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Semester Review

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement is true?

a)

The galaxies are moving toward us.

b)

The galaxies are moving away from us.

c)

The universe remains static or unchanged in motion.

d)

None of the above

2.

As galaxies move away from our galaxy a shift on the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS) is noticed. This phenomena is

called _____________.

a)

redshift

b)

blueshift

c)

unshift

d)

blackshift

3.

How does Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation support the Big Band Theory?

a)

Microwaves are found everywhere in the universe.

b)

Microwaves occurred at the time of the Big Bang

c)

Microwaves are useful in our everyday lives

4.

The universe's first light is a result of ...

a)

electrons moving into their ground state

b)

cosmic microwave background

c)

the formation of protons

d)

the first stars

5.

The universe's first visible light can now be observed as ___.

a)

starlight

b)

CMB (Cosmic Microwave Background)

c)

the doppler effect

d)

long as you have a telescope

6.
The universe is ____________ years old.
a)
8.13 billion
b)
13.8 billion
c)
1.83 billion
d)
381 million
7.
This is a picture of:
a)
The CMB.
b)
The Milky Way.
c)
The universe in the future.
d)
A redshifted star.
8.
What does the Big Bang theory suggest?
a)
The universe was just there
b)
The Milky Way is the only solar system
c)
The universe is continually expanding
d)
The universe is collapsing in toward a single point
9.

Why is the light from distant galaxies red-shifted?

a)

They produce more red light than nearby galaxies

b)

They are moving away from us

c)

The longer wavelengths are filtered out more by dust

d)

They are moving toward us

10.
Which of the following is NOT evidence of the Big Bang Theory?
a)
Abundance of Hydrogen and Helium
b)
CMBR everywhere
c)
Stars that are blue shifted
d)
the universe is getting bigger
11.

The main elements in the universe were hydrogen and helium until:

a)

the big bang.

b)

humans came along.

c)

stars began doing fusion.

d)

the redshift was discovered.

12.

How does the abundance of hydrogen and helium support the Big Bang Theory.

a)

Hydrogen and helium are elements on the Periodic Table

b)

Hydrogen and helium are in the same ratio throughout the universe.

c)

Hydrogen and helium have many current uses today

13.

What is the significance of the Hubble Constant?

a)

It is the age of the universe.

b)

It is the rate the universe is expanding.

c)

It is how fast galaxies are moving.

d)

It is how far galaxies are from us.

14.

What can we determine by using the Hubble constant?

a)

age of the universe

b)

velocity of galaxies

c)

rate of universe expansion

d)

all of these

15.

True or False: Scientists know what started the Big Bang.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

True or False: A theory is an absolute fact.

a)

true

b)

false

17.

A theory is as good as it's ____.

a)

evidence

b)

belief

c)

public support

d)

social status

18.

Which elements are in star 1?

a)

H, He, Li, Na

b)

H, Na

c)

H, He, Li

d)

Li, Na

19.

The unknown emissions spectra belongs to the element

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Mercury

c)

Neon

d)

Sodium

20.

The unknown emissions spectra belongs to the element

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Mercury

c)

Neon

d)

Sodium

21.

The unknown emissions spectra belongs to the element

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Mercury

c)

Neon

d)

Helium

22.

True or False: Emission spectrums are like fingerprints for elements.

a)

true

b)

false

23.

According to the Big Bang Theory, as the universe expanded it ____.

a)

cooled

b)

warmed

24.
Light waves that are stretched out by objects moving apart:
a)
have a shorter wavelength.
b)
travel faster than the speed of light.
c)
are invisible.
d)
appear more red.
25.

The temperature of the universe:

a)

is constant.

b)

varies between 20 to 6,000 degrees Fahrenheit.

c)

has increased to about 10,000 degrees Celsius.

d)

has cooled to about 2.7 Kelvin.

26.
The Big Bang:
a)
is NOT an explosion in space.
b)
is an expansion OF space.
c)
is our best explanation for the beginning of the universe.
d)
All of the above.
27.
The greater the redshift:
a)
the faster the galaxy is moving.
b)
the shorter the light waves.
c)
the bigger the galaxy.
d)
the closer the galaxy.
28.
What is true about these stars?
a)
Both of these stars are moving away from us.
b)
Both of these stars are moving towards us.
c)
Both of these stars are blueshifted.
d)
The star Sirius is closer to us.
29.

