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practice question paper

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When crystals of lead nitrate are heated strongly in a dry test tube



a)

A) Crystals immediately melt

b)

B) A brown residue is left

c)

C) White fumes appear in the tube

d)

D) A yellow residue is left

2.
Which of the following is not a physical change?
a)
Boiling of water to give water vapour
b)
Melting of ice to give water
c)
Dissolution of salt in water
d)
Combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG)
3.
The following reaction is an example of a 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)(i) displacement reaction (ii) combination reaction (iii) redox reaction (iv) neutralisation reaction
a)
(i) and (iv)
b)
(ii) and (iii)
c)
(i) and (iii)
d)
(iii) and (iv)
4.
Which of the following statements about the given reaction are correct?3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)(i) Iron metal is getting oxidised (ii) Water is getting reduced (iii) Water is acting as reducing agent (iv) Water is acting as oxidising agent
a)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
b)
(iii) and (iv)
c)
(i), (ii) and (iv)
d)
(ii) and (iv)
5.
Which of the following are exothermic processes? (i) Reaction of water with quick lime (ii) Dilution of an acid(iii) Evaporation of water (iv) Sublimation of camphor (crystals)
a)
(i) and (ii)
b)
(ii) and (iii)
c)
(i) and (iv)
d)
(iii) and (iv)
6.
Three beakers labelled as A, B and C each containing 25 mL of water were taken. A small amount of NaOH, anhydrous CuSO4 and NaCl were added to the beakers A, B and C respectively. It was observed that there was an increase in the temperature of the solutions contained in beakers A and B, whereas in case of beaker C, the temperature of the solution falls. Which one of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?(i) In beakers A and B, exothermic process has occurred. (ii) In beakers A and B, endothermic process has occurred. (iii) In beaker C exothermic process has occurred. (iv) In beaker C endothermic process has occurred.
a)
(i) only
b)
(ii) only
c)
(i) and (iv)
d)
(ii) and (iii)
7.
A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradually added to the beaker containing acidified permanganate solution. The light purple colour of the solution fades and finally disappears. Which of the following is the correct explanation for the observation?
a)
KMnO4 is an oxidising agent, it oxidises FeSO4
b)
FeSO4 acts as an oxidising agent and oxidises KMnO4
c)
The colour disappears due to dilution; no reaction is involved
d)
KMnO4 is an unstable compound and decomposes in presence of FeSO4 to a colourless compound.
8.
Which among the following is(are) double displacement reaction(s)?(i) Pb + CuCl2 → PbCl2 + Cu (ii) Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → BaSO4 + 2NaCl (iii) C + O2 → CO2 (iv) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
a)
(i) and (iv)
b)
(ii) only
c)
(i) and (ii)
d)
(iii) and (iv)
9.
Which among the following statement(s) is(are) true? Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a long duration turns grey due to(i) the formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride (ii) sublimation of silver chloride(iii) decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride (iv) oxidation of silver chloride
a)
(a) (i) only
b)
(i) and (iii)
c)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
d)
(d) (iv) only
10.
Solid calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to form calcium hydroxide accompanied by liberation of heat. This process is called slaking of lime. Calcium hydroxide dissolves in water to form its solution called lime water. Which among the following is (are) true about slaking of lime and the solution formed?(i) It is an endothermic reaction (ii) It is an exothermic reaction (iii) The pH of the resulting solution will be more than seven (iv) The pH of the resulting solution will be less than seven
a)
(a) (i) and (ii)
b)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
c)
(c) (i) and (iv)
d)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
11.
Barium chloride on reacting with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate and ammonium chloride. Which of the following correctly represents the type of the reaction involved?(i) Displacement reaction (ii) Precipitation reaction (iii) Combination reaction (iv) Double displacement reaction
a)
(a) (i) only
b)
(b) (ii) only
c)
(c) (iv) only
d)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
12.
Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction. The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen gases liberated during electrolysis of water is
a)
(a) 1:1
b)
(b) 2:1
c)
(c) 4:1
d)
(d) 1:2
13.
Which of the following is(are) an endothermic process(es)? (i) Dilution of sulphuric acid(ii) Sublimation of dry ice (iii) Condensation of water vapours (iv) Evaporation of water
a)
(a) (i) and (iii)
b)
(b) (ii) only
c)
(c) (iii) only
d)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
14.
In the double displacement reaction between aqueous potassium iodide and aqueous lead nitrate, a yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed. While performing the activity if lead nitrate is not available, which of the following can be used in place of lead nitrate?
a)
(a) Lead sulphate (insoluble)
b)
(b) Lead acetate
c)
(c) Ammonium nitrate
d)
(d) Potassium sulphate
15.
14. Which of the following gases can be used for storage of fresh sample of an oil for a long time?
a)
(a) Carbon dioxide or oxygen
b)
(b) Nitrogen or oxygen
c)
(c) Carbon dioxide or helium
d)
(d) Helium or nitrogen
16.
Potassium Chlorate is heated in presence of catalyst to produce oxygen and potassium chloride.Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct about the reaction?
a)
(a) It is a decomposition reaction and endothermic in nature
b)
(b) It is a combination reaction
c)
It is a decomposition reaction and accompanied by release of heat
d)
(d) It is a photochemical decomposition reaction and exothermic in nature
17.
Which one of the following processes involve chemical reactions?
a)
Storing of oxygen gas under pressure in a gas cylinder
b)
(b) Liquefaction of air
c)
(c) Keeping petrol in a china dish in the open
d)
(d) Heating copper wire in presence of air at high temperature
18.
In which of the following chemical equations, the abbreviations represent the correct states of the reactants and products involved at reaction temperature?
a)
(a) 2H2(l) + O2(l) → 2H2O(g)
b)
(b) 2H2(g) + O2(l) → 2H2O(l)
c)
(c) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l)
d)
(d) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)
19.
Which of the following are combination reactions?(i) 2KClO3⎯Heat⎯→ 2KCl + 3O2 (ii) MgO + H2O ⎯→ Mg(OH)2 (iii) 4Al + 3O2 ⎯→ 2Al2 O3 (iv) Zn + FeSO4 → ZnSO4 + Fe
a)
(a) (i) and (iii)
b)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
c)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
d)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
20.

