wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Chemistry Semester Exam

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Experimental evidence was a critical factor in developing the atomic model. What is an example of evidence that helped develop the Dalton atomic model?

a)

The path of cathode rays is affected by a magnet. 

b)

Alpha particles are deflected at large angles.

c)

Elements give off specific colors of light when heated in a flame.

d)

Elements combine in simple whole-number ratios to form compounds.

2.

The periodic table

a)

permits the properties of an element to be predicted before the element is discovered.

b)

will be completed with element 118.

c)

has been of little use to chemists since the early 1900s.

d)

was completed with the discovery of the noble gases.

3.

Rutherford expected alpha particles to travel almost straight through a target of gold foil. Which concept was not supported by his experimental results and research?

a)

Millikan’s measurement of electrical charge

b)

Thomson’s plum pudding model of the atom

c)

the existence of electrons as particles

d)

the planetary model of the atom

4.

An atom has an atomic number of 26 and a mass number of 56. What is the composition of the atom?

a)

26 protons, 56 neutrons, 26 electrons

b)

30 protons, 26 neutrons, 30 electrons

c)

26 protons, 30 neutrons, 26 electrons

d)

30 protons, 30 neutrons, 26 electrons

5.

The mass of the ashes left from burning a log is less than the mass of the log. Which explains why this is not a violation of the law of conservation of mass?

a)

Some of the mass of the log is converted into energy.

b)

The ashes are made of simpler compounds than were in the log.

c)

New lighter atoms are produced during combustion.

d)

Much of the mass of the log escapes as gases.

6.

An atom has 23 protons and 28 neutrons. Which is the correct chemical symbol for this atom?

a)

5123V

b)

126C

c)

6429Cu

d)

5224Cr

7.

The following symbols represent isotopes of four fictitious elements, W, X, Y, and Z.

Which isotope contains the most neutrons?

a)

Y

b)

W

c)

Z

d)

X

8.

What of the following isotopes have the same number of neutrons?

silver-108, palladium-107, cadmium-109, indium-108, rhodium-108

a)

silver-108, palladium-107, cadmium-109, indium-108

b)

silver-108, indium-108, rhodium-108

c)

silver-108, palladium-107, cadmium-109, indium-108, rhodium-106

d)

silver-108, palladium-107, cadmium-109

9.

A lead atom contains 82 protons and 125 neutrons. Which is the correct notation for this isotope of lead?

a)

b)

c)

d)

10.

What many electrons can a each p-orbital accommodate?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

2

d)

10

11.

The image below shows the order of filling sublevels in the atom. An atom of the element phosphorus contains 15 electrons. Which sublevel is partially filled?

a)

3p

b)

4p

c)

2s

d)

4d

12.

Which is the correct ground state electron configuration for the element arsenic?

a)

1s22s22p63s23p64s24d104p3

b)

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p4

c)

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p3

d)

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p1

13.

How many valence electrons does the element sulfur have?

a)

4

b)

2

c)

14

d)

6

14.

The image below shows an orbital diagram for magnesium.

Which rule for filling orbital diagrams is violated in this diagram?

a)

Heisenberg uncertainty principle

b)

Pauli exclusion principle

c)

Hund's rule

d)

Aufbau principle

15.

Which set of elements is in order from least to most valence electrons?

a)

Ca, K, Cl, Ar

b)

Ne, F, O, B

c)

K, As, Br, Kr

d)

C, B, Be, Li

16.

Which is the ground state electronic configuration of an alkaline earth metal?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p2

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d2

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1

17.

The image below shows the order of filling sublevels in the atom.

Which sublevels must be filled before the 3d sublevel will accept an electron?

a)

1s, 2s

b)

1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s

c)

1s, 2s, 2p, 3s

d)

1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p

18.

Which best explains how the Heisenberg uncertainty principle helped make the Bohr model of the atom incorrect?

a)

The Bohr model did not allow for sublevels of energy.

b)

Assigning the electron to a fixed path around the nucleus is impossible.

c)

The interaction of an electron and a photon of light changes the speed and position of the electron.

d)

The electron's velocity at any given moment cannot be determined.

19.

The Bohr model of the atom was replaced by the quantum mechanical model in which electrons occupy orbitals like the one shown in the image below. What is NOT true about this orbital?

a)

There is a 90% probability of finding the electron within the orbital.

b)

The electron follows specific paths within the orbital.

c)

Spherical orbitals, like this one exist in every energy level in the atom.

d)

The probability of finding the electron close to the nucleus is high.