Why does redshift occur in stars/galaxies?

a)

Light waves stretch as a star moves away

b)

Light waves squish as a star moves away

c)

Redshift does not occur in stars

d)

Light waves change shape as stars move

30.

Our universe is made of ________ hydrogen

a)

25%

b)

35%

c)

74%

d)

82%

31.

Which of the following can be determined by starlight?

a)

chemical composition

b)

movement

c)

surface temperature

d)

all of these and more

32.

The photosphere is letter __

a)

D

b)

G

c)

E

d)

B

33.

The chromosphere is letter...

a)

A

b)

D

c)

G

d)

E

34.

The corona is...

a)

A

b)

D

c)

F

d)

B

35.

Sunspots are letter...

a)

C

b)

F

c)

I

d)

A

36.

A solar flare is letter...

a)

I

b)

A

c)

F

d)

C

37.

The core is letter...

a)

H

b)

G

c)

E

d)

A

38.

The convection zone is letter...

a)

E

b)

G

c)

B

d)

D

39.

A prominence is letter...

a)

F

b)

I

c)

C

d)

A

40.

Identify the part of the sun at letter G.

a)

Radiative Zone

b)

Convection Zone

c)

Photosphere

d)

Chromosphere

41.

Where in the sun does fusion take place?

a)

core

b)

radiative zone

c)

flares

d)

photosphere

42.

Which part of the sun is so dense it takes 100,000's of years for energy to travel through?

a)

chromosphere

b)

photosphere

c)

radiative zone

d)

convection zone

43.

Which part of the sun relies on the transfer of energy due to temperature difference?

a)

Radiative zone

b)

Convection zone

c)

Photosphere

d)

Core

44.

Which is referred to as the atmosphere of the sun where flares and prominences take place.

a)

chromosphere

b)

photosphere

c)

corona

d)

convection zone

45.

Sudden flash on the surface of the sun, often near sunspots.

a)

CME (coronal mass ejection)

b)

sunspot

c)

prominence

d)

solar flare

46.

An explosion of plasma that follows magnetic field lines.

a)

CME (coronal mass ejection)

b)

sunspot

c)

solar flare

d)

prominence

47.

A superheated "cloud" of magnetized plasma that escapes the sun.

a)

CME (coronal mass ejection)

b)

prominence

c)

solar flare

d)

sunspot

48.

True or False: The life of a star is dependent upon the mass of the original star.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

A protostar glows due to ___.

a)

heat

b)

fusion

50.

A star spends the majority of its life as a _____.

a)

protostar

b)

main sequence star

c)

white dwarf

d)

neutron star

51.

The majority of stars in space are ____.

a)

main sequence stars

b)

white dwarfs

c)

brown dwarfs

d)

neutron stars

52.

Main sequence stars use ____ as fuel for nuclear fusion.

a)

coal

b)

hydrogen

c)

helium

d)

plasma

53.

True or False: As long as the outward pressure from the core and the inward gravitational pull are equal, a star will maintain its size.

a)

true

b)

false

54.

Select the options that are true for low mass stars

a)

High temperature

b)

Long life

c)

Go supernova

d)

Die as a white dwarf

e)

Uses fuel slowly

55.

A star that has high luminosity (brightness), releases ____ amounts of energy.

a)

high

b)

low

56.

Red Giants and Supergiants use ____ as fuel for fusion.

a)

hydrogen

b)

helium

57.

The left over remains of a low mass star that has died is a ___.

a)

brown dwarf

b)

white dwarf

c)

neutron star

d)

black hole

58.

To say a star has died. What must be true about the star? The star no longer ____.

a)

is alive

b)

has fusion in the core

c)

produces light

d)

exists in the sky

59.

Which type of star might go supernova?

a)

low mass star

b)

high mass star

60.