Rancidity is a process in which fat/oils smell due to the change process of

a)

oxidation

b)

reduction

c)

displacement

d)

neutralization

21.

Colour of which metal changes to greem due to corrosion?

a)

Cu

b)

Al

c)

Fe

d)

Ag

22.

In a neuron, conversion of electrical signal to chemical signal occurs at

a)

Axonal end

b)

Dendritic end

c)

Cell body

d)

Axon

23.

Correct sequence of electrical impulse transmission in a neuron is from

a)

dendrite, axon, axonal end,cell body

b)

cell body, dendrite, axon,axonal end

c)

dendrite, cell body, axon, axonal end

d)

axonal end, axon, cell body, dendrite

24.

Which is the correct sequence of the components of a reflex arc

a)

Receptors, spinal cord,sensory neuron, motor neuron, muscle

b)

Receptors, muscle, sensory neuron, motor neuron, spinal cord

c)

Receptors, sensory neuron, spinal cord, motor neuron, muscle

d)

Receptors, motor neuron, spinal cord, sensory neuron, muscle

25.

Posture and balance of the body is controlled by

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Medulla

d)

Pons

26.

Which is not a reflex action

a)

Swallowing

b)

Coughing

c)

Knee jerk

d)

Closing of eyes on flashing light

27.

Spinal cord originates from

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Medulla

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Pons

28.

Part of the brain that controls respiration, heart beat and peristalsis is

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Medulla

29.

Most highly developed part of human brain is

a)

Pons

b)

Medulla

c)

Cerebrum

d)

Cerebellum

30.

Centre for regulating body temperature is

a)

Pons

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Medulla

d)

Hypothalamus

31.

In human, the number of cranial nerves is

a)

12

b)

31

c)

24

d)

26

32.

In humans, the number of spinal nerves is

a)

12 pairs

b)

31 pairs

c)

33 pairs

d)

11 pairs

33.

Thinking part of brain is

a)

Hind brain

b)

Mid brain

c)

Fore brain

d)

Hypothalamus

34.

Taste receptors are

a)

Phonoreceptors

b)

Statoreceptors

c)

Olfactory receptors

d)

Gustatory receptors

35.

The microscopic gap between two adjacent neurons throgh which a nerve impulse passes is

a)

Neurotransmitter

b)

Synapse

c)

Axon terminal

d)

Dendrite

36.

Which nerves arise from the brain and emerges through the skull

a)

Spinal nerves

b)

Thoracic nerves

c)

Cranial nerves

d)

Lumbar nerves

37.

Which of the following is an example of autonomous nervous system

a)

Knee jerk reflex

b)

Swallowing of food

c)

Peristalsis

d)

Reflex action

38.

Smooth muscles, cardiac muscle and organs are regulated by

a)

Central nervous system

b)

Autonomous nervous system

c)

Peripheral nervous system

d)

Somatic nervous system

39.

The thalamus and hypothalamus are located in the

a)

cerebrum

b)

cerebellum

c)

diencephalon

d)

medulla oblongata

40.

