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Worksheets

Honors Chem Review/Study Set

Total questions: 147

Worksheet time: 2hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a chemical change?

a)

Cooking an egg

b)

Burning a candle

c)

Adding sugar to coffee

d)

Rust forming on steel knives

2.

Below is a list of physical properties and the fundamental unit used in the SI system to measure each. Which unit is not matched correctly to the fundamental unit for the property?

a)

length - meter

b)

time - second

c)

mass - gram

d)

temperature - Kelvin

3.

A scientist obtains the number 1250.37986 on a calculator. If this value can only have four significant digits, how should it be reported?

a)

1251

b)

1250.3799

c)

1250.4

d)

1.250 x 103

e)

1.250 x 10-3

4.

When expressed in exponential notation, the number 0.000302 becomes:

a)

3.02 x 10-4

b)

3.02 x 104

c)

3.02 x 103

d)

3.02 x 10-3

5.

Substances that cannot be broken down into other substances by ordinary chemical changes are classified as:

a)

phases

b)

elements

c)

compounds

d)

solutions

e)

mixtures

6.

Which of the following properties of sulfur are chemical properties?

a)

It reacts with hydrogen when heated

b)

It is a yellow solid at room temperature

c)

It is soluable in carbon disulfide

d)

It's density is 2.97 g/cm3

e)

It melts at 112oC

7.

The sum 3.834 + 2.02 + 4.71630 + 238.1621 + 186.2 expressed to the proper number of significant figures is:

a)

435

b)

434.9

c)

434.93

d)

434.932

e)

434.9324

8.

Solve and round the proper number of significant figures.

(12.67 x 4.23) / 23.42 =

a)

2.3

b)

2.29

c)

2.288

d)

2.88

e)

2.2884

9.

Solve and round the proper number of significant figures.

(1.44x103 / 1.2x10-3) x 8.001x102

a)

9.6x102

b)

9.60x108

c)

9.601x108

d)

9.6x108

e)

9.6x10-2

10.

Which term refers to the reproducibility or repeatability of a measurement?

a)

Accuracy

b)

Precision

c)

Qualatative

d)

Quantitative

e)

Property

11.

The lowest possible temperature is _____.

a)

-273oK

b)

-273oF

c)

-273oC

d)

273oK

e)

273oC

12.

In addition to volume, which property of matter must be known in order to calculate mass?

a)

temperature

b)

pressure

c)

density

d)

specific heat

13.

A solution is an example of a(n):

a)

homogeneous mixture

b)

heterogeneous mixture

c)

element

d)

compound

e)

none of these

14.

All of the following are physical properties of a substance in a liquid state except:

a)

indefinite volume

b)

definite mass

c)

incompressible

d)

indefinite shape

15.

A compound:

a)

can physically be separated into its elements

b)

has variable composition

c)

has properties similar to those of its elements

d)

is a pure substance

16.

A gas is a form of matter that:

a)

has a definite volume

b)

takes the shape of its container

c)

is generally a liquid or solid at room temperature

d)

is difficult to compress

17.

Solve the expression to the correct significant figures:

2.34 + 0.567 + 63.2 =

a)

66.107

b)

66.1

c)

66.10

d)

66

18.

Which of the following is a chemical property of iron?

a)

Density = 7.874 g/mL

b)

Iron melts at 1808 K

c)

Iron rusts in moist air

d)

Iron is soft when pure

19.

You have 25.0 mL of orange, liquid bromine. Which part of this statement refers to the qualitative information?

a)

25.0 mL

b)

orange, liquid

20.

You have a jar of chunky peanut butter. What is it?

a)

homogeneous mixture

b)

heterogeneous mixture

c)

element

d)

compound

21.

Which of these is an extensive property of a water sample?

a)

colorless

b)

density = 1.00g/mL

c)

transparent

d)

volume

22.

How many significant digits are in the following number?

980

a)

3

b)

2

c)

1

23.

How many significant digits are in the following number?

0.00256

a)

6

b)

5

c)

4

d)

3

24.

How many significant digits are in the following number?

0.20200

a)

6

b)

5

c)

4

d)

2

25.

How many significant digits are in the following number?

3.20 x 10-8

a)

6

b)

5

c)

3

d)

2

26.

How many significant digits are in the following number?

5009

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

1

27.

Below is a list of the types of chemistry, along with a description of each. Which type of chemistry is NOT matched with the correct description?

a)

Inorganic: regarding all matter except carbon-containing

b)

Analytical: focuses on the composition of matter

c)

Physical: study of all chemicals containing carbon

d)

Biochemistry: chemistry of living organisms

28.

