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Anatomy Final Exam Review F21

Total questions: 138

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What term is used to describe a relatively stable environment?

a)

homeostasis

b)

positive feedback

c)

negative feedback

d)

physiology

e)

anatomy

2.

A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be:

a)

body temperature regulation

b)

blood glucose level regulation

c)

female in labor

d)

thermostat in a house

3.

A structure that is composed of two or more types of tissues is:

a)

tissue

b)

organ

c)

organelle

d)

cell

e)

organ system

4.

The study of the function of the body and body parts is called:

a)

anatomy

b)

negative feedback

c)

irritability

d)

physiology

e)

homeostasis

5.

Which type of section could be used to separate the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity?

a)

coronal

b)

sagittal

c)

ventral

d)

dorsal

e)

transverse

6.

Which of the structures is most complex?

a)

molecule

b)

tissue

c)

cell

d)

organ system

e)

organ

7.

Which of the following orientation and directional terms have the same meaning (in humans):

a)

anterior and dorsal

b)

anterior and ventral

c)

inferior and cranial

d)

inferior and cephalad

e)

superior and caudal

8.

Which of the following is the correct sequence, going from simplest to most complex, in the levels of structural organization of the human body?

a)

cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ system level, organismal level, organ level

b)

cellular level, tissue level, chemical level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level

c)

cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level

d)

chemical level, tissue level, cellular level, organ system level, organ level, organismal level

e)

chemical level, cellular level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level

9.

In anatomical position:

a)

the body is erect with feet parallel and the arms hanging at the sides with the palms facing forward

b)

the body is lying face up with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms facing backward

c)

the body is lying face down with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides of the palms facing backward

d)

the body is lying face up with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms facing forward

e)

the body is erect with the feet parallel and the arms hanging at the sides with the palms facing backward

10.

What two terms mean this direction in the human body?

a)

anterior and posterior

b)

ventral and dorsal

c)

anterior and ventral

d)

posterior and dorsal

e)

dorsal and anterior

11.

The brachium is _____ to the carpal region.

a)

anterior

b)

superior

c)

distal

d)

proximal

e)

medial

12.

The digital region is _____ to the olecranal region.

a)

anterior

b)

superior

c)

distal

d)

proximal

e)

lateral

13.

The abdominal cavity is ___ to the thoracic cavity.

a)

proximal

b)

medial

c)

lateral

d)

posterior

e)

inferior

14.

What is the body plane?

a)

transverse

b)

coronal

c)

frontal

d)

sagittal

e)

oblique

15.

Name the body cavity.

a)

abdominal

b)

pelvic

c)

thoracic

d)

lumbar

e)

spinal

16.

Where would you expect to find this kind of tissue?

a)

epidermis

b)

hypodermis

c)

dermis

d)

heart

e)

skeletal muscle

17.

Which of the following is NOT connective tissue:

a)

bone

b)

cartilage

c)

blood

d)

skeletal muscle

e)

adipose

18.

The tissue that is usually well vascularized and has an extensive extracellular matrix is called:

a)

epithelial tissue

b)

connective tissue

c)

nervous tissue

d)

muscle tissue

e)

brain tissue

19.

Glands such as the thyroid that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than ducts are classified as:

a)

exocrine

b)

endocrine

c)

sebaceous

d)

ceruminous

e)

sudoriferous

20.

The type of tissue with a matrix that consists of rows of fibroblasts that manufacture collagen fibers is:

a)

dense connective tissue

b)

loose connective tissue

c)

adipose tissue

d)

areolar tissue

e)

osseous tissue

21.

The uppermost layer of skin is:

a)

called the dermis

b)

full of keratin

c)

fed by a good supply of blood vessels

d)

called the hypodermis

e)

composed of dense connective tissue

22.

The "tanning" effect (darkening of the skin) that occurs when a person is exposed to the sun is due to:

a)

melanin

b)

keratin

c)

oil

d)

Langerhans cells

e)

sweat

23.

Name the membrane that lubricates the outside surface of the lung.

a)

parietal pleura

b)

visceral pleura

c)

parietal pericardia

d)

visceral pericardia

e)

parietal peritoneum

24.

Name the membrane that lines the inside surface of the small intestine.

a)

parietal pleura

b)

parietal pericardia

c)

parietal peritoneum

d)

visceral peritoneum

e)

mucus

25.

Which gland produces oil that keeps the skin and hair supple?

a)

goblet

b)

sebaceous

c)

mammary

d)

ceruminous

e)

serous

26.

