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Bonilla ES Midterm Review '23-24

Total questions: 146

Worksheet time: 2hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which lines meet up at the poles of our Earth?

a)

Latitude lines

b)

Longitude lines

c)

both of these

d)

neither of these

2.

The most extreme latitude that exists is how many degrees?

a)

45

b)

180

c)

360

d)

90

3.

What is the 0 degree longitude line called?

a)

Prime Meridian

b)

barycenter

c)

equator

d)

elliptical

4.

Distance from the equator is indicated with

a)

latitude

b)

longitude

5.

When did the Big Bang occur?

a)

thousands of years ago

b)

millions of years ago

c)

billions of years ago

d)

trillions of years ago

6.

Why couldn't elementary particles stick together at the very beginning of the universe?

a)

too cold

b)

too far away from each other

c)

too slow moving

d)

too hot

7.

The most common element in the universe is

a)

carbon

b)

hydrogen

c)

oxygen

d)

helium

8.

The second-most-common element in the universe is

a)

carbon

b)

hydrogen

c)

oxygen

d)

helium

9.

What is a galaxy?

a)

a group of planets

b)

a cloud of only gas and dust

c)

a cluster of moons

d)

a group of stars, plus gas and dust

10.

Which of the following is NOT a type of galaxy shape?

a)

quadratic

b)

spiral

c)

elliptical

d)

irregular

11.

What shape is our galaxy?

a)

elliptical

b)

irregular

c)

parabolic

d)

spiral

12.

Some galaxies have no stars in them.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What does au stand for?

a)

Astro Umbilical

b)

Astronomy University

c)

Astronomical Unit

d)

Amphibious Universe

14.

How long does it take light to travel from the SURFACE of the Sun to the surface of the Earth?

a)

seconds

b)

minutes

c)

days

d)

years

15.

Any time an electric charge moves from one place to another, what is created?

a)

barycenter

b)

precession

c)

gravity

d)

magnetic field

16.

Light exhibits properties of both a particle and a wave.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

The smallest possible quantity of energy that can be transported is called a/an

a)

photon

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

proton

18.

Challenge Q!

"Photons have mass."

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Challenge Q!

The higher the frequency of a wave, the

a)

higher the energy

b)

lower the energy

c)

shorter the wavelength

d)

longer the wavelength

20.

What type of EM radiation has the shortest wavelength?

a)

microwaves

b)

infrared

c)

visible light

d)

gamma rays

21.

What type of EM radiation has the longest wavelength?

a)

radio waves

b)

visible light

c)

ultraviolet

d)

infrared

22.

Which types of EM radiation are emitted by the Sun? Choose all that apply.

a)

radio waves

b)

infrared

c)

microwaves

d)

gamma rays

e)

X-rays

23.

Where are the Earth's magnetic fields strongest?

a)

the Equator

b)

the Prime Meridian

c)

evenly strong everywhere

d)

the poles

24.

In thousands of years, the north star will be Vega instead of Polaris. Why is this?

a)

barycenter

b)

precession

c)

change in axis tilt

d)

change in orbit shape

25.

Which of the following causes us to experience seasons?

a)

Precession

b)

Tilt of Earth's axis

c)

Barycenter

d)

Solstices

26.

There are 4 equinoxes every year.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

The longest day of the year is the

a)

vernal (spring) equinox

b)

summer solstice

c)

autumnal equinox

d)

winter solstice

28.

When one celestial body orbits another, they are actually both orbiting around the middle point of their combined mass, which is called the

a)

precession

b)

equinox

c)

barycenter

d)

obliquity point

29.

Which of the following types of EM radiation do not make it through the Earth's atmosphere? Choose all that apply.

a)

radio waves

b)

visible light

c)

gamma rays

d)

X-rays

30.

What is the outermost layer of the Sun?

a)

photosphere

b)

convection zone

c)

corona

d)

chromosphere

31.

The Earth is an exact sphere.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Distances in our solar system are measured most appropriately in what unit?

a)

Astronomical Units (AU)

b)

light years (ly)

c)

kilometers (km)

d)

miles (mi)

33.

Which of the following elements has 2 protons?

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon

c)

hydrogen

d)

helium

34.

Which of the following has the longest wavelength?

a)

visible light

b)

X-rays

c)

gamma rays

d)

microwaves

35.

Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?

a)

radio waves

b)

ultraviolet (UV)

c)

infrared (IR)

d)

visible light

36.

The layer of the sun where light is finally able to escape intense density is called the

a)

chromosphere

b)

corona

c)

radiation zone

d)

photosphere

37.

