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Unit 2: How do we respond to exercise/ activity?

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not part of the nervous system?

a)

Brain

b)

Spinal cord

c)

Muscles

d)

Nerves

2.

What does the nervous system do for your body?

a)

Only controls movement

b)

Senses how your body is doing and controls all functions

c)

Only helps you breathe

d)

Only controls your emotions

3.

What are the two main parts of the nervous system?

a)

Brain and nerves

b)

Central nervous system and peripheral nervous system

c)

Spinal cord and brain stem

d)

Sensory and motor nerves

4.

What does the central nervous system (CNS) include?

a)

Brain and spinal cord

b)

Nerves and muscles

c)

Heart and lungs

d)

Brain and nerves

5.

What does the CNS do every day?

a)

Control reflexes only

b)

Maintain homeostasis

c)

Pump blood

d)

Control digestion

6.

What does the peripheral nervous system (PNS) include?

a)

Just the spinal cord

b)

All the nerves in your body

c)

Only the brain

d)

The heart and lungs

7.

What is the job of sensory nerves?

a)

Send information to the brain and spinal cord

b)

Move your muscles

c)

Control your heart rate

d)

Help you breathe

8.

What is the job of motor nerves?

a)

Take in information from the environment

b)

Respond to information and make the body act

c)

Control smell and taste

d)

Send messages only to the brain

9.

What do somatic nerves control?

a)

Involuntary muscles like the heart

b)

Voluntary muscles like the biceps

c)

Hormones and glands

d)

Breathing and digestion

10.

What do autonomic nerves control?

a)

Voluntary muscles

b)

Emotions

c)

Involuntary actions like heartbeat and breathing

d)

Only digestion

11.

Which two systems make up the autonomic nervous system?

a)

Sensory and motor systems

b)

Somatic and sympathetic systems

c)

Parasympathetic and sympathetic systems

d)

Central and peripheral systems

12.

The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for:

a)

Fight or flight

b)

Rest and digest

c)

Reflexes

d)

Vision and smell

13.

Which of the following happens during a sympathetic response?

a)

Heart rate slows down

b)

You get sleepy

c)

Pupils dilate and heart rate increases

d)

Breathing slows

14.

What do receptors in the body do?

a)

Control movement

b)

Detect changes inside and outside the body

c)

Produce hormones

d)

Store memories

15.

Which receptor helps with balance and movement?

a)

Chemoreceptor

b)

Baroreceptor

c)

Proprioceptor

d)

Photoreceptor

16.

Which receptor detects chemicals such as taste or smell?

a)

Chemoreceptor

b)

Mechanoreceptor

c)

Baroreceptor

d)

Thermoreceptor

17.

Which receptor detects pressure, such as high blood pressure?

a)

Chemoreceptor

b)

Baroreceptor

c)

Proprioceptor

d)

Reflex receptor

18.

What part of the brain controls ideas, emotions, and personality?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Brain stem

c)

Cerebrum

d)

Thalamus

19.

The hypothalamus helps maintain:

a)

Breathing only

b)

Balance and movement

c)

Homeostasis (body temperature, hunger, thirst)

d)

Hearing and vision

20.

What part of the brain controls balance and movement?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Thalamus

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Brain stem

21.

What part of the brain connects the brain and spinal cord?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Brain stem

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Hypothalamus

22.

What is homeostasis?

a)

The process of breaking down food into energy

b)

The body's ability to maintain a stable internal environment

c)

The movement of oxygen through the bloodstream

d)

The control of voluntary muscles

23.

Which two body systems are mainly responsible for maintaining homeostasis?

a)

Circulatory and digestive systems

b)

Nervous and endocrine systems

c)

Respiratory and skeletal systems

d)

Muscular and integumentary systems

24.

Which statement about the nervous and endocrine systems is correct?

a)

Both send electrical messages through nerves

b)

The nervous system works slower than the endocrine system

c)

The endocrine system uses hormones while the nervous system uses electrical signals

d)

Both systems work at the same speed

25.

Which of the following is an example of negative feedback?

a)

Labor contractions during childbirth

b)

Blood clotting

c)

Sweating to cool the body when overheated

d)

A heart attack caused by high blood pressure

26.

Which of the following is an example of positive feedback?

a)

Shivering when cold

b)

Childbirth contractions

c)

Regulation of blood sugar

d)

Sweating to cool the body

27.