How long should a person flush their eyes in the eye wash sink?

a)

5 mins

b)

10 mins

c)

15 mins

d)

20 mins

29.

What does MSDS stand for?

a)

Manufacturer's Safety Data Set

b)

Medical Safety Data Systems

c)

Mission Specific Data Sets

d)

Material Safety Data Sheet

30.

When heating up a test tube in the lab, you should always

a)

hold it with your hands

b)

leave it unattended

c)

point it away from yourself and others

d)

inhale the vapors exiting the tube

31.

What is the mass of a 35.0 mL sample of concentrated sulfuric acid (density = 1.84 g/mL)?

a)

64.4 g

b)

64 g

c)

19.0 g

d)

19 g

32.

A metal cube having a mass of 112 g is dropped into a graduated cylinder containing 30.00mL of water. This causes the water level to rise to 39.50mL. What is the density of the cube?

a)

11.8 g/cm3

b)

11.79 g/cm3

c)

2.84 g/cm3

d)

2.835 g/cm3

33.

Which factors affect the rate of a reaction?

a)

temperature

b)

concentration

c)

size

d)

pressure

e)

catalyst

34.

Increase in temperature causes the particles to

a)

slow down

b)

move faster

c)

stay apart from each other

d)

move in the correct order

35.

Why does a higher concentration increase the rate of reaction?

a)

it increases the amount of reactants

b)

it lowers the activation energy

c)

it increases the energy of reactant particles

d)

it increases the frequency of collision

36.

Why does a higher temperature increase the rate of a reaction?

a)

It increases both the frequency collision and energy of reactant particles

b)

It only increases the frequency of collision

c)

It only increases the energy of reactant particles

d)

It reduces the activation energy of the reaction

37.
What is the rate of reaction?
a)
How fast a reaction is 
b)
How big a reaction is
c)
How loud a reaction is
d)
How much gas a reaction produces
38.

Grinding an effervescent tablet into powder increases the rate of reaction due to increase of

a)

concentration

b)

total surface area

c)

temperature

d)

size

39.

Catalyst helps to

a)

increase the amount of product obtained

b)

to lower the activation energy

c)

provide an alternative reaction route

d)

decrease the frequency of collision

40.

Which factors increase the rate of a reaction?

a)

increasing temperature

b)

increasing concentration

c)

increasing total surface area

d)

All of these

41.

Increasing pressure causes the reacting particles

a)

to bond together

b)

to repel from each other

c)

gain more kinetic energy

d)

to move closer together

42.

Increasing the temperature gives particles more __________.

a)

time

b)

energy

c)

space

d)

frequency

43.

As the frequency of ________________ collision increases, the rate of reaction increases.

a)

time

b)

speed

c)

effective

d)

efficient

44.

You make a space much smaller by increasing the ________________ hoping to increase the reaction rates.

a)

temperature

b)

concentration

c)

catalyst

d)

pressure

45.

Why does breaking up a solid reactant increase the rate of reaction?

a)

it creates more solid

b)

it creates more energy

c)

it increases the total surface area

d)

it increases the concentration

46.

Why does a higher concentration increase the rate of reaction?

a)

it increases the amount of reactants

b)

it lowers the activation energy

c)

it increases the energy of particle collisions

d)

it increases the frequency of collisions

47.

List four factors that affects the rate of a reaction

a)

temperature

b)

concentration

c)

surface area

d)

volume

e)

catalysts

48.
The following graph shows two different reaction pathways for the same overall reaction at the same temperature. Which pathway is slower and why?
a)
Red, because the activation energy is larger
b)
Blue, because the activation energy is lower
c)
both reaction progress at the same rate
49.
What does NOT happen when the temperature is increased?
a)
Particles collide more often
b)
Particles collide with more energy
c)
Particles move faster
d)
More particles collide in the correct orientation
50.

Why does a higher concentration increase the rate of reaction?

a)

it increases the amount of reactants

b)

it lowers the activation energy

c)

it increases the energy of particle collisions

d)

it increases the frequency of particle collisions

51.
What is standard temperature?
a)
0K
b)
0oC
c)
173 K
d)
173.15 K
52.
Which container will have lower pressure?
a)
left
b)
right
c)
they both have the same pressure
53.

You are heating a substance in a test tube. Always point the open end of the test tube ________.

a)

Toward yourself.

b)

Toward your lab partner.

c)

Toward another classmate.

d)

Away from all people.

