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INTACC THEORIES

Total questions: 145

Worksheet time: 2hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The most common type of liability is

a)

One that comes into existence due to a loss contingency.

b)

One that must be estimated.

c)

One that comes into existence due to a gain contingency.

d)

One to be paid in cash and for which the amount and timing are known.

2.

Which is not a characteristic of a liability?

a)

It represents a transfer of an economic resource.

b)

It must be paid in cash.

c)

It arises from present obligation to other entity.

d)

It results from past event.

3.

Classifying liabilities as either current or noncurrent helps creditors assess

a)

Profitability

b)

The relative risk of an entity's liabilities

c)

The degree of an entity's liabilities

d)

The amount of an entity's liabilities

4.

Short-term obligations are reported as noncurrent if

a)

The entity has a long-term line of credit.

b)

The entity has tentative plan to issue long-term bonds payable.

c)

The entity has the right at the end of reporting period to defer settlement of liability for at least twelve months after the end of reporting period.

d)

The entity has the ability to refinance on a long-term basis.

5.

Which situation would not require a noncurrent liability to be reported as current?

a)

The long-term debit is callable by the creditor.

b)

The creditor has the right to demand payment due to a contractual violation.

c)

The long-term debt matures within the upcoming year.

d)

All of these require the current classification.

6.

Which of the following represents a liability?

a)

The obligation to pay for goods that an entity expects to order from suppliers next year.

b)

The obligation to provide goods that customers have ordered and paid for during the current year.

c)

The obligation to pay interest on a five-year note that was issued the last day of the year.

d)

The obligation to distribute an entity's own shares.

7.

Which does not meet the definition of a liability?

a)

The signing of an employment contract at fixed salary.

b)

An obligation to provide goods or services in the future.

c)

A note payable with no specified maturity date.

d)

An obligation that is estimated in amount.

8.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a current liability but not a noncurrent liability?

a)

Unavoidable obligation

b)

Present obligation to transfer of an economic resource.

c)

Settlement is expected within the normal operating cycle or within 12 months, whichever is longer.

d)

The obligating event has already occurred.

9.

Which is not a characteristic of a liability?

a)

Present obligation

b)

Arises from past event

c)

Results in a transfer of economic resource

d)

Liquidation is reasonably expected to require use of current asset.

10.

Which of the following is not an acceptable presentation of current liabilities?

a)

Listing current liabilities in the order of maturity.

b)

Listing current liabilities according to amount.

c)

Offsetting current liabilities against current assets.

d)

Showing current liabilities in the order of liquidation.

11.

Among the short-term obligations at year-end are 90-day notes, renewable for another 90-day period. What is the classification of the notes payable?

a)

Current liabilities

b)

Deferred credits

c)

Noncurrent liabilities

d)

Intermediate debt

12.

At year-end, an entity has 120-day note payable outstanding. The entity has followed the policy of replacing the note rather than repaying it over the last three years. The entity's treasurer says that this policy is expect to continue indefinitely, and the arrangement is acceptable to the bank to which the note was issued. What is the proper classification of the note in the year-end statement of financial position?

a)

Dependent on the intention of management

b)

Dependent on the actual liability to refinance

c)

Current liability, unless specific refinancing criteria are met

d)

Noncurrent liability

13.

An entity had a note payable due next year. After the end of reporting period and before the issuance of the current year financial statements, the entity issued long-term bonds payable. Proceeds from the bonds were used to repay the note when due. How should the entity classify the note payable at current year-end?

a)

Current liability with separate disclosure of the note refinancing

b)

Current liability with no disclosure required

c)

Noncurrent liability with separate disclosure of the note refinancing

d)

Noncurrent liability with no separate disclosure required

14.

An entity has a loan due for repayment in six months time but the entity had the right to defer settlement for two years later. In which section of the statement of financial position should this loan be presented?

a)

Current liability

b)

Current asset

c)

Noncurrent liability

d)

Noncurrent asset

15.

At year-end, an entity classified a note payable as current liability. Under what condition could the entity reclassify the note payable from current to noncurrent?

a)

If the entity had the intent and ability to reclassify the note before the end of reporting period.

b)

If the entity had executed an agreement to refinance the note before issuance of the financial statements.

c)

If the entity had the intent and ability to reclassify the note before the issuance of the financial statements.

d)

If the entity had executed an agreement to refinance the note before the end of reporting period.

16.

The most relevant measurement of liabilities at initial recognition should always reflect

a)

The expectation of the management

b)

Historical cost

c)

The credit standing of the entity

d)

The single most likely minimum possible amount

17.

Which statement best describes the term liability

a)

An excess of equity over current assets

b)

Resources to meet financial commitments when due

c)

The residual interest in the assets of the entity

d)

A present obligation arising from past event

18.