Which of the following lists the correct order of a feedback mechanism?

a)

Effector → Receptor → Control center

b)

Control center → Effector → Receptor

c)

Receptor → Control center → Effector

d)

Effector → Control center → Receptor

28.

What is the main role of the hypothalamus?

a)

Produces insulin

b)

Regulates many body functions such as temperature, hunger, and thirst

c)

Pumps blood through the heart

d)

Controls muscle contractions

29.

Which of the following is not controlled by the hypothalamus?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Body temperature

c)

Heart rate

d)

Bone growth

30.

What is the normal blood pH range?

a)

6.5 – 6.8

b)

7.0 – 7.2

c)

7.35 – 7.45

d)

8.0 – 8.5

31.

How does increased CO2 affect blood pH?

a)

Increases pH and makes blood more basic

b)

Decreases pH and makes blood more acidic

c)

Has no effect on pH

d)

Neutralizes blood pH completely

32.

What causes the body to breathe faster when blood becomes too acidic?

a)

The increase in carbon dioxide

b)

A drop in oxygen

c)

The need to release more hydrogen ions

d)

The activation of the parasympathetic system

33.

What does the SA node do in the heart?

a)

Pumps blood into the lungs

b)

Generates an electrical signal to start the heartbeat

c)

Slows the heartbeat

d)

Contracts the ventricles

34.

What does the AV node do?

a)

Controls blood pressure

b)

Sends a signal that contracts the ventricles

c)

Measures oxygen levels

d)

Controls breathing

35.

How does the parasympathetic nervous system affect heart rate?

a)

Speeds it up

b)

Slows it down

c)

Has no effect

d)

Stops it completely

36.

Which hormone is released by the adrenal glands to increase heart rate?

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Epinephrine (adrenaline)

d)

Estrogen

37.

When blood glucose levels increase, what happens?

a)

The pancreas releases glucagon

b)

The pancreas releases insulin

c)

The liver releases glycogen

d)

The body begins to shiver

38.

When blood glucose levels decrease, what hormone is released?

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Cortisol

39.

What does insulin do?

a)

Causes cells to take in glucose from the blood

b)

Increases blood sugar

c)

Breaks down glycogen in the liver

d)

Inhibits glucose absorption

40.

What does insulin resistance mean?

a)

The body does not produce any insulin

b)

Cells do not respond well to insulin

c)

Cells take in too much glucose

d)

The pancreas is overactive

41.

Which of the following increases insulin sensitivity?

a)

Exercise

b)

Poor diet

c)

Lack of sleep

d)

Stress

42.

What systems work together for thermoregulation?

a)

Muscular, cardiovascular, nervous, and integumentary

b)

Respiratory, digestive, skeletal, and muscular

c)

Circulatory, endocrine, and reproductive

d)

Nervous, skeletal, digestive, and urinary

43.

What is the body's average core temperature?

a)

36 ± 1°C

b)

37 ± 1°C

c)

38 ± 1°C

d)

39 ± 1°C

44.

What is non-shivering thermogenesis?

a)

The process of sweating to cool down

b)

The increase in metabolism to produce heat without shivering

c)

The dilation of blood vessels to release heat

d)

The contraction of muscles to produce heat

45.

How does shivering help regulate temperature?

a)

Reduces muscle activity

b)

Releases heat through muscle contractions

c)

Stores energy for later use

d)

Increases sweating

46.

How does sweating cool the body?

a)

By absorbing heat into the bloodstream

b)

By evaporating off the skin and carrying heat away

c)

By closing pores to prevent heat loss

d)

By increasing body temperature

47.

Which of the following can affect thermoregulation?

a)

Training status

b)

Body composition

c)

Environment and sex differences

d)

All of the above

48.

In which phase of the menstrual cycle might body temperature be slightly higher?

a)

Follicular phase

b)

Luteal phase

c)

Ovulation phase

d)

Menstrual phase

49.

What is the main function of the cardiovascular system?

a)

To digest food and absorb nutrients

b)

To transport nutrients, gases, hormones, and waste throughout the body

c)

To control body temperature through sweating

d)

To store energy in the muscles

50.

The respiratory system allows the body to:

a)

Produce red blood cells

b)

Exchange gases for cellular respiration

c)

Circulate hormones through the blood

d)

Store oxygen in the muscles

51.