The type of muscle found in the walls of hollow organs, such as the stomach, and in the walls of blood vessels is:

a)

cardiac

b)

skeletal

c)

smooth

d)

both smooth and skeletal

e)

both cardiac and skeletal

27.

Which gland lubricates the external surfaces of internal organs?

a)

goblet

b)

sebaceous

c)

mammary

d)

ceruminous

e)

serous

28.

Name the layer of skin.

a)

epidermis

b)

dermis

c)

hypodermis

d)

stratum corneum

e)

stratum basale

29.

The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the:

a)

osteocyte

b)

osteoblast

c)

osteoclast

d)

chondroblast

e)

chondrocyte

30.

A fracture in the shaft of the bone would be a break in the:

a)

metaphysis

b)

diaphysis

c)

articular cartilage

d)

epiphysis

31.

What is the structure labeled A in the picture?

a)

epiphyseal plate

b)

epiphyseal line

c)

fibrocartilage

d)

central canals

e)

articular cartilage

32.

Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?

a)

support

b)

storage of minerals

c)

production of blood cells (hematopoiesis)

d)

movement

33.

A round or oval opening through a bone is a:

a)

foramen

b)

fossa

c)

facet

d)

fissure

e)

trochanter

34.

Which of these bones is NOT associated with the foot?

a)

talus

b)

tarsals

c)

metatarsals

d)

calcaneus

e)

metacarpals

35.

Name the bone

a)

mandible

b)

sternum

c)

scapula

d)

clavicle

e)

rib

36.

Name the bone.

a)

ischium

b)

coxal

c)

pubis

d)

ilium

e)

sacrum

37.

What is the name given to these bones collectively?

a)

thoracic

b)

lumbar

c)

sacrum

d)

cervical

e)

coxal

38.

Name the bone.

a)

parietal

b)

coxal

c)

sacrum

d)

calcaneus

e)

manubrium

39.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system?

a)

production of movement

b)

maintenance of posture

c)

stabilization of joints

d)

generation of heat

e)

hematopoiesis

40.

Acetylcholine is:

a)

an ion pump on the postsynaptic membrane

b)

a source of energy for muscle contraction

c)

a component of thick myofilaments

d)

an oxygen-binding protein

e)

a neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscle

41.

The gap between the axon terminal of a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell is called the:

a)

motor unit

b)

sarcomere

c)

neuromuscular junction

d)

synapse

e)

cross bridge

42.

When lowering a book to the table slowly using your bicep brachii muscle, you are using this type of muscle contraction:

a)

isometric

b)

concentric

c)

eccentric

d)

aerobic

e)

anaerobic

43.

Name the body movement.

a)

extension of the elbow

b)

flexion of the elbow

c)

adduction of the elbow

d)

abduction of the elbow

e)

plantar flexion

44.

Name the muscle

a)

iliopsoas

b)

gluteus medius

c)

gluteus maximus

d)

gastrocnemius

e)

biceps femoris

45.

What is the action of the labeled muscle?

a)

abduction of the arm

b)

flexion of the arm

c)

extension of the arm

d)

adduction of the arm

e)

circumduction of the arm

46.

Name the muscle.

a)

serratus anterior

b)

external oblique

c)

rectus abdominis

d)

transverse abdominis

e)

rectus femoris

47.

Which division of the nervous system would allow your body to conserve energy when you are not being threatened?

a)

sympathetic

b)

parasympathetic

c)

somatic

d)

sensory

e)

parasensory

48.

What is the name of this cell?

a)

neuroglia

b)

neuron

c)

astrocyte

d)

dendrite

e)

nerve

49.

What is the function of letter D?

a)

synaptic transmission

b)

sensory reception

c)

integration

d)

saltatory conduction

e)

olfaction

50.

What is this diagram depicting?

a)

the anatomy of a muscle

b)

a reflex arc

c)

the anatomy of a neuron

d)

the anatomy of a nerve

e)

the anatomy of a neuroglia cell

51.

What is responsible for producing the resting potential across the membrane of a neuron?

a)

neurotransmitter

b)

sodium ions

c)

potassium ions

d)

sodium/ potassium pump

e)

receptors

52.

The transparent central anterior portion of the sclera through which light enters the eye is called the:

a)

choroid

b)

cornea

c)

iris

d)

pupil

e)

retina

53.

Which layer of the eye contains rods and cones?

a)

sclera

b)

retina

c)

choroid

d)

iris

e)

optic nerve

54.

The pigmented portion of the eye that has a rounded opening through which light passes is the:

a)

iris

b)

lens

c)

cornea

d)

sclera

e)

retina

55.

