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Q. 2 Review

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

To make an object move you must first apply ---

a)

an opposing force

b)

an unbalanced force

c)

a stationary force

d)

a vertical force

2.

a force is best defined as ---

a)

the application of weight

b)

a push or pull that is exerted on matter

c)

the flow of electric charges

d)

a bond in which electrons are shared

3.

A student pushes against a wall with 20 N of force and the wall does not move. In this situation, the wall exerts --

a)

0 N of force

b)

less than 20 N of force

c)

20 N of force

d)

more than 20 N of force

4.

Which change would require more force to pull the wooden block up the ramp?

a)

Have the student use two hands

b)

Reduce the mass of the wooden block.

c)

Restack the books so the thinnest book is on the bottom.

d)

Glue sandpaper to the surface of the ramp.

5.

Oliver stepped onto a three-car subway train with standing room only. What caused him to fall backward into other riders when the train suddenly moved forward?

a)

He was riding in the last car of the train.

b)

He had heat exhaustion from the overcrowded train.

c)

Oliver's body resisted a change in the subway train's inertia.

d)

Oliver's body was responding to the force of gravity.

6.

Which law of motion predicts that a moving hockey puck will continue to move in the same direction at the same speed unless acted upon by another force?

a)

Newton's First Law of Motion

b)

Newton's Second Law of Motion

c)

Newton's Third Law of Motion

d)

Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation

7.

Which law explains the relationship among mass, force and acceleration?

a)

Universal Law of Gavitation

b)

Newton's First Law of Motion

c)

Newton's Second Law of Motion

d)

Newton's Third Law of Motion

8.

The force of an object, with a certain mass accelerating at a certain rate, can be determined by using the equation below.


force = mass x acceleration


Which object would have the greatest force?

a)

A 5 kg object accelerating at 10 m/s

b)

A 5 kg object accelerating at 20 m/s

c)

a 20 kg object accelerating at 4 m/s

d)

a 20 kg object accelerating at 3 m/s

9.

The diagram below show the forces acting on a soccer ball.


In which of the diagrams will the ball remain motionless?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

10.

In the diagram below, a girl sits on a sled and slides down a hill of snow. Which arrow represents the force of friction opposing the motion of the sled down the hill?

a)

Arrow A

b)

Arrow B

c)

Arrow C

d)

Arrow D

11.

Which of these examples best illustrates Newton's Second Low of Motion?

a)

A 100 Ib boy has twice as much inertia as a 200 Ib boy.

b)

A truck needs a more powerful engine than a small car.

c)

A hockey puck slides easily across the ice.

d)

A satellite stays in orbit for a long time.

12.

According to Newton's Third Law of Motion, if Mike pushes down on the springboard to being his dive, what is the reaction force?

a)

Mike splashing into the water

b)

The springboard pushing Mike into the air

c)

The height of the water when Mike enters the water

d)

The sound the board makes as he pushes into the air

13.

Which principle best explains why the sprinkler spins?

a)

Every action has an equal and opposite reaction.

b)

Solid substances are usually more dense than liquid substance.

c)

Energy is released when water condenses.

d)

Most substances expand when heated and contract when cooled.

14.

Ana pushed on a big rock in her back yard. She was unable to get it to move because she did not -

a)

apply enough force

b)

have a good grip on the rock

c)

have enough mass

d)

weigh enough

15.

Many bicycles use a hand brake to control their speed. When the brake is engaged, a rubber pad presses against the tire. What force of motion does the hand brake rely upon to slow the bicycle?

a)

Gravity

b)

Friction

c)

Electricity

d)

Magnetism

16.

Which of the following situations is an example of Newton's third law of motion?

a)

A boy jumping on a trampoline

b)

A boy falling forward when a bus stops

c)

A chair sitting on the floor

d)

An apple falling from a tree

17.

In a head-on collision, a person who is not wearing a seat belt continues to move forward at the original speed of the car because of -

a)

weight

b)

mass

c)

gravity

d)

inertia

18.

A recent space shuttle mission carried a piece of cargo that had a mass of 122 kg with a weight of 1195.6 N. While orbiting the Earth, the astronauts weighted the equipment again and found it to be 24.4 N.


What was the mass of the equipment at this point?

a)

122 kg

b)

7.6 kg

c)

4.88 kg

d)

2.49 kg

19.

Object is...

a)

constant speed

b)

speeding up

c)

slowing down

d)

stopped

20.

Object is...