Which of the following factors can affect heart rate and stroke volume?

a)

Age

b)

Sex

c)

Fitness level

d)

All of the above

52.

Breathing occurs mainly by:

a)

The contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm

b)

The contraction of the heart muscle

c)

The movement of the stomach muscles

d)

The expansion of blood vessels

53.

During inhalation, what happens to the diaphragm and lung volume?

a)

Diaphragm relaxes, lungs decrease in volume

b)

Diaphragm contracts, lungs increase in volume

c)

Diaphragm contracts, lungs decrease in volume

d)

Diaphragm relaxes, lungs increase in volume

54.

During exercise, what muscles assist the diaphragm?

a)

Biceps and triceps

b)

Intercostal muscles

c)

Deltoids

d)

Quadriceps

55.

The internal intercostal muscles help with:

a)

Breathing in (inhalation)

b)

Breathing out (exhalation)

c)

Controlling blood flow

d)

Regulating heart rate

56.

The correct path of air from nose to alveoli is:

a)

Nasal cavity → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchus → Bronchioles → Alveoli

b)

Nasal cavity → Trachea → Larynx → Pharynx → Alveoli

c)

Mouth → Bronchioles → Trachea → Lungs

d)

Pharynx → Bronchus → Trachea → Larynx

57.

Where does gas exchange occur in the lungs?

a)

Trachea

b)

Bronchi

c)

Alveoli

d)

Pharynx

58.

Oxygen moves from the alveoli into the blood because:

a)

The blood has a higher oxygen concentration

b)

The alveoli have a higher oxygen concentration

c)

It is pumped there by the heart

d)

The diaphragm pushes oxygen into the blood

59.

Which of the following defines tidal volume?

a)

The amount of air left after maximum exhale

b)

The normal amount of air moved in or out per breath

c)

The total volume of the lungs

d)

The volume of air exhaled per minute

60.

The air left in the lungs after a full exhale is called:

a)

Vital capacity

b)

Inspiratory reserve volume

c)

Expiratory reserve volume

d)

Residual volume

61.

What is minute ventilation?

a)

Tidal volume ÷ breaths per minute

b)

Tidal volume × breaths per minute

c)

Total lung capacity ÷ residual volume

d)

The amount of oxygen per heartbeat

62.

During exercise, minute ventilation:

a)

Decreases

b)

Stays the same

c)

Increases

d)

Stops temporarily

63.

Which of the following are components of blood?

a)

Plasma, platelets, white blood cells, red blood cells

b)

Oxygen, water, glucose

c)

Hormones, electrolytes, gases

d)

Only plasma and red blood cells

64.

What percentage of blood is made up of plasma?

a)

25%

b)

45%

c)

55%

d)

65%

65.

What is the main function of red blood cells?

a)

Fight infections

b)

Transport oxygen and carbon dioxide

c)

Form blood clots

d)

Carry nutrients

66.

Which protein in red blood cells binds oxygen?

a)

Myoglobin

b)

Actin

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Collagen

67.

Most carbon dioxide travels in the blood as:

a)

Bicarbonate (HCO3-)

b)

Gas bubbles

c)

Bound to platelets

d)

Stored in white blood cells

68.

What is the function of erythropoietin (EPO)?

a)

Increases white blood cell production

b)

Stimulates red blood cell production

c)

Decreases blood pressure

d)

Regulates blood sugar

69.

Which blood vessel carries blood away from the heart?

a)

Veins

b)

Arteries

c)

Capillaries

d)

Venules

70.

Which blood vessel carries blood toward the heart?

a)

Arteries

b)

Veins

c)

Arterioles

d)

Capillaries

71.

What is the function of capillaries?

a)

Transport blood at high pressure

b)

Store blood for emergencies

c)

Exchange gases and nutrients between blood and tissues

d)

Filter blood through the kidneys

72.

What is systemic circulation?

a)

Blood flow from lungs to heart

b)

Blood flow from heart to body and back

c)

Blood flow from heart to lungs

d)

Blood flow only to muscles

73.

What is pulmonary circulation?

a)

Blood flow through the liver

b)

Blood flow through the brain

c)

Blood flow between the heart and lungs

d)

Blood flow between the heart and body

74.

Veins have valves to:

a)

Prevent backward flow of blood

b)

Increase blood pressure

c)

Store oxygen

d)

Slow blood circulation

75.