Presently the most dense object in space with gravity so high that light cannot escape.

a)

black hole

b)

neutron star

c)

supernova

d)

white dwarf

61.

The group of stars represented by the letter A are the...

a)

giants

b)

main sequence

c)

supergiants

d)

white dwarfs

62.

The group of stars represented by the letter B are the...

a)

giants

b)

main sequence

c)

supergiants

d)

white dwarfs

63.

The group of stars represented by the letter C are the...

a)

giants

b)

main sequence

c)

supergiants

d)

white dwarfs

64.

The group of stars represented by the letter D are the...

a)

giants

b)

main sequence

c)

supergiants

d)

white dwarfs

65.

Our current north star, Polaris, has a luminosity of 5,500 and a surface temperature of 5,400 Kelvin. What type of star is Polaris?

a)

Giant

b)

Main Sequence

c)

Supergiant

d)

White Dwarf

66.

What type of star has a high luminosity and a low surface temperature?

a)

Giant

b)

Main Sequence

c)

Supergiant

d)

White Dwarf

67.

What type of star has a low luminosity and a high surface temperature?

a)

Giant

b)

Main Sequence

c)

Supergiant

d)

White Dwarf

68.

Which is hottest?

a)

blue main sequence star

b)

red main sequence star

c)

yellow giant

d)

red supergiant

69.

Which star is the brightest?

a)

blue main sequence star

b)

red main sequence star

c)

yellow giant

d)

red supergiant

70.

Why is a red supergiant more luminous than a red main sequence star?

a)

The red supergiant is hotter.

b)

The red supergiant has more surface area (is bigger).

71.

Alpha Canis Majoris, has a luminosity of 0.02 and a surface temperature of 24,800 Kelvin. What type of star is Alpha Canis Majoris?

a)

Giant

b)

Main Sequence

c)

Supergiant

d)

White Dwarf

72.

Sol, has a luminosity of 1 and a surface temperature of 5,800 Kelvin. What type of star is Sol?

a)

Giant

b)

Main Sequence

c)

Supergiant

d)

White Dwarf

73.

What does it mean when a star has a luminosity is less than 1? For example Tau Centi is 0.4.

a)

The star brighter than the sun.

b)

The star is dimmer than the sun.

c)

It takes less than 1 light year for the light to reach us.

d)

The star is smaller than the sun.

74.

The element used in the fusion process of a main sequence star like our sun is ____.

a)

hydrogen

b)

helium

c)

carbon

d)

iron

75.

Elements heavier than iron form in a ___.

a)

low mass star

b)

supernova

c)

giant

d)

supergiant

76.

True or False: Iron will form in a low mass star.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Fusion in stars occurs when the mass ___

a)

contracts and cools

b)

contracts and warms up

c)

expands and cools

d)

expands and warms up

78.

In order for elements to form, the universe had to ____.

a)

expand and cool

b)

expand and warm up

c)

contract and cool

d)

contract and warm up

79.

When a proton and a Hydrogen-2 atom fuse, _____ is made.

a)

Hydrogen-3

b)

Helium-3

c)

Helium-4

d)

Hydrogen-2

80.

All of the hydrogen in the universe formed ___.

a)

During the formation of the universe.

b)

In the core of stars.

c)

As a result of supernova.

d)

In a black hole.

81.
The first elements were formed in what is known as _________________.
a)
Big Bang Nucleosynthesis
b)
Stellar Nucleosynthesis
c)
Supernova Nucleosynthesis
d)
Genonucleosynthesis
82.
________ nucleosynthesis happens in the center of stars and is where the elements helium through iron (Fe) are formed. 
a)
Big Bang
b)
Stellar
c)
Supernova
d)
Superdupernova
83.
Stellar nucleosynthesis stops at the element of iron because there are _________ in their nuclei.
a)
not enough electrons
b)
not enough protrons
c)
not enough neutrons
84.
All elements bigger than iron on the periodic table are formed in _________________.
a)
Big Bang Nucleosynthesis
b)
Stellar Nucleosynthesis
c)
Supernova Nucleosynthesis
85.