54.

Personal eyeglasses provide as much protection as ________.

a)

A face shield.

b)

Safety goggles/glasses.

c)

Splash proof chemical goggles.

d)

None of these.

55.

The following footwear is required in the lab ________.

a)

Sandals.

b)

Open-toe shoes.

c)

Closed-toe shoes.

d)

Shoes appropriate for the weather.

56.

True or False:

IF acid splashes on your skin you should rinse ONLY with lots of water, no soap.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

True or False:

Chipped or cracked glassware is ok to use.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

You are required to wear goggles when ________.

a)

chemicals are used.

b)

heated glass is used.

c)

working with fire.

d)

chemicals, heated glass, or fire are being used.

59.

( Fill in the blank) Long hair should be ____________ in the laboratory.

a)

tied back

b)

cut

c)

down

d)

curled

60.

(True or False) Horse playing is allowed in the laboratory

a)

true

b)

false

61.
How many sig. fig. are in the number below:
350.540
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
7
62.
Which measurement contains 3 sig figs?
a)
200 mL
b)
20.0 mL
c)
0.02 mL
d)
0.020mL
63.
Round 1047.78 to three sig figs
a)
104
b)
105
c)
1050
d)
1050.00
64.
Change from standard form to scientific notation: 12,000,000
a)
12.0  x  107
b)
0.12  x  107
c)
1.2  x  106
d)
1.2  x  107
65.
Change from standard form to scientific notation:  0.000398
a)
39.8  x  10-5
b)
3.98  x  10-5
c)
3.98  x  10-4
d)
39.8  x  10-6
66.
Change from standard form to scientific notation: 0.004078
a)
4.078  x  10-3
b)
4.078  x  103
c)
40.78  x  10-4
d)
.4078  x  10-2
67.
Change from standard form to scientific notation:  450,000
a)
4.5  x  105
b)
45  x  105
c)
4.5  x  104
d)
4.5  x  106
68.

A small cylindrical container that holds small amounts of liquid. Choose the correct name:

a)

baker flask

b)

beaker

c)

Container flask

d)

cylinder flask

69.

A small cylindrical glass tube used ONLY to hold chemical liquids. The glass can break on high heat. Choose correc name:

a)

chemical tube

b)

liquid tube

c)

boiling tube

d)

test tube

70.
A student poured three samples of solution.  In their beaker, they had 22.5 ml, 22.4 ml and 22.8 ml.  They needed 26 ml per sample.  Were they accurate or precise in their measurements?
a)
Precise
b)
Accurate
c)
Both
d)
Neither
71.
What is this?
a)
Measuring tube
b)
Test tube
c)
Graduated Cylinder
d)
Pipette
72.
Measure to the nearest milliliter.
a)
73 mL
b)
73.1 mL
c)
76 mL
d)
76.1 mL
73.
Round 12,678.56 to four significant figures.
a)
1,268
b)
12,700
c)
13,000
d)
12,680
74.
Positive Charge
a)
Proton
b)
Electron
c)
Neutron
d)
Megatron
75.
Smallest Particles
a)
Electron
b)
Proton
c)
Neutron
d)
Jumbotron
76.
Negative Charge
a)
Electron
b)
Proton
c)
Neutron
d)
Photon
77.
The number of these determines an element's identity
a)
Proton
b)
Neutron
c)
Electron
d)
Isotope
78.
"Pieces" of light
a)
Photon
b)
Isotope
c)
Half-Life
d)
Fusion
79.
The most energetic color of visible light
a)
Violet
b)
Yellow
c)
Red
d)
All the same
80.
Two atoms have identical Protons but differing amounts of neutrons
a)
Isotopes
b)
Compounds
c)
Elements
d)
Mixtures
81.
Expresses the rate at which radioactive materials become a different material
a)
Half-Life
b)
Velocity
c)
Expiration Date
d)
Shutter Speed
82.
Joining of atomic nuclei
a)
Fusion
b)
Fission
c)
Radioactive Decay
d)
Half-Life
83.
Splitting of atomic nuclei
a)
Fission
b)
Fusion
c)
Half-Life
d)
Half-Death
84.
Creates all of the radiant energy given off by the sun
a)
Fusion
b)
Fission
c)
Radioactive Decay
d)
Combustion
85.
Atomic nuclei release small particles and/or energy, thereby becoming a new element
a)
Radioactive Decay
b)
Fission
c)
Fusion
d)
Slap Chop
86.
The part of an atom where protons and neutrons are found
a)
Nucleus
b)
Cloud
c)
Isotope
d)
Half-Life
87.
More than one atomic nucleus
a)
nuclei
b)
nucleuseses
c)
nucleux
d)
compound
88.
The part of an atom where electrons are found
a)
Energy Levels/ Cloud
b)
nucleus
c)
isotope
d)
peel
89.
The number of protons in a Uranium atom
a)
92
b)
238
c)
146
d)
330
90.
The number of neutrons in a sodium atom
a)
12
b)
34
c)
23
d)
11
91.
Water is an example of a(n)
a)
compound
b)
element
c)
mixture
d)
isotope
92.
The number of neutrons in an atom of U-235
a)
143
b)
92
c)
235
d)
327
93.