How many chambers are in the heart?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

76.

Which side of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the body?

a)

Right side

b)

Left side

c)

Both sides

d)

Neither

77.

Which valve is between the right atrium and right ventricle?

a)

Mitral valve

b)

Tricuspid valve

c)

Pulmonary valve

d)

Aortic valve

78.

Which valve prevents blood from flowing back into the left ventricle?

a)

Pulmonary valve

b)

Tricuspid valve

c)

Aortic valve

d)

Mitral valve

79.

What is blood pressure?

a)

The force blood exerts on vessel walls

b)

The number of red blood cells

c)

The oxygen level in the blood

d)

The thickness of the plasma

80.

The contracting phase of the heart is called:

a)

Diastole

b)

Systole

c)

Hypertrophy

d)

Cardiac drift

81.

Normal resting systolic pressure is approximately:

a)

50–70 mmHg

b)

80–90 mmHg

c)

90–120 mmHg

d)

130–150 mmHg

82.

During exercise, blood flow to the muscles:

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stops

d)

Remains the same

83.

During exercise, blood flow to the liver and kidneys:

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays constant

d)

Doubles

84.

What is stroke volume?

a)

Amount of blood in the body

b)

Blood pressure during rest

c)

Amount of blood ejected by the heart per beat

d)

Volume of plasma in the blood

85.

What is cardiac output (Q)?

a)

Stroke volume × heart rate

b)

Blood pressure ÷ stroke volume

c)

Oxygen uptake × heart rate

d)

Blood volume × body mass

86.

What happens to heart rate, stroke volume, and cardiac output during exercise?

a)

All decrease

b)

All increase

c)

Only heart rate increases

d)

Only stroke volume decreases

87.

What is cardiovascular drift?

a)

Decrease in stroke volume and increase in heart rate during prolonged exercise

b)

Increase in blood pressure at rest

c)

Decrease in heart rate and cardiac output

d)

Blood pooling in the legs

88.

What does VO2 max measure?

a)

The total amount of blood in the body

b)

The maximum rate of oxygen uptake and use during exercise

c)

The number of breaths per minute

d)

The pressure in the arteries

89.

A higher VO2 max indicates:

a)

Lower endurance

b)

Higher aerobic fitness

c)

Poor lung function

d)

Weak heart muscles

90.

What is one key function of water in the body?

a)

Acts as a storage for vitamins

b)

Serves as a solvent to transport substances

c)

Increases body temperature

d)

Thickens the blood

91.

What percentage of body mass is typically water?

a)

10–20%

b)

30–40%

c)

50–70%

d)

80–90%

92.

Lean tissue has ______ water content compared to fat tissue.

a)

Less

b)

Equal

c)

More

d)

None

93.

Most of the body's water is found in:

a)

Extracellular fluid

b)

Intracellular fluid

c)

Blood plasma

d)

Digestive system

94.

The main ion found inside cells (intracellular fluid) is:

a)

Sodium (Na+)

b)

Potassium (K+)

c)

Calcium (Ca2+)

d)

Chloride (Cl−)

95.

The main ion found outside cells (extracellular fluid) is:

a)

Potassium (K+)

b)

Sodium (Na+)

c)

Magnesium (Mg2+)

d)

Iron (Fe3+)

96.

About how much water does the average adult lose per day?

a)

1 liter

b)

2.5 liters

c)

5 liters

d)

8 liters

97.

Which of the following is not a normal way the body loses water?

a)

Sweating

b)

Breathing

c)

Urination

d)

Storing in the liver

98.

What three organs regulate water and electrolyte balance?

a)

Brain, lungs, stomach

b)

Hypothalamus, pituitary gland, kidneys

c)

Liver, pancreas, kidneys

d)

Skin, heart, lungs

99.

What hormone is released by the pituitary gland to conserve water?

a)

Insulin

b)

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Estrogen

100.

What effect does ADH have on the kidneys?

a)

Increases urine output

b)

Decreases water reabsorption

c)

Increases water reabsorption

d)

Stops blood flow to kidneys

101.

The hypothalamus helps control water balance by:

a)

Activating thirst

b)

Releasing glucose

c)

Storing extra water

d)

Decreasing blood pressure

102.

When water is low and solute is high, the condition is called:

a)

Hypotonic

b)

Hypertonic

c)

Isotonic

d)

Neutral

103.