Why does a supergiant produce larger, heavier elements than a red giant? (check all that apply)

a)

A supergiant has more starting mass.

b)

A supergiant has a higher temperature.

c)

A supergiant is bigger in size.

d)

A supergiant has more gravity.

86.

Why are neutrons important during the building of atoms?

a)

Neutrons provide stability by keeping apart protons.

b)

Neutrons naturally attract each other.

c)

Neutrons have a negative charge, so they attract protons.

d)

Neutrons make electrons.

87.

Why doesn't a main sequence star fuse helium?

a)

There isn't enough helium.

b)

Main sequence stars only fuse hydrogen.

c)

The conditions in the core won't allow helium fusion.

d)

A red giant or supergiant fuses helium.

88.

Does the mass of a star increase while going through the fusion process?

a)

yes

b)

no

89.
What is the name of the gas/dust clouds that form stars?
a)
Nebulas
b)
Protostars 
c)
Supernova
d)
Neutron Star
90.
What is the name of the explosion at the death of a massive star?
a)
Supergiant
b)
Supernova
c)
Black Hole
d)
Nebula
91.

What will be the next stage in our star the sun's life cycle?

a)

supernova

b)

white dwarf

c)

blackhole

d)

red giant

92.

How much matter in the solar system exists in the sun?

a)

1%

b)

99%

c)

80%

d)

20%

93.

Which type of planet formed in its location due to its ability to withstand the heat from the sun?

a)

Ice Giants

b)

Gas Giants

c)

Rocky/Terrestrial Planets

94.

True or False: Earth cooled from the inside out.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

A boundary where 2 plates slide past each other is a ___ boundary.

a)

Transform

b)

Convergent

c)

Divergent

96.

A boundary where the plates separate is a ____ boundary.

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Transform

97.

A _____ boundary occurs when 2 plates collide.

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Transform

98.

How do ocean core samples support the idea of seafloor spreading?

a)

The age of the rocks get older as one moves away from a ridge.

b)

The age of the rocks get younger as one moves away from a ridge.

99.

Comparing the layers in core samples is an example of ___ dating.

a)

absolute

b)

relative

100.

When oceanic and continental plates collide, why does the oceanic plate subduct beneath the continental plate?

a)

Oceanic crust is less dense than continental crust.

b)

Oceanic crust is more dense than continental crust.

c)

It doesn't, the continental crust subducts.

101.

What is the term for the idea that a lithospheric plate pulls itself into and across the mantle.

a)

ridge push

b)

slab pull

c)

convection

d)

doesn't happen

102.

Which part of the earth contains the crust and topmost part of the mantle?

a)

asthenosphere

b)

lithosphere

c)

atmosphere

d)

heliosphere

103.

Where is the youngest oceanic crust?

a)

in the middle

b)

at plate boundaries

c)

at divergent boundaries

d)

along the coasts

104.

What type of boundary is circled?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

105.

What geographic feature occurs at this boundary?

a)

a rift

b)

a mountain range

c)

a volcanic arc

d)

an island arc

106.

What type of plates are colliding here?

a)

continental - continental

b)

oceanic - oceanic

c)

continental - oceanic

107.

Which type of boundary is circled?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

108.

What type of plates are colliding here?

a)

oceanic - oceanic

b)

continental - continental

c)

continental - oceanic

109.

What type of geographic feature forms as a result of the collision circled?

a)

rift

b)

mountains

c)

volcanic arc

d)

island arc

110.

True or False: Wegener was able to describe how the continents were moving.

a)

true

b)

false

111.

A well tested and accepted explanation in science is a ____.

a)

guess

b)

hypothesis

c)

theory

d)

law

112.

True or False: The theory of plate tectonics is still changing today.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

How much matter in the solar system exists in the sun?

a)

1%

b)

99%

c)

80%

d)

20%

114.

Which type of planet formed in its location due to its ability to withstand the heat from the sun?

a)

Ice Giants

b)

Gas Giants

c)

Rocky/Terrestrial Planets

115.

What caused Earth to melt during Earth's early formation?

a)

fusion

b)

radioactive decay

c)

heat from the sun

116.

True or False: Earth cooled from the inside out.

a)

True

b)

False

117.