(hint: equal distance... equal time)

a)

constant speed

b)

speeding up

c)

slowing down

d)

stopped

21.

Object is...

a)

constant speed

b)

speeding up

c)

slowing down

d)

stopped

22.

Object is...

a)

(1) speeding up,

(2) constant speed,

(3) speeding up

b)

(1) constant speed.

(2) stopped,

(3) constant speed

23.

Object is ...

(check that "y" axis!)

a)

stopped

b)

constant speed

c)

speeding up

24.

Object is ...

a)

stopped

b)

constant speed

c)

speeding up

25.

Object ...

a)

accelerates... then goes constant speed... then accelerates again

b)

goes constant speed... stops... goes constant speed

26.

An element’s reactivity and other chemical properties are determined by the number of -

a)

isotopes it has

b)

oxidation states

c)

orbitals in an atom

d)

valence electrons

27.

Molybdenum has an atomic number of 42. This means that molybdenum –

a)

has a freezing point of 42° Fahrenheit.

b)

belongs to Group 42 on the Periodic Table.

c)

can form 42 bonds with other atoms.

d)

contains 42 protons in its nucleus.

28.

Which of the following properties of carbon distinguishes it from all other elements?

a)

Carbon has six protons in its nucleus.

b)

Carbon is a gray solid at room temperature.

c)

Carbon forms compounds with oxygen

d)

Carbon can be found in Earth’s crust.

29.

The table provides information on four different elements. Based on the information provided, it can be concluded that –

a)

sodium is the most reactive.

b)

strontium is the best conductor.

c)

phosphorus is the least stable.

d)

aluminum has the most protons.

30.

Which particles would you find in the nucleus of an atom?

a)

Protons and neutrons

b)

Electrons and protons

c)

Electrons only

d)

Neutrons and electrons

31.

What is the name for the type of subatomic particle that is electrically neutral and found in the nucleus of an atom?

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Ion

d)

Electron

32.

What is the mass of an atom with seven protons, seven neutrons, and eight electrons?

a)

15

b)

14

c)

13

d)

22

33.

A student is shown a picture of the atom to the side. What element, based on the subatomic particles in the atom, is shown?

a)

Beryllium

b)

Lithium

c)

Helium

d)

Oxygen

34.

 

What element contains 7 protons and 5 valence electrons?

a)

Boron

b)

Vanadium

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Lithium

35.

Compare the data shown in the table. What reasonable conclusion can be made from the information given?

a)

Element 1 has the same atomic mass as Element 4

b)

Element 3 has a very similar chemical properties as Element 4

c)

Element 1 has very similar chemical properties as Element 3

d)

None of the above

36.

Four students were asked to name the parts of an atom that determine the atom’s identity and chemical properties. The students’ responses are shown in the table below.

Which student’s responses are correct?

a)

Student 1

b)

Student 2

c)

Student 3

d)

Student 4

37.

Based on the data, which number shows the correct location of the element with 2 valence electrons and 3 energy levels.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

38.

Based on the data, which number shows the correct location of the element with 2 valence electrons and 1 energy levels.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

39.

Which two elements on the periodic table are in the same group?

a)

Na and He

b)

O and C

c)

Li and Ne

d)

He and Ar

40.

Which pair of properties describes the elements in Group 1?

a)

They are chemically stable

b)

They have 8 valence electrons

c)

They are the most reactive metals

d)

They are the most reactive non metals

41.

How many valence electrons are in an element in group 15 in the periodic table?

a)

5

b)

15

c)

7

d)

8

42.

Which two atoms are elements in the same group in the periodic table?

a)

Atom 3 and Atom 4

b)

Atom 1 and Atom 4

c)

Atom 3 and Atom 2

d)

Atom 1 and Atom 2

43.

Based on the data, which number shows the correct location of the element that is brittle and dull.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

44.

Based on the data, which number shows the correct location of the element that is malleable and a good conductor.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

45.

Which of these formulas contain equal numbers of nitrogen atoms?

a)

Formulas I and III

b)

Formulas I and IV

c)

Formulas I, II and V

d)

Formulas II and III

46.

In which of these compounds are there twice as many oxygen atoms as hydrogen atoms?

a)

H3PO4

b)

H2SO4

c)

HCIO3

d)

H2O

47.

How many atoms in all are found in the compound above?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

48.

Which of the models best represents CaCO3?

a)
b)
c)
d)
49.

How many elements are in C6H12O6?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

50.