Why don't we feel the Earth moving at 110,000 km per hour around the Sun?

a)

Gravity

b)

The speed is constant.

c)

We evolved under these conditions, so we are accustomed to it.

d)

That movement is cancelled out by the movement of the solar system around our galaxy.

38.

The amount of time it takes for the Earth to rotate on its axis a single time.

a)

one hour

b)

one day

c)

one week

d)

one month

e)

one year

39.

The amount of time it takes for the Earth to orbit the Sun once.

a)

one hour

b)

one day

c)

one week

d)

one month

e)

one year

40.

It is okay to look directly at the Sun without protective eyewear.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Storms can influence the tides.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

The eccentricity of a perfect circle is 0.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

The shape of a coastline can influence the tides in that area.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

When did Kepler publish his Laws of Planetary Motion?

a)

early 1400s

b)

early 1600s

c)

early 1800s

45.

How many low tides are there every 24 hour period?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

46.

Tides occur at the same times in a given place every day.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

The amount of time it takes for a planet to complete a single cycle around the Sun is called

a)

orbital period

b)

foci

c)

ellipse

d)

eccentricity

48.

What is the shape of the pathway that planets orbit the Sun in?

a)

quadratic

b)

elliptical

c)

parabolic

d)

eccentric

49.

Kepler's First Law of Planetary Motion

a)

Law of Equal Areas

b)

Law of Harmonies

c)

Law of Ellipses

50.

How many foci are there in an ellipse?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

51.

Orbital periods are proportional to the planet's distance from the Sun.

a)

Law of Equal Areas

b)

Law of Harmonies

c)

Law of Ellipses

52.

The greater the eccentricity, the more elongated an ellipse is.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

When the Sun and Moon pull on the Earth from the same direction, what occurs?

a)

Spring Tides

b)

Neap Tides

54.

Kepler's Second Law of Planetary Motion

a)

Law of Equal Areas

b)

Law of Harmonies

c)

Law of Ellipses

55.

When water moves away from shore during the transition from high to low tide, that is called the

a)

flood current

b)

ebb current

56.

Which device is used to measure humidity?

a)

anemometer

b)

thermometer

c)

hygrometer

d)

barometer

57.

Which of the following symbols represents a warm front?

a)
b)
c)
d)
58.

Where do meteors burn up?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

59.

What percentage of our atmosphere is nitrogen?

a)

2%

b)

15%

c)

21%

d)

78%

e)

90%

60.

What is a barometer used to measure?

a)

Wind Direction

b)

Temperature

c)

Wind Speed

d)

Air Pressure

61.
What does this symbol on a weather map indicate? 
a)
High pressure system
b)
Low pressure system
c)
Cold Front
d)
Warm Front
62.

Where is the International Space Station?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

63.

A front is

a)

where warm air is cooling at earth's surface

b)

a line where hot and cold air are separating

c)

a line where two different air masses meet

d)

where cold air is rising and forming rain clouds

64.

What percentage of our atmosphere is oxygen?

a)

2%

b)

15%

c)

21%

d)

78%

e)

90%

65.

Where does the vast majority of our weather occur?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

66.

Which layer has the lowest temperatures?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

67.

Where is the Hubble Telescope?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

68.

Where are the auroras?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

69.

Which layer has the highest temperatures?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

70.

Which of the following symbols represents an occluded front?

a)
b)
c)
d)
71.

Where is most of the water vapor in our atmosphere?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

72.

Low pressure areas tend to have what kind of weather? Select two answers.

a)

rain

b)

overcast

c)

clear skies

d)

windy

e)

no wind

73.

Where is the ozone layer?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

74.

Where do passenger planes fly during long flights?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

75.

Which of the following symbols represents a stationary front?

a)
b)
c)
d)
76.

Which layers have decreasing temperature with increasing altitude?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

77.

When Naomi the rascally kitten gets warmed up by lying in her heated cat bed, this transfer of heat is called

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

78.

Which layers have increasing temperature with increasing altitude?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

79.

What layer can weather balloons reach?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

80.

When heat is transferred via warm matter rising and cold matter sinking in a continuous cycle, this is called

a)

conduction

b)

insolation

c)

convection

d)

radiation

81.

If an air mass is sinking, it must be

a)

cold and less dense

b)

cold and more dense

c)

warm and more dense

d)

warm and less dense

82.

Air masses are different in many ways. Which of these is NOT different?

a)

moisture contents

b)

ratio of oxygen/nitrogen

c)

density

d)

temperature

83.

If I blew up a balloon in a 72°F classroom and then took it outside where it is 100°F, what would happen to the volume of air in the balloon?

a)

It would shrink.

b)

It wouldn't change size.

c)

It would expand.