What caused the surface of Earth to form crust?

a)

Water cooled it off.

b)

Space cooled it off.

c)

It has always had crust.

118.

True or False: Gravity causes massive objects in space to become spheres.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

Why don't asteroids become spheres?

a)

They eventually do.

b)

The mass isn't big enough.

c)

They are rock.

d)

They are not made of the right material.

120.

Why did the gas giants form so far from the sun?

a)

They had to.

b)

It's where the gasses could collect.

c)

The asteroid belt kept them there.

121.

A ____ is an icy object that orbits the sun.

a)

meteor

b)

comet

c)

asteroid

122.

This geographic feature is a result of which boundary?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

123.

True or False: The magnetic stripes on either side of a divergent boundary are symmetrical.

a)

true

b)

false

124.

When Earth was molten, the iron and nickel moved to what we now call the core. Why?

a)

They are more dense so sank to the center.

b)

They are less dense so sank to the center.

c)

They are more dense and rose to the top.

d)

They are less dense and rose to the top.

125.

What is the amount of time it takes for half of a quantity of a radioactive element to decay.

a)

radioactive decay

b)

half life

c)

half death

d)

radiometric dating

126.

True or False: Radioactive dating can be used to date fossils, (organic) dead life forms, and rocks.

a)

true

b)

false

127.

Radiometric dating of _____ helped scientists determine the age of Earth.

a)

asteroids

b)

meteorites

c)

Earth

d)

Mars

128.

The current estimate for the age of Earth is ____ years.

a)

4.6 billion

b)

6,000

c)

4.3 billion

d)

13.8 billion

129.

Why is carbon dating not used for rocks deep beneath the surface or rocks we assume to be over 50,000 years old?

a)

carbon's half life is too long

b)

carbon's half life is too short

c)

there are no rocks over 50,000 years

d)

there is no carbon after 50,000 years

130.

Which mountain range is evidence that the continents were once together?

a)

Himalayan mountains

b)

Aleutian islands

c)

Appalachian and Caledonian mountains

d)

Andes and Rocky mountains

131.

Fossils of a mesosaurus were found on multiple continents. How does this provide evidence for plate tectonics? Select the correct answers.

a)

It doesn't.

b)

The mesosaurus is fresh water and couldn't cross the ocean.

c)

Animals on different continents evolve differently.

d)

It is a coincidence that mesosaurus fossils were found on Africa and South America.

132.

What changed our view of the ocean floor from being a flat expanse to a floor with terrain like the land.

a)

Hess's SONAR mapping

b)

Discovery of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge

c)

Fossil records

d)

Ocean core samples

133.

The initial discovery of this land feature showed scientists where the plates were separating between continents that were assumed once together.

a)

East Africa Rift

b)

Mid-Atlantic Ridge

c)

Red Sea

d)

Himalayas

134.

Which plate is being subducted?

a)

Nazca

b)

South American

135.

What type of geologic feature will occur at this boundary?

a)

Volcanic mountains

b)

Volcanic islands

c)

Mountains

d)

Rift valley

136.
Where is the planet moving faster
a)
Position A to B
b)
Position B to C
c)
Position H to I
d)
Position I to J
137.

Which came first?

a)

A

b)

N

c)

D

d)

G

138.

Why are uranium and lead used to date the same rocks?

a)

In case the rock doesn't have one of those.

b)

To verify and validate that the calculated ages match.

c)

Otherwise no one would date them.

d)

Doesn't matter, radiometric dating isn't valid.

139.

New lithosphere can be made by which processes?

a)

volcanoes

b)

earthquakes

c)

mountain formation

d)

plate separation

140.

Which type of boundary does NOT form new lithosphere?

a)

Divergent

b)

Transform

c)

Convergent

d)

All of these form new lithosphere.

141.

Which type of Convergent boundary does not produce new lithosphere?

a)

Oceanic-oceanic

b)

Oceanic-continental

c)

Continental-continental

d)

None of these

142.

Life plays a role in the destruction of rock formations as ____.

a)

Mass Wasting

b)

Weathering

c)

Coastal Erosion

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