What is the relationship between present value and liability?

a)

Present value is used to measure certain liabilities.

b)

Present value is not used to measure liabilities.

c)

Present value is used to measure all liabilities.

d)

Present value is used to measure current liabilities.

19.

If a long-term debt becomes callable due to the violation of a loan covenant

a)

The debt may continue to be classified as noncurrent.

b)

The debt should be reclassified as current.

c)

Cash must be reserved to pay the debt.

d)

Retained earnings must be restricted.

20.

What is the classification of debt callable by the creditor?

a)

Noncurrent liability

b)

Current liability

c)

Current liability if the creditor intends to call the debt within one year

d)

Current liability if it is probable that the creditor will call the debt within one year

21.

A department store received cash and issued a gift certificate redeemable in merchandise. When the gift certificate was issued

a)

Deferred revenue account should be decreased

b)

Deferred revenue account should be increased

c)

Revenue account should be decreased

d)

Revenue account should be increased

22.

All else equal, a large increase in unearned revenue in the current period would be expected to produce what effect on revenue in a future period?

a)

Large increase in future revenue because unearned revenue becomes revenue when earned.

b)

Large decrease in future revenue because unearned revenue implies that less revenue has been earned which reduces future revenue.

c)

No effect.

d)

Large decrease in future revenue because unearned revenue indicates collection problems that will reduce net revenue in future period.

23.

An entity received an advance payment for special order goods that are to be manufactured and delivered within six months. How should the advance payment be reported?

a)

Deferred charge

b)

Contra asset account

c)

Current liability

d)

Noncurrent liability

24.

At year-end, an entity sold refundable merchandise coupons. The entity received a certain amount for each coupon redeemable next year for merchandise with a certain retail price. At year-end, how should the entity report these coupon transactions?

a)

Unearned revenue at the merchandise's retail price

b)

Unearned revenue at the cash received

c)

Revenue at the merchandise's price

d)

Revenue at the cash received.

25.

How would the proceeds received from the advance sale of nonrefundable tickets for a theatrical performance be reported in the statement of financial position before the performance?

a)

Revenue for the entire proceeds

b)

Revenue to the extent of related costs expanded

c)

Unearned revenue to the extent of related costs expanded

d)

Unearned revenue for the entire proceeds

26.

Magazine subscriptions collected in advance should be accounted for as

a)

A contra account to magazine subscriptions receivable

b)

Deferred revenue in the liability section

c)

Deferred revenue in the shareholders' equity section

d)

Magazine subscription revenue in the income statement in the period collected

27.

Under a royalty agreement with another entity, an entity will receive royalties from the assignment of a patent for four years. The royalties received in advance should be reported as revenue

a)

In the period received

b)

In the period earned

c)

Evenly over the life of the royalty agreement

d)

At the date of the royalty agreement

28.

An entity is a retailer of home appliances and offers a service contract on each appliance sold. Collections received for service contracts should be recorded as an increase in a

a)

Deferred revenue account

b)

Sales contracts receivable valuation account

c)

Shareholders' equity valuation account

d)

Service revenue account

29.

An entity sells machines that include a three-year warranty. Service calls under the warranty are performed by an independent mechanic under a contract with the entity. Based on experience, warranty costs are expected to be incurred for each machine sold. When should the entity recognize the warranty costs?

a)

Evenly over the life of the warranty

b)

When the service calls are performed

c)

When payments are made to the mechanic

d)

When the machines are sold

30.

At the end of the current year, an entity received an advance payment of 60% of the sales price for special order goods to be manufactured and delivered within five months. At the same time, the entity subcontracted for production of the special order goods at a price equal to 40% of the main contract price. What liabilities should be reported in the year-end statement of financial position?

a)

None

b)

Deferred revenue equal to 60% of the main contract price and payable to subcontractor equal to 40% of the main contract price

c)

Deferred revenue equal to 60% of the main contract price and no payable to subcontractor

d)

No deferred revenue but payable to subcontractor is reported at 40% of the main contract price

31.

The cost of customer premium offer should be charged to expense

a)

When the related product is sold.

b)

When the premium offer expires.

c)

Over the life cycle of the product.

d)

When the premium is claimed.

32.

The accounting concept that requires recognition of a liability for customer premium offer is

a)

Time period

b)

Prudence

c)

Historical cost

d)

Matching principle

33.

Accounting for cost of incentive program for frequent customer purchases involves

a)

Recording an expense and a liability each period.

b)

Recording a liability and a reduction of revenue.

c)

Recording an expense and an asset reduction.

d)

Recording an expense and revenue each period.

34.