84.

Which of the following symbols represents a cold front?

a)
b)
c)
d)
85.
Which type of front is pictured?
a)
Cold front
b)
Warm front
c)
Occluded front
d)
Stationary front
86.

When a cold front or a warm front stays in place for several days without invading another front, it becomes a/n ______.

a)

stationary front

b)

cold front

c)

occluded front

d)

warm front

87.
What does this symbol on a weather map indicate? 
a)
High pressure system
b)
Low pressure system
c)
Cold front
d)
Warm front
88.
If an air mass is rising, it must be
a)
cold and less dense
b)
cold and more dense
c)
warm and more dense
d)
warm and less dense
89.

Winds are caused by differences in

a)

precipitation

b)

humidity

c)

air pressure

d)

turbulance

90.

High pressure areas tend to have what kind of weather? Select two answers.

a)

rain

b)

overcast

c)

clear skies

d)

windy

e)

no wind

91.

Cyclonic winds in the Northern Hemisphere blow

a)

clockwise

b)

counterclockwise

c)

north to south

d)

west to east

92.

Warm fronts tend to bring what kind of precipitation?

a)

prolonged, light rain

b)

short bursts of hard rain

93.

In the Northern hemisphere, cold fronts typically move

a)

north to south

b)

east to west

c)

south to north

d)

west to east

94.

Wind blows from where to where?

a)

high pressure to low pressure

b)

low pressure to high pressure

95.

When water changes from a liquid to a gas, this is called

a)

condensation

b)

precipitation

c)

evaporation

d)

freezing

96.

The amount of water vapor in the air compared to how much could potentially be in the air is called

a)

dew point

b)

absolute humidity

c)

relative humidity

d)

heat index

97.

Which can hold MORE water vapor?

a)

relatively cooler air

b)

relatively warmer air

98.

"The lowest temperature at which air will reach 100% relative humidity" is a definition for which of the following terms?

a)

heat index

b)

condensation nucleus

c)

dew point

d)

absolute humidity

99.

Relative humidity is the best way to determine how comfortable you will feel due to the amount of water vapor in the air.

a)

True

b)

False--absolute humidity is better

c)

False--dew point is better

100.

Why does high humidity make humans feel uncomfortable?

a)

We first evolved in a dry climate.

b)

Humidity is higher now than it ever used to be,

c)

It makes it difficult for our sweat to evaporate.

d)

We're just being whiny.

101.

Heat Index takes into account which TWO factors?

a)

(air) temperature

b)

relative humidity

c)

dew point

d)

UV index

102.

As altitude increases, dew point . . .

a)

also increases

b)

stays the same

c)

decreases

103.

In order for water vapor to condense into liquid droplets, what is needed?

a)

warm front

b)

downdraft

c)

stratus clouds

d)

condensation nuclei

104.

Why do water vapor molecules have a hard time sticking together on their own?

a)

They're too heavy.

b)

They're too fast.

c)

They're too small.

d)

They repel each other.

105.

Which types of clouds are made of ice crystals?

a)

stratus

b)

cumulus

c)

cirrus

106.

Which types of clouds are at the highest altitudes?

a)

stratus

b)

cumulus

c)

cirrus

107.

Which types of clouds are heat neutral? (they reflect as much radiation as they absorb)

a)

stratus

b)

cumulus

c)

cirrus

108.

Clouds that are hazy, smooth, and low altitude are called . . .

a)

stratus

b)

cumulus

c)

cirrus

109.

Which types of clouds insulate the Earth by trapping outgoing radiation?

a)

stratus

b)

cumulus

c)

cirrus

110.

Which types of clouds are flat-bottomed and fluffy-looking?

a)

stratus

b)

cumulus

c)

cirrus

111.

Which types of clouds insulate the Earth by reflecting lots of incoming radiation?

a)

stratus

b)

cumulus

c)

cirrus

112.

The last stage of a thunderstorm is called the

a)

cumulus stage

b)

dissipating stage

c)

downdraft stage

d)

mature stage

113.

Thunderstorms dissipate from the top down.

(the top disappears first, then the middle, then the bottom)

a)

True

b)

False--it all dissipates at the same time

c)

False--the bottom dissipates first

114.

Which thunderstorm stages involve updrafts?

a)

Cumulus stage

b)

Mature stage

c)

Dissipating stage

115.

What would be the effect on the particles in the animation if more heat is supplied to the system?

a)

They would slow down.

b)

They would stop moving completely.

c)

They would speed up.

d)

There would be no effect.

116.
How does heat flow?
a)
Always from cold to warm
b)
Always from warm to cold
c)
Both warm to cold & cold to warm
d)
It depends on the temperature
117.