The three sets of color receptors within the retina are sensitive wavelengths of visible light are:

a)

red, green and yellow

b)

red, blue and yellow

c)

green, yellow and purple

d)

orange, green and purple

e)

blue, green and red

56.

The greatest visual acuity is found at the

a)

optic disc

b)

fovea centralis

c)

iris

d)

ciliary body

e)

lens

57.

What structure of the eye focuses light on the retina?

a)

iris

b)

sclera

c)

lens

d)

choroid

e)

optic chiasma

58.

Which one of the following correctly lists the order of the parts through which light passes as it enters the eye?

a)

cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor

b)

aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor

c)

vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea

d)

cornea, lens, aqueous humor, vitreous humor

59.

The pathway of vibrations through the ossicles from the tympanic membrane (eardrum) to the oval window is:

a)

malleus, incus, stapes

b)

incus, malleus, stapes

c)

stapes, incus, malleus

d)

malleus, stapes, incus

e)

stapes, malleus, incus

60.

The term 20/40 visions means...

a)

the vision of the patient is normal

b)

that what the patient can see at 20 feet, a normal person can see at 40.

c)

that what the patient can see at 40 feet, a normal person can see at 20.

d)

the patient is farsighted

61.

Stimulation of sour receptors occurs in response to:

a)

acids

b)

beef steak

c)

sugar

d)

metal ions

e)

alkaline substances

62.

What sense does this organ sense?

a)

olfaction

b)

gustation

c)

proprioception

d)

presbyopia

e)

elimination

63.

How do steroid hormones exert their action?

a)

Finding an appropriate cell receptor located on the outer membrane of the cell

b)

entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene

c)

increasing blood pressure

d)

stimulating the synthesis of a protein

64.

The parathyroid glands maintain adequate levels of blood calcium. How is this accomplished?

a)

blocking the action of growth hormone

b)

slowing the activity of tissues that require calcium for activity.

c)

antagonizing the synthesis of calcitonin

d)

targeting the bone and activating osteoclasts so calcium will be released

65.

Insulin works as an antagonist to...

a)

testosterone

b)

oxytocin

c)

thyroid hormone

d)

glucagon

e)

thymosin

66.

The adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary) is often referred to as the "master endocrine gland." What gives this small gland such distinction?

a)

Its products initiate and maintain milk secretion via mammary glands.

b)

Its products often regulate the release of hormones by other endocrine glands

c)

Its products stimulate sperm production in the testes.

d)

It is the only gland producing eicosanoids

67.

The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on:

a)

the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ

b)

nothing- all hormones of the human body are able to stimulate any and all cell types because hormones are powerful and nonspecific

c)

the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path

d)

the membrane potential of the cells of the target organ

68.

Chemical substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids that regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body are called...

a)

enzymes

b)

antibodies

c)

hormones

d)

proteins

69.

What type of hormone is being illustrated by the diagram?

a)

steroid

b)

amino acid

c)

protein synthesis

d)

diabetes mellitus

e)

myxedema

70.

This disease is caused by an autoimmune response to the beta cells of the pancreas. Not enough insulin is produced and the blood becomes thick and concentrated.

a)

diabetes insipidus

b)

type 2 adult onset diabetes

c)

type 1 diabetes mellitus

d)

Cushing's syndrome

e)

dwarfism

71.

What type of immunity does this picture represent?

a)

humoral immunity

b)

antibody-mediated immunity

c)

cell-mediated immunity

d)

nonspecific immunity

e)

inflammation

72.

What type of immunity does this picture represent?

a)

humoral immunity

b)

cell to cell contact immunity

c)

cell-mediated immunity

d)

nonspecific immunity

e)

inflammation

73.

Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by:

a)

T lymphocytes

b)

plasma cells

c)

macrophages

d)

helper T-cells

e)

antigens

74.

What is the name of the substance found on foreign cells, bacteria and viruses that can cause a response from and is the target of immune cells?

a)

antigen

b)

lymphocyte

c)

antibody

d)

macrophage

75.

What are the two parts of the specific immune response?

a)

humoral and antibody-mediated

b)

inflammation and cell-mediated

c)

cell-mediated and complement fixation

d)

cell-mediated and humoral

76.

Where is lymph ultimately returned?

a)

spleen

b)

liver

c)

blood

d)

lymph nodes

77.

Name the process

a)

chemotaxis

b)

phagocytosis

c)

diapedesis

d)

edema

e)

agglutination

78.