Accounting for cost of customer incentive program

a)

Requires probability estimation.

b)

Follows the matching principle.

c)

Is a loss contingency situation.

d)

All of these are correct.

35.

Providing a monetary rebate program

a)

Is accounted for similarly to a premium offer

b)

Creates an expense for the seller in the period of sale.

c)

Creates a liability for the seller at the time of sale.

d)

Is normally not recognized.

36.

The accrual approach in accounting for warranty

a)

Is required for income tax reporting.

b)

Is frequently justified on the basis of expediency.

c)

Finds the expense account being charged when the seller performs in compliance with the warranty.

d)

Should be used whenever the warranty is an integral and inseparable part of the sale.

37.

Which of the following best describes the accrual approach of accounting for warranty cost?

a)

Expensed when paid

b)

Expensed when warranty claims are certain

c)

Expensed based on estimate in year of sale

d)

Expensed when incurred

38.

Which of the following best describes the expense as incurred approach of accounting for warranty cost

a)

Expensed based on estimate in year of sale

b)

Expensed when liability is accrued

c)

Expensed when warranty claims are certain

d)

Expensed when incurred

39.

What is the classification of the estimated warranty liability in a three-year warranty?

a)

Noncurrent

b)

Current

c)

Partly current and partly noncurrent

d)

No need for disclosure

40.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the accrual of warranty but not the sale of warranty?

a)

Warranty liability

b)

Warranty expense

c)

Unearned warranty revenue

d)

Warranty revenue

41.

What is the accounting for the transaction price of a contract of sale with customer coupons for free product, discount or rebate?

a)

Entirely as product sales revenue

b)

Allocated to customer options equal to stand-alone selling and the balance to product sales

c)

Allocated between product sales revenue and coupons based on stand-alone selling price

d)

Entirely as coupon revenue

42.

What is the stand-alone selling price of free product coupons?

a)

Nothing

b)

Fair value less cost of disposal

c)

Selling price of free product

d)

Selling price of free product adjusted for expected redemption

43.

What is the stand-alone selling price of discount coupons?

a)

Discount on customer purchases during the year

b)

Discount on costumer future purchases

c)

Discount on customer purchases during the year adjusted by expected redemption

d)

Discount on customer future purchases adjusted by expected redemption

44.

What is the stand-alone selling price of rebate coupons?

a)

Discount on products sold during the current year

b)

Discount on products sold during the current year adjusted by expected redemption

c)

Cost of products sold

d)

Fair value of rebate coupons

45.

The nonredemption of gift certificates is called

a)

Breakage

b)

Forfeiture

c)

Rebate

d)

Waiver

46.

Advance payments from customers represent

a)

Liabilities until the product is provided.

b)

A component of shareholder's equity.

c)

Assets until the product is provided.

d)

Revenue upon receipt of advance payment.

47.

An entity sells appliances that include a three-year warranty. Service calls under warranty are performed by an independent mechanic under a contract with the entity. Based on experience, warranty costs are expected to be incurred for each machine sold. When should the entity recognize these warranty costs?

a)

Evenly over the life of the warranty

b)

When the service calls are performed

c)

When payments are made to the mechanic

d)

When the machines are sold

48.

Which is the correct definition of a provision?

a)

A possible obligation arising from past event

b)

A liability of uncertain timing or amount

c)

A liability which cannot be easily measured

d)

An obligation to transfer funds to an entity

49.

A provision shall be recognized as liability when

a)

An entity has a present obligation as a result of past event.

b)

It is probable that an outflow of resources embodying economic benefits will be required to settle the obligation.

c)

The amount of the obligation can be measured reliably.

d)

All of these are required for the recognition of a provision as liability.

50.

A legal obligation is an obligation that is derived from all of the following, except

a)

Legislation

b)

A contract

c)

Other operation of law

d)

An established pattern of past practice

51.

An entity has an established pattern of practice or stated policy that has created valid expectation that it will accept certain responsibilities.

a)

Constructive obligation

b)

Legal obligation

c)

Onerous obligation

d)

Present obligation

52.

It is an event that creates a legal or constructive obligation because the entity has no other realistic alternative but to settle obligation.

a)

Obligating event

b)

Past event

c)

Subsequent event

d)

Current event

53.

An outflow of resources embodying economic benefits is regarded as "probable" when

a)

The probability that the event will occur is greater than the probability that the event will not occur.

b)

The probability that the event will not occur is greater than the probability that the event will occur.

c)

The probability that the event will occur is the same as the probability that the event will not occur.

d)

The probability that the event will occur is 90% likely.

54.

Where range of possible outcomes, and each point in that range is as likely as any other, the range to be used is

a)

Minimum

b)

Maximum

c)

Midpoint

d)

Sum of the minimum and maximum

55.