20.

According to modern periodic law, what property is used as a basis to organize elements into a regular pattern?

a)

atomic mass

b)

atomic number

c)

periodicity

d)

density

21.

What are the valence electrons in the electron configuration of tin, [Kr]4d105s25p2?

a)

[Kr]

b)

5s25p2

c)

4d10

d)

5p2

22.

How many valence electrons does a silicon atom have?

a)

6

b)

2

c)

1

d)

4

23.

In which region of the periodic table do all the elements have 3 electrons in the highest p orbital?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

24.

Which element has the following electron configuration?

[Ne] 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d1

a)

titanium

b)

calcium

c)

yttrium

d)

scandium

25.

Which entity does NOT have the electron configuration [Ar]4s23d104p6

a)

As3+

b)

Br

c)

Kr

d)

Sr2+

26.

How do ionic radii compare from top to bottom in a group of the periodic table.

a)

decrease

b)

increase

c)

stay the same

d)

follow no pattern

27.

Which diagram correctly depicts the general trend in first ionization energy?

a)

b)

c)

d)

28.

Identify the element the highest electronegativity from the list of electron configurations given below:

a)

[Ne] 3s23p4

b)

[Ne] 3s23p5

c)

[Ne] 3s23p3

d)

[Ar] 4s2

29.

Which of these is true about the oxidation numbers (charges) of transition metals, such as chromium?

a)

oxidation number always equals to 2+

b)

can have multiple positive oxidation numbers

c)

can have multiple negative oxidation numbers

d)

oxidation number always equals to 1+

30.

The electron structure of a neutral atom is shown below. Which notation correctly labels an ion that would form from this atom?

a)

Mg+

b)

Na-

c)

Ne

d)

Na+

31.

The image below shows an orbital diagram for phosphorus. Which rule for filling orbital diagrams is violated in this diagram?

a)

Aufbau principle

b)

Paul exclusion principle

c)

Hund's rule

d)

Heisenberg uncertainty principle

32.

What is the formula for the compound consisting of cesium and sulfate ions?

a)

Cs2SO4

b)

CsSO

c)

Cs2SO

d)

Cs4SO2

33.

An atom of magnesium has two valence electrons. An atom of magnesium will most likely react with exactly one atom of which element?

a)

carbon

b)

chlorine

c)

oxygen

d)

nitrogen

34.

To achieve a noble gas configuration, how many electrons does Fluorine need to gain?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

0

35.
a)

1A : 2G

b)

1A : 1G

c)

No likely combination

d)

2A : 1G

36.

Which of these formulas is written incorrectly?

a)

Aluminum Hydroxide
AlOH3

b)

Calcium Hydroxide

Ca(OH)2

c)

Ammonium Sulfide

(NH4)2S

d)

Aluminum Sulfate
Al2(SO4)3

37.

What is the name of the compound Be(NO3)2?

a)

beryllium dinitrate

b)

beryllium(II) nitrate

c)

beryllium(II) dinitrate

d)

beryllium nitrate

38.

Which is the correct formula for the compound, manganese(III) fluoride?

a)

MnF3

b)

MnF

c)

Mn3F3

d)

Mn3F

39.

What is the name of the compound whose formula is Na3P?

a)

sodium phosphide

b)

sodium(III) phosphide

c)

sodium phosphite

d)

sodium phosphate

40.

What is the formula of calcium bromide?

a)

Ca2Br2

b)

Ca2Br

c)

CaBr

d)

CaBr2

41.

What is the formula for the compound formed by calcium ions and chloride ions?

a)

CaCl

b)

Ca2Cl

c)

CaCl3

d)

CaCl2

42.

What is the formula for the compound formed by lead(II) ions and chromate ions?

a)

PbCrO4

b)

Pb2CrO4

c)

Pb2(CrO4)3

d)

Pb(CrO4)2

43.

What is the formula for aluminum sulfate?

a)

AlSO4

b)

Al2SO4

c)

Al2(SO4)3

d)

Al(SO4)3

44.

What is the formula for barium hydroxide?

a)

BaOH

b)

BaOH2

c)

Ba(OH)2

d)

Ba(OH)

45.

Name the compound Ni(ClO3)2

a)

nickel(II) chlorate

b)

nickel(II) chloride

c)

nickel(II) chlorite

d)

nickel(II) peroxide

46.