Which of the following could be determined using only the chemical formula of a carbohydrate?

a)

A. The chemical properties of the carbohydrate.

b)

B. The conductivity of the carbohydrate in water.

c)

C. The number of atoms of each element contained in the carbohydrate.

d)

D. The physical state of the carbohydrate at standard room temperature.

51.

How many atoms of hydrogen (H) are found in (NH4)2CO3?

a)

8

b)

4

c)

2

d)

9

52.

During an investigation, two flasks of unknown, clear liquids are combined in a beaker and the following observations are recorded. Which of the listed observations indicate a new substance was formed during this investigation?


I. Solution color remains clear

II. The amount of solution in the beaker increased

III. Solution temperature changed from 10 degrees C to

20 degrees C

IV. Some of the liquid remained in the flasks

a)

A. I and II

b)

B. I, II, and IV

c)

C. III, only

d)

D. I and III

53.

Which of the following examples would support that a chemical reaction has occurred?

a)

A. After putting liquid batter into a hot pan, the batter solidifies and begins to turn brown.

b)

B. After turning on a blender filled with fruits, the fruit is chopped up and mixed together.

c)

C. After taking a tray filled with ice cubes out of the freezer, the cubes begin to melt.

d)

D. After adding a spoonful of sugar to a mug of hot coffee, the sugar dissolves completely.

54.

When vinegar and baking soda are combined, bubbles begin to form. Bubbles are evidence of a chemical reaction because they -

a)

A. are less dense than air.

b)

B. form at a fast rate.

c)

C. released a gas

d)

D. have no mass.

55.

An experiment is performed in which a crystalline substance is added to a beaker filled with room temperature water. All of the following observations would serve as evidence that a chemical change occurred, EXCEPT –

a)

A. the crystals dissolve.

b)

B. a precipitate is formed.

c)

C. the bottom of the beaker feels warm to the touch.

d)

D. bubbles begin forming within the water.

56.
Which of the following is an example of a chemical reaction?
a)
A marshmallow turning black when heated over a fire
b)
A powder dissolving in water to make lemonade
c)
An ice cube melting into a puddle of water
d)
Salt crystals being crushed into a powder
57.
In a reaction A + B ----> C,  reactant A has 5g and product  C has 9g. How many grams should reactant B have? 
a)
4g
b)
5g
c)
9g
d)
14g
58.
A chemical reaction is balanced when
a)
both sides have the same elements
b)
Both sides have the same  number of atoms
c)
Same subscripts
d)
Same coefficients
59.
You know you a chemical reaction has occurred if 
a)
there is a precipitate.
b)
there is a color change.
c)
there is a temperature change.
d)
All of these answers are evidence.
60.
The Law of Conservation of Mass states
a)
that matter exists in all states and reacts the same
b)
that matter can only be changed into new substances by introducing a catalyst
c)
that matter exists in the same state throughout any chemical change
d)
that matter cannot be created or destroyed and that the mass of the products must equal the mass of the reactants
61.
Does this chemical equation follow the Law of Conservation of Mass?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
I don't know
d)
Maybe
62.
If reaction starts with 20g of reactants it should produce 
a)
a total of 40g of products
b)
a total of 10g of products
c)
a total of 80 g of products
d)
a total of 20g of products
63.
A copper penny turning greenish after a few years is an example of...
a)
Chemical Change
b)
Physical Change
64.
How is a physical change different from a chemical change?
a)
There is absolutely no difference
b)
Chemical changes produce a new substance, physical changes stay the same substance
c)
Chemical changes create and destroy matter, physical changes don't
d)
Physical changes create and destroy matter, chemical changes dont
65.
The substances listed on the right side of a chemical equation are the
a)
Yields
b)
Reactants
c)
Products
d)
Precipitates
66.
The substances listed on the left side of a chemical equation are the
a)
Products
b)
Coefficients
c)
Precipitates
d)
Reactants
67.
How many Hydrogen are in 4H2O?
a)
6
b)
8
c)
2
d)
4
68.
How many elements are found in the following molecule? Mg(ClO3)2
a)
1
b)
4
c)
3
d)
5
69.
How many molecules of Carbon are in the following formula? 3C2H6
a)
3
b)
6
c)
12
d)
18
70.

Is this equation balanced?

a)

Yes

b)

No

71.

Is this equation balanced?

a)

Yes

b)

No

72.

Which reactant is missing from the equation shown?

(What should go in the place of the "X"?)

a)

One hydrogen atom.

b)

Three hydrogen atoms.

c)

Four oxygen atoms.