When the provision involves a large population of items, the estimate of the amount

a)

Reflects the weighting of all possible outcomes by their associated probabilities.

b)

Is determined as the individual most likely outcome.

c)

May be the individual most likely outcome adjusted for the effect of other possible outcomes.

d)

Midpoint if the possible outcomes.

56.

When the provision arises from a single obligation, the estimate of the amount

a)

Reflects the weighting of all possible outcomes.

b)

Is determined as the individual most likely outcome.

c)

Is the individual most likely outcome adjusted for the effect of other possible outcomes.

d)

Midpoint of the possible outcomes.

57.

The present value in a range of possible outcomes all discounted using the same rate would be

a)

The most-likely outcome

b)

The maximum outcome

c)

The minimum outcome

d)

The sum of probability-weighted present value

58.

For which of the following should a provision be recognized?

a)

Future operating losses

b)

Obligations under insurance contracts

c)

Reductions in fair value of financial instruments

d)

Obligations for plant decommissioning costs

59.

Provisions shall be recognized for all of the following, except

a)

Cleaning-up costs of contaminated land when an oil entity has a published policy that it will undertake to clean up all contamination that it causes.

b)

Restructuring costs after a binding sale agreement has been signed.

c)

Rectification costs relating to defective products sold.

d)

Future refurbishment costs due to introduction of a new computer system.

60.

An entity is closing one of its operating divisions, and the conditions for making restructuring provision have been met. The closure will happen in the first quarter of the next financial year.

At the current year-end, the entity has announced the formal plan publicly and is calculating the restructuring provision.

Which of the following costs should be included in the restructuring provision?

a)

Retraining staff continuing to be employed

b)

Relocation costs relating to staff moving to other divisions

c)

Contractually required costs of retiring staff being made redundant from the division being closed

d)

Future operating losses of the division being closed up to the date of closure

61.

An entity operates chemical plants. The published policies include a commitment to making good any damage caused to the environment by the operations. The entity has always honored this commitment. Which of the following scenarios would give rise to an environmental provision?

a)

On past experience it is likely that a chemical spill which would result in having to pay fines and penalties will occur in the next year.

b)

Recent research suggests there is a possibility that the entity's actions may damage surrounding wildlife.

c)

The government has outlined plans for a new law requiring all environmental damage to be rectified.

d)

A chemical spill from one of the entity's plants has caused harm to the surrounding area and wildlife.

62.

An entity has been served a legal notice at year-end by the Department of Environment and Natural Resources to fit smoke detectors in its factory on or before middle of next year. The cost of fitting smoke detector can be measured reliably. How should the entity treat this in the financial statements at year-end?

a)

Recognize a provision for the current year equal to the estimated amount.

b)

Recognize a provision for the current year equal to one-half only of the estimated amount.

c)

No provision is recognized at year-end because there is no present obligation for the future expenditure since the entity can avoid the future expenditure by changing the method of operations but disclosure is required.

d)

Ignore the event.

63.

Contingent liabilities will or will not become actual liabilities depending on

a)

Whether probable and measurable.

b)

The degree of uncertainty.

c)

The present condition suggesting a liability.

d)

The outcome of a future event.

64.

A contingent liability shall be recognized when

a)

Any lawsuit is actually filed against an entity.

b)

It is certain that funds are available to pay the amount of the claim.

c)

It is probable that a liability has been incurred but the amount cannot be reliably measured.

d)

The amount of the loss can be reliably measured and it is probable prior to issuance of financial statements that a liability has been incurred.

65.

How should a contingent liability be reported in the financial statements when it is reasonably possible?

a)

As a deferred liability

b)

As an accrued liability

c)

As a disclosure only

d)

As an account payable

66.

Disclosure usually is not required for

a)

Contingent gain that is probable and measurable.

b)

Contingent loss that is possible and measurable.

c)

Contingent loss that is probable and cannot be reliably measured.

d)

Contingent loss that is remote and measurable.

67.

Reporting in the financial statements is required for

a)

Loss contingency that is probable and measurable.

b)

Gain contingency that is probable and measurable.

c)

Loss contingency that is possible and measurable.

d)

All loss contingencies

68.

A contingent liability

a)

Definitely exists as a liability but the amount and due date are indeterminable.

b)

Is accrued even though not reasonably estimated.

c)

Is the result of a loss contingency.

d)

Is not recognized in the financial statements.

69.

A contingent liability is

a)

An estimated liability.

b)

An event which is not recognized because it is not probable that an outflow will be required or the amount cannot be reliably estimated.

c)

A potential large liability.

d)

A potential small liability.

70.