Name the compound Zn3(PO4)2

a)

zinc potassium oxide

b)

trizinc polyoxide

c)

zinc phosphate

d)

zinc phosphite

47.

What charge do Group 13 elements tend to acquire when they form ions?

a)

3−

b)

5−

c)

5+

d)

3+

48.

In groups 13 through 18, valence electrons may be in sublevels

a)

s and d.

b)

s and p.

c)

d and f.

d)

p and d.

49.

Among the d-block elements, as atomic radii decrease, electronegativity values

a)

remain constant.

b)

increase.

c)

decrease.

d)

drop to zero.

50.

The idea of arranging the elements in the periodic table according to their chemical and physical properties is attributed to

a)

Mendeleev.

b)

Moseley.

c)

Bohr

d)

Ramsay

51.

What is the formula for sulfur dichloride?

a)

SCl

b)

SCl2

c)

S2Cl

d)

S2Cl2

52.

What is the formula for dinitrogen trioxide?

a)

Ni2O3

b)

NO3

c)

N2O6

d)

N2O3

53.

Name the compound N2O3

a)

dinitrogen oxide

b)

nitrogen trioxide

c)

nitric oxide

d)

dinitrogen trioxide

54.

The electron configurations of the noble gases from neon to radon in the periodic table make these elements part of the

a)

f block.

b)

d block.

c)

s block.

d)

p block.

55.

Elements in which the d-sublevel is being filled have the properties of

a)

metals.

b)

nonmetals.

c)

metalloids.

d)

gases

56.

Name the compound SiO2

a)

silver oxide

b)

silicon oxide

c)

silicon dioxide

d)

monosilver dioxide

57.

Name the compound CF4

a)

calcium fluoride

b)

carbon fluoride

c)

carbon tetrafluoride

d)

monocalcium quadrafluoride

58.

Name the compound Al2S3

a)

aluminum sulfate

b)

aluminum sulfur

c)

aluminum(II) sulfate

d)

aluminum sulfide

59.

Name the compound Fe(NO3)2

a)

iron(II) nitrate

b)

iron(II) nitrite

c)

iron(III) nitrate

d)

iron(III) nitride

60.

What is the formula for zinc fluoride?

a)

ZnF

b)

ZnF2

c)

Zn2F

d)

Zn2F3

61.

Name the compound KClO3

a)

potassium chloride

b)

potassium trioxychlorite

c)

potassium chlorate

d)

hypochlorite

62.

Argon, krypton, and xenon are

a)

alkaline earth metals.

b)

noble gases.

c)

actinides.

d)

lanthanides.

63.

Chlorine has atomic number 17 and mass number 35. It has

a)

17 protons, 17 electrons, and 18 neutrons.

b)

35 protons, 35 electrons, and 17 neutrons.

c)

17 protons, 17 electrons, and 52 neutrons.

d)

18 protons, 18 electrons, and 17 neutrons.

64.

Identify the number of neutrons in one atom of sulfur with an atomic mass number of 34 amu.

a)

16

b)

18

c)

32

d)

34

65.

Elaborate on the nuclear model of the atom.

a)

The nuclear model describes the atom as protons and neutrons distributed throughout a sea of electrons.

b)

The nuclear model describes the atom as electrons uniformly scattered in a positive cloud of protons.

c)

The nuclear model describes the atom as a small, negative center enveloped by a cloud of positive particles.

d)

The nuclear model describes the atom as a dense, positive nucleus surrounded by a cloud of negative electrons.

66.

The atomic number of an element is

a)

the mass of the element.

b)

1 mol of the element.

c)

the number of protons in each atom of the element.

d)

the number of neutrons in each atom of the element.

67.

Because a few alpha particles bounced back from the foil, Rutherford concluded that they were

a)

striking electrons.

b)

indivisible.

c)

repelled by densely packed regions of positive charge.

d)

magnetic.

68.

In 1911, Ernest Rutherford conducted his now famous goldfoil experiment. During the experiment, alpha particles bombarded a thin piece of gold foil. The alpha particles were expected to pass easily through the gold foil. Every now and then, however, an alpha particle bounced back—an unexpected result. Rutherford concluded that these particles were striking....

a)

a tiny region of positive charge.

b)

a dense region of negative charge.

c)

a dense region of neutrons.

d)

a tiny region with a strong magnetic field.

69.

The isotope uranium-235 has 92 protons and 143 neutrons. Therefore, its mass number is

a)

92

b)

235

c)

143

70.