When water is high and solute is low, the condition is:

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

d)

Saturated

104.

The kidneys help maintain homeostasis by:

a)

Producing bile

b)

Filtering waste and regulating water balance

c)

Making red blood cells

d)

Absorbing nutrients

105.

The functional unit of the kidney is called the:

a)

Nephron

b)

Alveolus

c)

Capillary

d)

Bronchiole

106.

Hyponatremia occurs when:

a)

Water intake is too low

b)

Sodium levels rise due to dehydration

c)

Water intake is too high, diluting sodium

d)

Potassium levels drop

107.

Why can drinking only water be dangerous during endurance sports?

a)

It increases muscle fatigue

b)

It causes high blood pressure

c)

It replaces water but not electrolytes

d)

It prevents sweat production

108.

Which of the following is a symptom of hyponatremia?

a)

Fever and chills

b)

Headache and nausea

c)

Fast breathing

d)

Low blood sugar

109.

Cardiovascular drift happens when:

a)

Blood volume increases during rest

b)

Heart rate decreases and stroke volume increases

c)

Heart rate increases and stroke volume decreases over time

d)

The body cools too quickly

110.

What causes cardiovascular drift during prolonged exercise?

a)

Increased water storage

b)

Water loss and rising body temperature

c)

Increased oxygen supply

d)

Decreased muscle activity

111.

How does dehydration affect cardiovascular drift?

a)

Slows it down

b)

Speeds it up

c)

Prevents it

d)

Has no effect

112.

What is attention in sport and exercise psychology?

a)

The act of ignoring irrelevant information

b)

The concentration of mental activity on current tasks

c)

The physical reaction to stress

d)

The automatic control of muscle movement

113.

What is concentration?

a)

Dividing focus between multiple tasks

b)

The intentional direction of mental effort to the current situation

c)

The awareness of multiple game aspects

d)

The ability to recall past performances

114.

What is selective attention?

a)

The ability to ignore distractions while focusing on important information

b)

The awareness of multiple sensory inputs

c)

The process of switching attention from one task to another

d)

The ability to think about two things at once

115.

What is divided attention?

a)

Paying attention to one thing

b)

Focusing on an opponent

c)

The ability to multitask and perform more than one action at the same time

d)

Ignoring all distractions

116.

What does focus refer to?

a)

The broad awareness of the environment

b)

The central point of attention

c)

The long-term memory of a skill

d)

The energy used in physical movement

117.

What is situational awareness?

a)

Awareness of surroundings that influence decision-making

b)

Knowledge of only the self during performance

c)

The ability to focus on a single movement

d)

The ability to predict an opponent’s score

118.

What is attentional flexibility?

a)

The ability to remember multiple plays

b)

The ability to switch focus depending on the situation

c)

The ability to avoid all distractions

d)

The ability to focus on internal thoughts only

119.

Internal distractors come from:

a)

The crowd or environmental noises

b)

The athlete’s own thoughts or emotions

c)

The opponent’s actions

d)

The coach’s directions

120.

External distractors are:

a)

Negative self-talk

b)

Feelings of anxiety

c)

Visual or auditory distractions from the environment

d)

Thoughts about technique

121.

Which of the following is not a building block of concentration?

a)

Decide to concentrate

b)

Focus on one thought

c)

Worry about uncontrollable factors

d)

Do what you are thinking

122.

What is controlled distraction?

a)

Allowing all thoughts to enter freely

b)

The ability to identify and manage distractions during performance

c)

Ignoring all outside factors

d)

Focusing on emotions rather than the task

123.

Which of the following is a controlled distraction technique?

a)

Mental practice

b)

Ignoring instructions

c)

Changing the rules of the sport

d)

Avoiding focus

124.

What is the purpose of trigger words?

a)

To motivate teammates

b)

To direct focus to a specific task

c)

To increase arousal

d)

To signal the end of a play

125.

Which of the following is an example of a routine used to control focus?

a)

Performing the same warm-up before every serve

b)

Listening to random music

c)

Avoiding concentration before games

d)

Changing habits frequently

126.

What is an internal attentional focus?

a)

Concentration on outside cues like the ball

b)

Focus on thoughts, emotions, or body movements

c)

Awareness of multiple environmental factors

d)

Awareness of team strategy

127.