Which of the following best explains why the sand at the beach is hotter than the water?

a)

Sand has a higher specific heat than water.

b)

Sand has a lower specific heat than water.

c)

There is more water than sand at the beach.

d)

There is more sand than water at the beach.

118.

The amount of energy required to raise the temperature 1ºC for every gram is called____?

a)

Thermal Energy

b)

Specific Heat

c)

Temperature

d)

Vibration

119.

Movements of ocean water in a continuous flow in a particular direction are called?

a)

ocean currents

b)

global winds

c)

air masses

d)

weather fronts

120.
Warm ocean currents generally come from
a)

the North Pole

b)

the South Pole

c)

the Equator

d)

upwelling

121.

Decreasing water temperature causes the density of the water to ______.

a)

increase

b)

stay the same

c)

decrease

122.

Increasing water salinity causes the density of the water to ______.

a)

increase

b)

stay the same

c)

decrease

123.

Where is ocean water the most dense?

a)

the surface

b)

near the Equator

c)

the bottom

d)

the middle of gyres

124.

What causes deep ocean currents?

a)

The Coriolis Effect

b)

gyres

c)

wind

d)

density differences

125.

What causes ocean currents in the Northern Hemisphere to rotate clockwise?

a)
Earth's orbit around the Sun
b)
Earth's spinning on its axis
c)
Earth's magnetic field
d)
Earth's force of gravity
126.
If the Earth did not rotate on its axis, there would be no
a)

Great Ocean Conveyor Belt

b)
Coriolis effect
c)

upwelling

d)
Convection
127.
What happens to a current when it comes in contact with a continent or landmass?
a)

It continues over the continent.

b)

It stops.

c)

It changes direction.

d)

It is absorbed by the land.

128.

Nutrients are brought to the surface for phytoplankton to use at _______.

a)

gyres

b)

eddies

c)

upwellings

d)

the equator

129.

________ and _______ affect the ocean's density and cause the Great Ocean Conveyor Belt to travel.

a)

gravity and the Coriolis Effect

b)

temperature and salinity

c)

wind and climate

d)

temperature and the Coriolis Effect

130.

The more scientific name of the Great Ocean Conveyor Belt is _____.

a)

halinethermal circulation

b)

thermohaline circulation

c)

thermodensity circulation

d)

upwelling

131.

What is the large, circular surface-current pattern found in each ocean called?

a)
California Current
b)
Surface Current
c)
Gyre
d)

Great Ocean Conveyor Belt

132.

What percentage of the Earth's water is freshwater?

a)

1%

b)

2.5%

c)

12%

d)

25%

133.

Most of the Earth's freshwater can be found . . .

a)

in lakes and rivers

b)

in groundwater

c)

in glaciers and permanent snow cover

134.

When exposed to the same amount of heat, which of the following substances will increase in temperature the MOST?

a)

water

b)

rubber

c)

gold

d)

cement

135.

When exposed to the same amount of heat, which of the following substances will increase in temperature the LEAST?

a)

water

b)

rubber

c)

gold

d)

cement

136.

A kitchen sponge is . . .

a)

porous, but not permeable

b)

both porous and permeable

c)

not porous, but permeable

137.

Clay is . . .

a)

porous, but not very permeable

b)

both porous and permeable

c)

not very porous, but very permeable

138.

ENSO stands for . . .

a)

Extreme Nautical Surface Oscillations

b)

El Niño Southern Oscillation Cycle

c)

Equatorial Nuisance Sea Observations

d)

El Niño Surface Observations

139.

Winds across the equatorial Pacific normally blow . . .

a)

from north to south

b)

from south to north

c)

from west to east

d)

from east to west

140.

During an El Niño event, trade winds are typically...

a)

about average

b)

stronger

c)

weaker

141.

When La Niña is occurring, ocean surface temperatures in the Pacific are _______ than normal.

a)

higher

b)

the same as

c)

lower

142.

The ENSO cycle is irregular, but it tends to reset every ________ years.

a)

10-17

b)

100-150

c)

3-12

d)

2-7

143.

An El Niño or La Niña event usually lasts for _________ months.

a)

1-2

b)

3-7

c)

9-12

d)

24-36

144.

El Niño MOST DIRECTLY affects what?

a)

precipitation

b)

sea surface temperature

c)

evaporation

d)

cloud formation

145.

Which of the following is a negative health consequence connected to ENSO?

a)

heart disease

b)

cancer

c)

malnutrition

d)

diabetes

146.

What part of the ENSO cycle are we in NOW? (Dec 2023)

a)

El Niño

b)

neutral

c)

La Niña

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