An entity received notification of legal action. How should the probable and measurable loss be reported?

a)

As a loss recorded in other comprehensive income

b)

As a loss in the income statement and a contingent liability

c)

As a loss in the income statement and a provision

d)

In the notes to financial statements

71.

A contingent liability

a)

Has a most probable value of zero but may require a payment if a given future event occurs.

b)

Definitely exists as a liability.

c)

Is reported as current liability.

d)

Is not disclosed in the financial statements.

72.

Which of the following is not considered when evaluating whether or not record a liability for pending litigation?

a)

Time period of the underlying cause of action

b)

The type of litigation involved

c)

The probability of an unfavorable outcome

d)

The ability to make a reliable estimate of the loss

73.

Contingent asset is usually recognized when

a)

Realized

b)

Occurrence is reasonably possible and the amount can be reliably measured

c)

Occurrence is probable and measurable

d)

The amount can be reliably measured

74.

Which is the proper treatment of contingent asset?

a)

An accrued account

b)

Deferred income

c)

An account receivable

d)

A disclosure only

75.

Gain contingency that is remote and measurable

a)

Must be disclosed in a note to financial statements.

b)

May be disclosed in a note to financial statements.

c)

Must be reported in the body of the financial statements.

d)

Should not be reported or disclosed.

76.

Which is the proper way to report contingent asset, receipt of which is virtually certain?

a)

As an asset

b)

As unearned revenue

c)

As a disclosure only

d)

No disclosure and no accrual

77.

What is the proper treatment of a patent infringement case of the plaintiff with probable favorable outcome and a measurable settlement?

a)

No reporting is required at this time

b)

Disclosure

c)

A gain for the minimum settlement

d)

A gain for the probable settlement

78.

An entity did not record an accrual for a present obligation but disclose the nature of the obligation and the range of the loss. How likely is the loss?

a)

Remote

b)

Reasonably possible

c)

Probable

d)

Certain

79.

The likelihood that the future event will or will not occur can be expressed by a range of outcome. Which range means that the future event occurring is very slight?

a)

Probable

b)

Reasonably possible

c)

Certain

d)

Remote

80.

An expropriation of asset which is imminent and for which the loss can be reasonably estimated should be

a)

Accrued

b)

Disclosed

c)

Accrued and disclosed

d)

Ignored

81.

A present obligation that is probable and for which the amount can be reliably estimated should

a)

Not be accrued but disclosed.

b)

Be accrued by debiting retained earnings and crediting a liability.

c)

Be accrued by debiting an expense and crediting retained earnings.

d)

Be accrued by debiting an expense and crediting a liability.

82.

General or unspecified contingencies should

a)

Be accrued in the financial statements and disclosed.

b)

Not be accrued and need not be disclosed.

c)

Not be accrued but should be disclosed.

d)

Be accrued but need not be disclosed.

83.

Most corporate bonds are

a)

Mortgage bonds

b)

Debenture bonds

c)

Secured bonds

d)

Collateral bonds

84.

The method used to pay interest depends on whether the bonds are

a)

Registered or coupon

b)

Mortgaged or unmortgaged

c)

Indebentured or debentured

d)

Callable or redeemable

85.

Zero-coupon bonds

a)

Offer a return in the form of a deep discount off the face amount

b)

Result in zero interest expense for the issuer

c)

Result in zero interest revenue for the investor

d)

Are reported as shareholders' equity by the issuer.

86.

Bonds payable should be reported as noncurrent at

a)

Face amount less any unamortized discount or plus any unamortized premium

b)

Current market price

c)

Face amount less any unamortized premium or plus any unamortized discount

d)

Face amount less accrued interest since the last interest payment dates

87.

In the amortization of discount on bonds payable

a)

The interest expense is less with each successive interest payment

b)

The total effective interest is equal to the amount of the discount plus the total cash interest paid

c)

The carrying amount of the bonds payable declines eventually to face amount

d)

The reduction in the discount in less with each successive interest payment

88.

Bonds payable not designated at fair value through profit loss shall be measured initially at

a)

Fair value

b)

Fair value plus bond issue cost

c)

Fair value minus bond issue cost

d)

Face amount

89.

The amortized cost of bonds payable means

a)

Face amount plus premium on bonds payable

b)

Face amount minus discount on bonds payable

c)

Face amount minus bond issue cost

d)

Face amount plus premium on bonds payable or minus discount on bonds payable

90.

Which statement is true about the fair value option for measuring bonds payable?

a)

The effective interest method of amortization must be used to calculate interest expense.

b)

Discount or premium is disclosed in the notes to the financial statements.

c)

The fair value of the bond and the principal obligation value must be disclosed.

d)

If the fair value option is elected, it must be applied to all bonds.

91.