2.5 g = ________ mg

a)
25 mg
b)
25,000 mg
c)
250 mg
d)
2500 mg
94.
You know that 12 inches = 1 foot.  Convert 60 inches to feet.
a)
720 feet
b)
5 feet
c)
5 inches
d)
72 feet
95.

54 km is equal to ______________ m.

a)

5,400

b)

54,000

c)

540

d)

.054

96.

How many grams are there in 1 kilogram?

a)

100 grams

b)

1,000 grams

c)

10 grams

97.

How many millimeters are there in 1 centimeter?

a)

10 millimeters

b)

100 millimeters

c)

1,000 millimeters

98.

How many centimeters are there in 3 meters?

a)

30 centimeters

b)

300 centimeters

c)

3,000 centimeters

99.

What is 4cm in mm?

a)

0.4

b)

4

c)

400

d)

40

100.

What is 3 L in mL?

a)

30

b)

300

c)

3000

d)

0.3

101.

What is 4.2 km in metres?

a)

420

b)

4200

c)

42

d)

0.42

102.

3.75 L = _______ mL

a)

3750

b)

375

c)

3705

d)

37.5

103.

What is 0.9km in meters?

a)

0.9

b)

9

c)

90

d)

900

104.
1000 m = ___________ km
a)
100
b)
10
c)
1
d)
0.1
105.
15.6 L = ___________ mL
a)
15,600
b)
156,000
c)
1,560,000
d)
15,600,000
106.
0.57 mL = ___________ L
a)
5.7
b)
0.057
c)
0.0057
d)
0.00057
107.
 330 cm = ___________ m
a)
3,300
b)
33
c)
3.3
d)
0.33
108.
Convert 5 cm to mm:
a)
5,000mm
b)
0.5 mm
c)
0.05 mm
d)
50 mm
109.

There is 16 oz in 1 lb.

128 oz = __________ lb

a)

8

b)

0.125

c)

16

d)

4

110.

There is 4 quarts in 1 gallon.

How many quarts are in 4.5 gallons?

a)

16

b)

0.125

c)

1.125

d)

18

111.

Positive(+) Charges are called

a)

Protons

b)

Ions

c)

Electrons

d)

Neutrons

e)

Positrons

112.

The Nucleus has an overall ____ charge

a)

Neutral

b)

Negative

c)

Positive

d)

Depends on the Element

113.

Negative Charges are called

a)

Protons

b)

Electrons

c)

Neutrons

d)

Negativtrons

e)

Ions

114.

The number of ____ determines the element

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

d)

Protons & Neutrons

115.

Changing the Number of Neutrons changes the element itself.

a)

True

b)

False

116.

Which Subatomic Particles Are Found in the Nucleus?

a)

Protons & Electrons

b)

Electrons & Neutrons

c)

Protons & Neutrons

d)

Protons Only

e)

Neutrons Only

117.

Electrons are located where in the atom?

a)

Electron Cloud (Outside the Nucleus)

b)

Inside the Nucleus

c)

Electrons are not part of the atom

118.

Elements with different number of neutrons are called

a)

Isotopes

b)

Ions

c)

Neutrotopes

d)

Neurons

119.

The Atomic Number is equal to

a)

# of Protons

b)

# of Electrons

c)

# of Neutrons

d)

# of Protons + # Electrons

120.

The Atomic Mass is Equal to

a)

# of Protons + # of Neutrons

b)

# of Protons + # of Electrons

c)

# of Electrons + # of Neutrons

d)

# of Neutrons

121.

What is the atomic number of the element shown?

a)

8

b)

15.99

c)

7.99

d)

23.99

122.

How protons does this element have?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

4

d)

24

123.

What is the atomic mass of this element?

a)

35

b)

80

c)

115

d)

45

124.