What is arousal in sports psychology?

a)

A physiological and psychological state of activation

b)

The feeling of tiredness and relaxation

c)

A state of mental confusion

d)

A reduction in heart rate and focus

128.

What happens when arousal is too high?

a)

Concentration improves automatically

b)

Attentional narrowing occurs

c)

Breathing rate slows

d)

Athletes become more relaxed

129.

What is attentional narrowing?

a)

Expanding awareness to all aspects of the environment

b)

Focusing on only relevant cues when arousal is high

c)

Losing awareness of surroundings

d)

Decreasing arousal levels

130.

How can attentional narrowing help performance?

a)

By filtering out irrelevant information

b)

By reducing focus on the task

c)

By increasing distractions

d)

By encouraging negative thoughts

131.

How can attentional narrowing hurt performance?

a)

Too many distractions are noticed

b)

Important cues are ignored

c)

The athlete becomes more flexible

d)

Awareness increases too much

132.

Which sports typically require high arousal for best performance?

a)

Chess and yoga

b)

Powerlifting and sprinting

c)

Archery and golf

d)

Ballet and shooting

133.

Which sports typically require low arousal?

a)

Marathon running

b)

Gymnastics and shooting

c)

Soccer and basketball

d)

Boxing and wrestling

134.

What is an external focus of attention?

a)

Focusing on what should happen, not body movement

b)

Concentrating on one’s own breathing

c)

Paying attention to muscle tension

d)

Blocking out all external stimuli

135.

Which type of focus—internal or external—usually leads to better motor performance?

a)

Internal focus

b)

External focus

c)

Both are equal

d)

Neither affects performance

136.

What does associative focus mean?

a)

Focusing on something unrelated to the task

b)

Focusing on bodily sensations or technique

c)

Mentally blocking out the performance

d)

Thinking about something else while performing

137.

What does dissociative focus mean?

a)

Concentrating on external factors

b)

Distracting oneself from sensations or fatigue

c)

Thinking about how muscles move

d)

Focusing on errors

138.

Skilled performance is characterized by:

a)

Effectiveness and efficiency

b)

Speed only

c)

Effort without control

d)

Accuracy but not consistency

139.

How can coaches help athletes improve attentional focus?

a)

Using feedback and questioning

b)

Avoiding distractions altogether

c)

Reducing arousal completely

d)

Teaching only internal focus

140.

What is non-linear pedagogy?

a)

A coaching method that emphasizes rigid, step-by-step control

b)

A coaching method that allows athletes to adapt independently

c)

A teaching style focused only on memorization

d)

A drill-based learning system

141.

How does self-talk help attentional control?

a)

It increases distraction

b)

It reduces cognitive focus

c)

It helps direct and maintain attention on the task

d)

It raises anxiety levels

142.

What is the role of goal setting in attentional control?

a)

Increases pressure on performance

b)

Creates irrelevant focus

c)

Directs attention toward the current task or objective

d)

Decreases motivation

143.

What does arousal refer to?

a)

The body’s response to fatigue

b)

The level of physical and psychological activation

c)

A decrease in mental focus

d)

The inability to control stress

144.

The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for:

a)

Relaxation and recovery

b)

Fight-or-flight responses

c)

Memory and learning

d)

Muscle growth and repair

145.

Which of the following is a physical response to stress?

a)

Lower heart rate

b)

Reduced alertness

c)

Increased adrenaline release

d)

Muscle relaxation

146.

According to Drive Theory, how does performance change as arousal increases?

a)

Performance decreases linearly

b)

Performance stays constant

c)

Performance increases linearly

d)

Performance fluctuates randomly

147.

Why has Drive Theory fallen out of favor?

a)

It doesn’t account for over-arousal

b)

It’s too complex

c)

It only applies to beginners

d)

It ignores motivation

148.

What does the Inverted-U Theory suggest?

a)

The higher the arousal, the better the performance

b)

There is an optimal level of arousal for best performance

c)

Low arousal always produces the best results

d)

High arousal never helps performance

149.

When arousal is too high, performance:

a)

Increases

b)

Remains constant

c)

Declines

d)

Improves slightly

150.

What is the Individual Zone of Optimal Functioning (IZOF)?

a)

The same arousal range for all athletes

b)

The personal arousal level at which each athlete performs best

c)

A theory that replaces the Inverted-U model

d)

A measure of physical endurance