An entity has bonds outstanding on which the market rate of interest has risen. The entity elected the fair value option. What will the entity report for the year?

a)

Interest expense and a gain

b)

Interest expense and a loss

c)

A gain and no interest expense

d)

A loss and no interest expense

92.

To evaluate the risk and quality of an individual bond issue, investors rely heavily on

a)

Bond ratings provided by investment houses

b)

Newspaper articles

c)

Bond interest payments

d)

The audit report

93.

Bonds that mature on a singe date are called

a)

Term bonds

b)

Serial bonds

c)

Callable bonds

d)

Convertible bonds

94.

Bonds issued with scheduled maturities at various dates are called

a)

Convertible bonds

b)

Terms bonds

c)

Serial bonds

d)

Callable bonds

95.

Debentures are

a)

Unsecured bonds

b)

Secured bonds

c)

Ordinary bonds

d)

Serial bonds

96.

How would the amortization of premium on bonds payable affect the carrying amount of bonds payable and net income, respectively?

a)

Increase and Decrease

b)

Increase and Increase

c)

Decrease and Decrease

d)

Decrease and Increase

97.

How would the amortization of discount on bonds payable affect the carrying amount of bonds payable and net income, respectively?

a)

Increase and Decrease

b)

Increase and Increase

c)

Decrease and Decrease

d)

Decrease and Increase

98.

Unamortized bond discount should be reported as

a)

Direct deduction from the face amount of the bond

b)

Direct deduction from the present value of the bond

c)

Deferred charge

d)

Part of the bond issue cost

99.

When the interest payment dates of a bond are May 1 and November 1, and a bond issue is sold on June 1, the amount of cash received by the issuer will be

a)

Decreased by accrued interest from June 1 to November 1

b)

Decreased by accrued interest from May 1 to June 1

c)

Increased by accrued interest from June 1 to November 1

d)

Increased by accrued interest from May 1 to June 1

100.

The issuer of bond sold at face amount with interest payable February 1 and August 1 should report

a)

Liability for accrued interest

b)

An addition to bonds payable

c)

Increase in deferred charge

d)

Contingent liability

101.

A bond issued on June 1 has interest payment dates of April 1 and October 1. Bond interest expense for the current year ended December 31 is for a period of

a)

Three months

b)

Four months

c)

Six months

d)

Seven months

102.

A bond was issued at a discount with a call provision. When the bond issuer exercised the call provision on an interest date, the amount of bond liability derecognized should have equaled the

a)

Call price

b)

Call price less unamortized discount

c)

Face amount less unamortized discount

d)

Face amount plus unamortized discount

103.

When bonds are sold between interest dates, any accrued interest is credited to

a)

Interest payable

b)

Interest revenue

c)

Interest receivable

d)

Bonds payable

104.

Which statement is true about accrued interest on bonds sold between interest dates?

a)

The accrued interest is computed at the effective rate.

b)

The accrued interest will be paid to the seller when the bonds mature.

c)

The accrued interest is extra income to the buyer.

d)

All of the statements are not true.

105.

Which statement is true about a premium on bonds payable?

a)

The premium on bonds payable is a contra shareholders equity account.

b)

The premium on bonds payable is an account that appears only on the books of the investor.

c)

The premium on bonds payable increases when amortization entries are made until maturity date.

d)

The premium on bonds payable decreases when amortization entries are made until the balance reaches zero at maturity date.

106.

The amortization of discount on bonds payable

a)

Decreases the face amount of bonds payable.

b)

Decreases the amount of interest expense.

c)

Decreases the carrying amount of bonds payable.

d)

Increases the carrying amount of bonds payable.

107.

The carrying amount of a bond liability is

a)

Call price of the bond plus bond discount or minus bond premium.

b)

Face amount of the bond plus related premium or minus related discount.

c)

Face amount of the bond plus related discount or minus related premium.

d)

Maturity value of the bond plus related discount or minus related premium.

108.

The proceeds from the issue of the bonds payable

a)

Will always be equal to the face amount.

b)

Will always be less than the face amount.

c)

Will always be more than the face amount.

d)

May be equal, more or less than the face amount depending on market interest rate.

109.

An extinguishment of bonds payable originally issued at a premium is made by purchase of the bonds between interest dates. Which statement is true at the time of extinguishment?

a)

Any costs of issuing the bonds payable must be amortized up to the purchase date.

b)

The premium on bonds payable must be amortized up to the purchase date.

c)

Interest mut be accrued from the last interest date to the purchase date.

d)

All of these statements are true.

110.

When bonds are retired prior to maturity with proceeds from a new bond issue, any gain or loss from the early extinguishment should be

a)

Amortized over the remaining original life of the retired bond issue.

b)

Amortized over the life of the new bond issue.

c)

Recognized in retained earnings.

d)

Recognized in income from continuing operations.

