McLeod, and McCarty
Hershey and Chase
Watson and Crick
Sia and Dawson
What kind of data on DNA structure was gathered by Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins?
3D model
Base composition data
X-ray diffraction pattern data
All of these
None of these
Chromatin is defined as ________.
DNA complexed with protein
hybrid molecules of DNA and RNA
genetic material found only in mitochondria
a catalytic molecule with a protein component and an RNA component
supercoiled loops of bacterial DNA
The functions associated with telomeres are to:
Prevent ribonucleases from degrading the ends of linear RNA primer molecules
Allow the fusion of broken chromosomal ends
Facilitate replication of chromosomes without the loss of the chromosome’s arms tips
Ensure the appropriate segregation of chromosomes
Provide chromosomal anchorage to spindle-fibers
The basic structure of a nucleotide includes ________.
amino acids
tryptophan and leucine
base, sugar, and phosphate
mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA
phosphorus and sulfur
Meselson and Stahl are best known for demonstrating that:
DNA replication occurs in a conservative manner in E. coli
DNA replication occurs in a semi-conservative manner in E. coli
DNA replication occurs in a conservative manner in eukaryotes
DNA replication occurs in a semi-conservative manner in eukaryotes
None of these
Which of the following enzymes catalyzes DNA synthesis?
DNA ligase
DNA helicase
DNA polymerase
DNA gyrase
None of these
The activity of ________ would be quickly undone in the absence of single-stranded binding protein.
DNA polymerase I
DNA polymerase III
primase
DNA ligase
DNA helicase
What is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands of DNA molecules are synthesized?
The origins of replication occur only at the 5' end.
Helicases and single-strand binding proteins work at the 5' end.
DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides only to the 3' end of a growing strand.
DNA ligase works only in the 3' → 5' direction
Polymerase can work on only one strand at a time.
Explain the technique of electrophoretic separation of DNA fragments
A mixture of different sized DNA molecules are subjected to an electric field, and then to a magnetic field. The fragments migrate through a liquid matrix such that smaller fragments travel further in the matrix.
A mixture of different sized DNA molecules are subjected to an electric field, and then to a magnetic field. The fragments migrate through a semisolid matrix such that larger fragments travel further in the matrix.
A mixture of different sized DNA molecules are subjected to an electric field, and migrate through a semisolid matrix such that smaller fragments travel further in the matrix.
A mixture of different sized DNA molecules are subjected to an electric field, and migrate through a solid matrix such that larger fragments travel further in the matrix.
Which process transfers information from DNA to RNA?
Replication
Transcription
Translation
Splicing
None of these
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic RNA's differ in that:
rRNA molecules are only subunits of the prokaryotic ribosome
Eukaryotes have a pre-mRNA that requires splicing to create the functional transcript
Prokaryotes have non-coding sequences that are removed during RNA-transcript processing
Eukaryotes have simpler ribosomes, consisting of fewer subunits.
None of these