Part of the brain responsible for hearing is

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Medulla

41.

The autonomic nervous system has control over

a)

Reflex actions

b)

Sense organs

c)

Skeletal muscles

d)

Internal organs

42.

Which of the following nitrogenous base is not present in DNA?

a)

Thymine

b)

Uracil

c)

Adenine

d)

Guanine

43.

Adenine can pair with which of the following nitrogenous bases?

a)

Cytosine

b)

Uracil

c)

Thymine

d)

Both B & C

44.

RNA does not contain

a)

Deoxyribose

b)

Phosphate

c)

Adenine

d)

Uracil

45.

Which of the following types of RNA carries information from the gene to the ribosome?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

All of the above

46.

The origin of universe is explained by

a)

Darwin's theory

b)

Big bang theory

c)

Speciation

d)

Lamarckism

47.

Which of the following is/are unicellular organism(s)?

a)

Amoeba

b)

Chlorella

c)

Paramoecium

d)

All of the above

48.

The appendix is useful in ruminants for digestion of which of the following compounds?

a)

Fats

b)

Cellulose

c)

Proteins

d)

Glycogen

49.

Which of the following is the connecting link between Annelida & Arthropoda?

a)

Peripatus

b)

Lungfish

c)

Duckbilled platypus

d)

Petromyzon

50.

Connecting links suggests that amphibians are evolved from

a)

Mammals

b)

Reptiles

c)

Fishes

d)

Aves

51.

Theory of inheritance of acquired characters is also known as

a)

Lamarckism

b)

Natural selection

c)

Speciation

d)

Translocation

52.

Modern man differs from Australopithecus in which of the following aspects?

a)

Presence of tail

b)

Use of hands for eating food

c)

Increased brain size

d)

All of the above

53.

Proved that except viruses, all living organisms have DNA as their genetic material.

a)

Oswald Avery

b)

Mclyn McCarthy

c)

Colin Macleod

d)

All of these

54.

_________ proposed a model for protein synthesis with the help of DNA in bacterial cells.

a)

Gregor Johann Mendel

b)

Walter & Sutton

c)

Francois Jacob & Jack Monad

d)

Hugo de Vries

55.

Information about protein synthesis is stored in the _________

a)

Mitochondria

b)

DNA

c)

RNA

d)

Ribosomes

56.

__________ brings the coded message from the DNA

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

Ribosomes

57.

As per the message on mRNA, amino acids are supplied by tRNA this is called as ______________

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Translocation

d)

Transportation

58.

____________ is a gradual change occurring in living organisms over a long duration

a)

Evolution

b)

Mutation

c)

Variation

d)

Heredity

59.

The theory of natural selection was proposed by?

a)

Mendel

b)

Lamarck

c)

Charles darwin

d)

Hugo de vries

60.

Carbon dating method measures the radioactivity of C-14 & the ratio of ______________ present in the organisms body

a)

C-12 to C-14

b)

C-6 to C-7

c)

C-14 to C-12

d)

C-14 to 0-16

61.

Mammals have evolved from

a)

Aves

b)

Reptiles

c)

Amphibians

d)

Fishes

62.

____________ is not a vestigial organ in man

a)

Appendix

b)

Wisdom tooth

c)

Body hair

d)

Duodenum

63.

Which of the following increases in muscle cell when they are lacking in oxygen?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Lactose

c)

Lactic acid

d)

Uric acid

64.

In cockroaches, air enters the body through:

a)

Lungs

b)

Gills

c)

Spiracles

d)

Skin

65.

One of the following does not have a nucleus. This one is:

a)

Red blood cell

b)

White blood cell

c)

Guard cell

d)

Epidermal cell

66.

The blood leaving the tissue s becomes richer in:

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Water

c)

Heamoglobin

d)

Oxygen

67.

Blood is pumped from the heart to the entire body by the :

a)

Lungs

b)

Ventricles

c)

Atria

d)

Nerves

68.

Which vein brings clean blood from the lungs into the heart ?

a)

Renal vein

b)

Pulmonary vein

c)

Vena cava

d)

Hepatic vein

69.

Which blood vessels doesn't carry any carbon dioxide ?

a)

Pulmonary artery

b)

Vena cava

c)

Hepatic vein

d)

Pulmonary vein

70.

The phloem tissue in plants is responsible for the transport of :

a)

Water

b)

Water and minerals

c)

Sugar

d)

All of the above

71.

Which of the following has a three chambered heart ?

a)

Pigeon

b)

Lizard

c)

Fish

d)

Lion

72.