111.

An entity neglected to amortize the discount on outstanding bonds payable. What is the effect of the failure to record discount amortization on interest expense and bond carrying amount, respectively?

a)

Understated and understated

b)

Understated and overstated

c)

Overstated and overstated

d)

Overstated and understated

112.

An entity neglected to amortize the premium on outstanding bonds payable. What is the effect of the failure to record premium amortization on interest expense and bond carrying amount, respectively?

a)

Understated and understated

b)

Understated and overstated

c)

Overstated and overstated

d)

Overstated and understated

113.

What is the interest rate written on the face of the bond?

a)

Coupon rate

b)

Nominal rate

c)

Stated rate

d)

Coupon rate, nominal rate or stated rate

114.

What is the rate of interest actually incurred?

a)

Market rate

b)

Yield rate

c)

Effective rate

d)

Market, yield or effective rate

115.

When the effective interest method is used, the periodic amortization would

a)

Increase if the bonds were issued at a discount.

b)

Decrease if the bonds were issued at a premium.

c)

Increase if the bonds were issued at a premium.

d)

Increase if the bonds were issued at either a discount or a premium.

116.

A discount on bond payable is charged to interest expense

a)

Equally over the life of the bond

b)

Only in the year the bond is issued

c)

Using the effective interest method

d)

Only in the year the bond matures

117.

Using the effective interest method of amortization, the interest expense is equal to

a)

The stated rate of interest multiplied by the face amount of the bonds.

b)

The market rate of interest multiplied by the face amount of the bonds.

c)

The stated rate of interest multiplied by the beginning carrying amount of the bonds.

d)

The market rate of interest multiplied by the beginning carrying amount of the bonds.

118.

When interest expense for the current year is more than interest paid, the bonds were issued at

a)

A discount

b)

A premium

c)

Face amount

d)

An indeterminable amount

119.

When interest expense for the current year is less than interest paid, the bonds were issued at

a)

A discount

b)

A premium

c)

Face amount

d)

An indeterminable amount

120.

Bond issue cost

a)

Is included in the measurement of the bonds payable measured at amortized cost.

b)

Is amortized using the interest method over the life of the bonds payable.

c)

Will effectively increase the market rate of interest.

d)

All of these relate to bond issue cost.

121.

Bonds usually sell at

a)

Maturity amount

b)

Face amount

c)

Present value

d)

Statistical expected value

122.

Which statement is true about bonds payable?

a)

The specific provisions of a bond issue are described in a document called bond indenture.

b)

Periodic interest expense is the stated interest rate times the amount of bond outstanding.

c)

Bonds will sell for a premium when the market rate of interest exceeds stated rate.

d)

The initial sale price of bond represents the sum of all future cash outflows.

123.

When bonds are sold at a premium at each subsequent interest payment date, the cash paid is

a)

Less than the effective interest

b)

Equal to the effective interest

c)

Greater than the effective interest

d)

More than if the bonds had been sold at a discount.

124.

When bonds are sold at a discount, at each interest payment date, the interest expense

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remains the same

d)

Is equal to the change in carrying amount.

125.

When bonds are sold at a premium, at each interest payment date, the interest expense

a)

Remains constant

b)

Is equal to the change in carrying amount.

c)

Increases

d)

Decreases

126.

Interest expense is

a)

The effective rate times the carrying amount of the bond during the interest period.

b)

The stated rate times the face amount of the bond.

c)

The effective rate times the face amount of the bond.

d)

The stated interest rare times the carrying amount.

127.

What is the effective interest rate of a bond measured at amortized cost?

a)

The stated rate of the bond.

b)

The interest rate currently charged by the entity or by others for similar bond.

c)

The interest rate that exactly discounts estimated future cash payments through the expected life of the bond or when appropriate, a shorter period to the net carrying amount of the bond.

d)

The basic risk-free interest rate that is derived from observable government bond prices.

128.

For a bond issue which sells for less than face amount, the market rate of interest is

a)

Dependent on rate stated in the bond

b)

Equal to rate stated on the bond

c)

Less than rate stated on the bond

d)

Higher than rate stated on the bond

129.

What is the market rate of interest for a bond issue which sells for more than face amount?

a)

Less than rate stated on the bond

b)

Equal to rate stated on the bond

c)

Higher than rate stated on the bond

d)

Independent of rate stated on the bond

130.

If bonds are issued at a premium, this indicates that

a)

The yield rate of interest exceeds the nominal rate

b)

The nominal rate of interest exceeds the yield rate

c)

The yield and nominal rates coincide

d)

No necessary relationship exists between the two rates

131.