How many neutrons are in this element?

a)

35

b)

80

c)

115

d)

45

125.

How many electrons are in this element if its electrically neutral?

a)

35

b)

45

c)

0

d)

80

126.

Neutral Charges are called

a)

Neutrons

b)

Protons

c)

Electrons

d)

Ions

127.

The heaviest part of the Atom is

a)

The Nucleus

b)

The Electron Cloud

c)

The mass is evenly distributed in the Atom

d)

Atoms have no mass

128.
N2 +  3H2 → 2NH3 
How many moles of hydrogen are needed to react with 2 moles of nitrogen?
a)
6
b)
2
c)
3
d)
1
129.
Cl2 + 2KBr → Br2 + 2KCl
How many grams of potassium chloride (KCl) can be produced from 356 g of potassium bromide (KBr)?
a)
749 g
b)
223 g
c)
479 g
d)
814 g
130.
CH4 + 2 O2 → CO2 + 2 H2O
How many moles of carbon dioxide are produced from the combustion of 110 g of CH4?
a)
13.7 mol
b)
2.75 mol
c)
6.11 mol
d)
6.85 mol
131.

4 Al + 3 O2 –> 2 Al2O3 How much aluminum would be needed to completely react with 45 grams of O2?

a)

1.05 moles

b)

3.75 moles

c)

0.875 grams

d)

1.875 moles

132.
Mole ratios are obtained from the
a)
balanced chemical equation
b)
periodic table
c)
molar mass
133.
When does a chemical reaction stop?
a)
When the lab is finished
b)
When the excess reactant is used up
c)
When the limiting reactant is used up
d)
Chemical reactions never stop
134.
Identify the limiting reagent when 6.00 g HCl combines with 5.00 g Mg to form MgCl2.
 
Mg +  2HCl --> MgCl2  +  H2   
 
a)
Mg
b)
H2
c)
MgCl2
d)
HCl
135.
Fe (s) + S (l) --> FeS (s)  

In the experiment above, 7.62 g of Fe are allowed to react with 8.67 g of S.
How much FeS is formed?
a)
14.8 g
b)
12.2 g
c)
13.7 g
d)
19.9 g
136.
2CO  +  O2  −-> 2CO2
How many liters of carbon dioxide are produced from 10L of carbon monoxide?
a)
10
b)
20
c)
1
d)
5
137.
4 Al + 3 O2 –> 2 Al2O3  How much aluminum would be needed to completely react with 45 grams of O2?
a)
1.05 moles
b)
3.75 moles
c)
1.875 grams
d)
1.875 moles
138.
What is the part of the chemical equation in green called? 
Fe + S --> FeS
a)
products
b)
reactants
c)
yield
d)
chemical formula
139.

The gas pressure in an aerosol can is 3.5 atm at 25°C. If the gas is an ideal gas, what pressure would develop in the can if it were heated to 175°C?

a)

6 atm

b)

4 atm

c)

5.3 atm

d)

3 .5 atm

140.
One reactant into several products.
a)
Decomposition
b)
Synthesis
c)
Combustion
d)
Single Replacement
141.

Balance this reaction: __NaBr + __ Ca(OH)2 ----> __ CaBr2 + __ NaOH  

a)

2,1,1,4

b)

1,1,2,3

c)

1,2,2,1

d)

2,1,1,2

142.

Mg3N2 + 3H2O ––> 3 MgO + 2NH3

If 10.3 g of magnesium nitride is used, what volume of ammonia gas would be collected?

a)

1.9 L NH3

b)

4.48 L NH3

c)

0.261 L NH3

d)

0.26 L NH3

143.

Increasing the temperature of your solution will.......

a)

Not affect the rate of reaction.

b)

Speed up the rate of reaction

c)

Slow down the rate of reaction

144.

What is excess reagent?

a)

what was first depleted

b)

what you have left over

c)

what was produced

d)

what was not involved in the reaction

145.
You have 3.5 L of H2 (g) at STP. How many moles of gas are there?
a)
22.4 mol
b)
22.4 L
c)
0.16 mol
d)
0.16 L
146.
CH4 + 2 O2 → CO2 + 2 H2O
How many moles of carbon dioxide are produced from the combustion of 110 g of CH4?
a)
13.7 mol
b)
2.75 mol
c)
6.11 mol
d)
6.85 mol
147.
How many molecules of sugar (C6H12O6) are in a mole?
a)
24 molecules
b)
180 molecules
c)
180 g
d)
6.02 x 1023 molecules

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