The excretory unit in the human excretory system is called :

a)

Nephron

b)

Neuron

c)

Nephridia

d)

Kidneys

73.

The cell in our blood which destroy disease causing germs, are:

a)

Platelets

b)

Skin cells

c)

RBCs

d)

WBCs

74.

The procedure of cleaning the blood of a person by using a kidney machine is known as :

a)

Ketolysis

b)

Hydrolysis

c)

Dialysis

d)

Photolysis

75.

Gums and resins are the products of plants.

(a)  

76.

When electric current is passed, electrons move from:

a)

high potential to low potential.

b)

low potential to high potential.

c)

in the direction of the current.

d)

against the direction of current

77.

The heating element of an electric iron is made up of:

a)

copper

b)

aluminium

c)

nichrome

d)

iron

78.

The electrical resistance of insulators is

a)

high

b)

low

c)

zero

d)

infinity

79.

Electrical resistivity of any given metallic wire depends upon

a)

its thickness

b)

its shape

c)

nature of the material

d)

its length

80.

Electric power is inversely proportional to

a)

resistance

b)

voltage

c)

current

d)

temperature

81.

What is the commercial unit of electrical energy?

a)

Joules

b)

Kilojoules

c)

Kilowatt-hour

d)

watt-hour

82.

Three resistors of 1 Ω, 2 ft and 3 Ω are connected in parallel. The combined resistance of the three resistors should be

a)

greater than 3 Ω

b)

less than 1 Ω

c)

equal to 2 Ω

d)

zero

83.

An electric bulb is connected to a 220V generator. The current is 0.50 A. What is the power of the bulb?

a)

440 V

b)

220 V

c)

110 V

d)

55 V

84.

Which of the following gases are filled in electric bulbs?

a)

Helium and Neon

b)

Neon and Argon

c)

Argon and Hydrogen

d)

Argon and Nitrogen

85.

100 J of heat is produced each second in a 4Ω resistor. The potential difference across the resistor will be:

a)

30 V

b)

10 V

c)

20 V

d)

25 V

86.

Coulomb is the SI unit of:

a)

charge

b)

current

c)

resistance

d)

potential difference

87.

A cell, a resistor, a key and ammeter are arranged as shown in the circuit diagrams of Figure (i), (ii) and (iii). The current recorded in the ammeter will be

a)

maximum in (i)

b)

maximum in (ii)

c)

maximum in (iii)

d)

will be same in all the cases

88.

Materials which allow larger currents to flow through them are called

a)

insulators

b)

conductors

c)

semiconductors

d)

alloys

89.

Conventionally, the direction of the current is taken as

a)

the direction of flow of negative charge

b)

the direction of flow of atoms

c)

the direction of flow of molecules

d)

the direction of flow of positive charge

90.

The slope of voltage (V) versus current (I) is called

a)

resistance

b)

conductance

c)

resistivity

d)

conductivity

91.

An electric iron draws a current 4 A when connected to a 220 V mains. Its resistance must be

a)

1000 Ω

b)

55 Ω

c)

44 Ω

d)

none of these

92.

 Calculate the current flows through the 10 Ω resistor in the following circuit. 

a)

1.2 A

b)

0.6 A

c)

0.2 A

d)

2.0 A

93.

A fuse wire repeatedly gets burnt when used with a good heater. It is advised to use a fuse wire of

a)

more length

b)

less radius

c)

less length

d)

more radius

94.

A student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I graph of three samples of nichrome wire with resistances R1 R2 and R3 respectively. Which of the following is high ?

a)

R1 = R2 = R3

b)

R1 > R2 > R3

c)

R3 > R2 > R1

d)

none of these

95.

A boy records that 4000 joule of work is required to transfer 10 coulomb of charge between two points of a resistor of 50 Ω. The current passing through it is

a)

2 A

b)

4 A

c)

8 A

d)

16 A

96.

Ores contain metal compounds with some of the impurities like soil,sand,rocky material etc. These impurities are called as------------------

a)

Minerals

b)

Gangue

c)

Metallurgy

d)

corrosion

97.

The process of heating an ore (not hot enough to melt it) in the presence of air to make it a metal oxide.

a)

smelting

b)

roasting

c)

calcination

d)

electrolysis

98.

Metals have different levels of reactivity, and they are found in different forms in the earth's crust. Reactive metals are usually found . . .

a)

in compounds in the earth's crust.

b)

as pure metals in the earth’s crust.

99.
Carbon is used by plants during which process?
a)
Respiration
b)
Transpiration
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Transportation
100.

Tick the non biodegradable wastes

a)

metal

b)

plastic

c)

vegetable peel

d)

polythene bags

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