Which statement is true for a bond maturing on a single date when the effective interest method of amortizing discount on bonds payable is used?

a)

Interest expense as a percentage of the bond carrying amount varies from period to period

b)

Interest expense increases each six-month period

c)

Interest expense remains constant each six-month period

d)

Nominal interest rate exceeds effective interest rate

132.

The market price of a bond issued at a discount is the present value of the principal amount at the market rate of interest

a)

Less the present value of all future interest payments at the market rate of interest.

b)

Less the present value of all future interest payments at the rate of interest stated on the bond.

c)

Plus the present value of all future interest payments at the market rate of interest.

d)

Plus the present value of all future interest payments at the rate of interest stated on the bond.

133.

In theory, the proceeds from the sale of a bond would be equal to

a)

The face amount of the bond

b)

The present value of the principal amount due at the end of the life of the bond plus the present value of the interest payments made during the life of the bond

c)

The face amount of the bond plus the present value of the interest payments made during the life of the bond

d)

The sum of the face amount of the bond and the periods interest payments

134.

Under international accounting standard, the valuation method used for bonds payable is

a)

Historical cost

b)

Discounted cash flow valuation at current yield rate

c)

Maturity amount

d)

Discounted cash flow valuation at yield rate at issuance

135.

How should an entity calculate the net proceeds to be received from bond issuance?

a)

Discount the bonds at the stated rate of interest.

b)

Discount the bonds at the market rate of interest.

c)

Discount the bonds at that stated rate of interest and deduct bond issuance cost.

d)

Discount the bonds at the market rate of interest and deduct bond issuance cost.

136.

An entity issued a bond with a stated rate of interest that is less than the effective interest rate on the date of issuance. The bond was issued on one of the interest payment dates. What should the entity report on the first interest payment date?

a)

An interest expense that is less than the cash payment made to bondholders.

b)

An interest expense that is greater than the cash payment made to bondholders.

c)

A debit to discount on bond payable.

d)

A debit to premium on bond payable.

137.

Which statement is incorrect where the expenditure required to settle a provision is expected to be reimbursed by another party?

a)

The reimbursement shall be recognized only when it is virtually certain that the reimbursement would be received if the entity settles the obligation.

b)

The amount of the reimbursement shall not exceed the amount of the provision.

c)

In the income statement, the expense relating to the provision may be presented net of the reimbursement.

d)

The reimbursement shall not be treated as separate asset but netted against the estimated liability for the provision.

138.

An amortization schedule for bonds issued at a premium

a)

Summarizes the amortization of the premium on bonds payable, a contra-asset account

b)

Is reported in the statement of financial position

c)

Is a schedule that reflects the changes in the bonds payable over the term maturity

d)

All of these are correct

139.

The proceeds from an issue of bonds with share warrants should not be allocated between the liability and equity components when

a)

The fair value of the warrants is not readily available.

b)

The exercise of the warrants within the next reporting period seems remote.

c)

The warrants issued are nondetachable.

d)

The proceeds should be allocated between liability and equity under all of these circumstances.

140.

The major difference between convertible bonds and bonds issued with share warrants is that upon exercise of the warrants

a)

The shares are held by the issuer for a certain period before they are issued to the warrant holder.

b)

The holder has to pay a certain amount to obtain the shares.

c)

The shares involved are restricted.

d)

No share premium can be part of the transaction.

141.

When convertible bond is not converted but paid at maturity

a)

A gain or loss is recorded for the difference between the carrying amount of the bond and the present value of the cash flows.

b)

The amount allocated to equity is recorded as a gain.

c)

The amount allocated to equity is recorded as a loss.

d)

The carrying amount of the bond equal to face amount is derecognized.

142.

On March 31, Ashley, Inc.'s bondholders exchanged their convertible bonds for ordinary shares. The carrying amount of these bonds on Ashley's books was less than the market value but greater than the par value of the ordinary shares issued. Which of the following statements correctly states an effect of this conversion?

a)

Shareholders' equity is increased.

b)

Share premium is decreased.

c)

Retained earnings is increased.

d)

An extraordinary loss is recognized.

143.

When debt is issued at a discount, interest expense over the term of debt equals the cash interest paid

a)

Minus discount.

b)

Minus discount minus par value.

c)

Plus discount.

d)

Plus discount plus par value.

144.

A retail store received cash and issued gift certificates that are redeemable in merchandise. How would the deferred revenue account be affected by the redemption and no redemption of certificates, respectively?

a)

Decrease and No effect

b)

Decrease and Decrease

c)

No effect and No effect

d)

No effect and Decrease

145.

A probable and measurable contingent asset should be

a)

Recognized and disclosed.

b)

Classified as an appropriation of retained earnings.

c)

Disclosed but not recognized.

d)

Neither recognized nor disclosed.