Mass number is...

a)

the average atomic mass of an element.

b)

the total number of electrons in an atom of an element.

c)

the total number of protons in an atom of an element.

d)

the total number of protons and neutrons in an atom of an element.

71.

Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have different

a)

masses

b)

charges

c)

number of electrons

d)

atomic numbers

72.

The atomic number of an element is

a)

the mass of the element.

b)

1 mol of the element.

c)

the number of protons in each atom of the element.

d)

the number of neutrons in each atom of the element.

73.

Which of the following states an important result of Rutherford’s gold-foil experiment?

a)

Atoms have mass.

b)

Electrons have a negative charge.

c)

Neutrons are uncharged particles.

d)

The atom has a nucleus

74.

When an electrical current passed through a glass tube, it caused the surface of the tube directly across from the cathode to glow. Scientists concluded that

a)

a magnetic field was produced.

b)

the particles of the beam were negatively charged.

c)

there was gas in the tube.

d)

atoms were indivisible.

75.

The principles of atomic theory recognized today were conceived by

a)

Avogadro.

b)

Bohr.

c)

Dalton.

d)

Rutherford

76.

The electron notation for aluminum (atomic number 13) is

a)

1s2 2s2 2p3 3s2 3p3 3d1

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 2d1

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1

d)

1s2 2s2 2p9

77.

What is the electron configuration for nitrogen, atomic number 7?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p3

b)

1s2 2s3 2p2

c)

1s2 2s3 2p1

d)

1s2 2s2 2p2 3s1

78.

The element with electron configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2 is

a)

Mg (Z = 12).

b)

C (Z = 6).

c)

S (Z = 16).

d)

Si (Z = 14).

79.

In the electron configuration for scandium (atomic number 21), what is the notation for the three highest-energy electrons?

a)

3d1 4s2

b)

4s3

c)

3d3

d)

4s2 4p1

80.

The atomic sublevel with the next highest energy after 4p is

a)

4d.

b)

4f.

c)

5p

d)

5s.

81.

How many electrons can occupy the s orbitals at each energy level?

a)

two, if they have opposite spins

b)

two, if they have the same spin

c)

one

d)

no more than eight

82.

The number of orbitals for the d sublevel is

a)

1.

b)

3.

c)

5.

d)

7.

83.

The letter designations for the first four sublevels with the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in each sublevel are

a)

s:2, p:4, d:6, and f:8.

b)

s:1, p:3, d:5, and f:7.

c)

s:2, p:6, d:10, and f:14.

d)

s:1, p:2, d:3, and f:4.

84.

An orbital that can never exist according to the quantum description of the atom is

a)

3d.

b)

8s.

c)

6d.

d)

3f.

85.

The major difference between a 1s orbital and a 2s orbital is that

a)

the 2s orbital can hold more electrons.

b)

the 2s orbital has a slightly different shape.

c)

the 2s orbital is at a higher energy level.

d)

the 1s orbital can have only one electron.

86.

The discovery of what elements added a new column to Mendeleev's periodic table?

a)

noble gases

b)

radioactive elements

c)

transition elements

d)

metalloids

87.

The set of orbitals that are dumbbell shaped and directed along the x, y, and z axes are called

a)

d orbitals.

b)

f orbitals.

c)

p orbitals.

d)

s orbitals.

88.

The change of an atom from an excited state to the ground state always requires

a)

absorption of energy.

b)

emission of electromagnetic radiation.

c)

release of visible light.

d)

an increase in electron energy.

89.

The emission of electrons from metals that have absorbed photons is called the

a)

interference effect.

b)

photoelectric effect.

c)

quantum effect.

d)

dual effect.

90.

The energy of a photon is related to its

a)

mass.

b)

speed.

c)

frequency.

d)

size.

91.

The frequency of electromagnetic radiation is measured in waves/second, or

a)

nanometers.

b)

quanta.

c)

hertz.

d)

joules.

92.

Match the model and the scientist.

a)

Billiard ball model

1.

John Dalton

b)

Plum Pudding Model

2.

J.J. Thomson

c)

Nuclear model

3.

Ernest Rutherford

d)

Planetary model

4.

Niels Bohr

e)

Electron Cloud model

5.

Einstein, Heisenburg, Hund

93.

Which scientist developed this model?

a)

Dalton

b)

Thomson

c)

Rutherford

d)

Bohr