What organ of the lymphatic system is this?

a)

tonsil

b)

lymph node

c)

lymphatic valve

d)

Peyer's patch

e)

spleen

79.

Name the process

a)

phagocytosis

b)

inflammation

c)

specific (adaptive) immune response

d)

non-specific immune response

e)

autoimmune response

80.

Select the correct statement about the function of antibodies.

a)

Antibodies are hormones that send signals in the bloodstream.

b)

Neutralization is the process by which antibodies cause invading cells to clump together.

c)

Antibodies are destroyed by T cells.

d)

Antibodies can attach to the antigens of a virus, keeping it from invading body cells.

81.

A weakened version of a virus that is injected into a person to create an immunity is called...

a)

antibiotics

b)

completment

c)

vaccine

d)

interleukin

82.

Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?

a)

increased tissue demand for oxygen

b)

decreased tissue demand for oxygen

c)

an increased number of RBCs

d)

moving from a high altitude to a low altitude

83.

Platelets:

a)

carry oxygen

b)

are able to move into tissue spaces to fight infection

c)

undergo phagocytosis

d)

stick to the damaged area of blood vessel and help seal the break

84.

These blood cells are filled with a protein called hemoglobin which carry oxygen to tissues.

a)

eosinophils

b)

platelets

c)

erythrocytes

d)

basophils

e)

lymphocytes

85.

Which blood type is called the universal donor?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

86.

What process is composed of numerous chemical factors interacting to form fibrin, a sticky fiber that forms the basis of a blood clot?

a)

vascular spasms

b)

hemophilia

c)

coagulation

d)

erythropoiesis

e)

erythroblastosis fetalis

87.

Name this molecule.

a)

albumin

b)

hemoglobin

c)

hematocrit

d)

hemophilia

88.

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of parts through which blood moves in passing from the vena cava to the lungs?

a)

right atrium, pulmonary semilunar valve, right ventricle, tricuspid valve

b)

right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve

c)

tricuspid valve, right atrium, pulmonary semilunar valve, right ventricle

d)

pulmonary semilunar valve, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle

89.

The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to:

a)

accommodate a greater volume of blood

b)

expand the thoracic cage during diastole

c)

pump blood with greater pressure

d)

pump blood through a smaller valve

90.

Blood is carried to the capillaries of the myocardium by way of:

a)

the coronary sinus

b)

the fossa ovalis

c)

coronary veins

d)

coronary arteries

91.

Which statement best describes arteries?

a)

All carry blood away from the heart.

b)

All carry oxygenated blood to the heart.

c)

All contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood.

d)

Only large arteries are lined with endothelium.

92.

The path of blood flow within the systemic vascular system is:

a)

arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, venules, veins

b)

arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, veins, venules

c)

arterioles, arteries, venules, veins, capillary beds

d)

arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, veins, venules

e)

arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, venules, veins

93.

What is letter B?

a)

aorta

b)

superior vena cava

c)

pulmonary artery

d)

pulmonary vein

e)

inferior vena cava

94.

What occurs at B on the diagram?

a)

atria contract

b)

ventricles contract

c)

atria depolarize

d)

ventricles depolarize

e)

ventricles repolarize

95.

What does letter g represent in the diagram?

a)

vein

b)

artery

c)

capillary

d)

arteriole

e)

venule

96.

What does the letter "A" represent in the diagram?

a)

SA (sinoatrial) valve

b)

AV (atrioventricular) node

c)

AV bundle

d)

bundle branches

e)

Purkinje fibers

97.

Systolic pressure measures which of the following?

a)

atrial contraction

b)

atrial relaxation

c)

ventricular contraction

d)

ventricular relaxation

98.

Which blood type is known as the universal recipient?

a)

AB+

b)

AB-

c)

O+

d)

O-

99.

A sickle cell carrier has resistance to which disease?

a)

hemophilia

b)

malaria

c)

cystic fibrosis

d)

sickle cell disease

100.

What does the letter "n" represent in the diagram?

a)

pulmonary semilunar valve

b)

bicuspid valve

c)

tricuspid valve

d)

aortic semilunar valve

101.

Clusters of tiny air sacs that allow the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide

a)

pharynx

b)

alveoli

c)

diaphragm

d)

lungs

102.

The moving of air in and out of the lungs is called...

a)

external respiration

b)

pulmonary ventilation

c)

cellular respiration

d)

internal respiration

e)

transport

103.

Muscular structure that helps to expand and contract the lungs, forcing air in and out

a)

pharynx

b)

alveoli

c)

nasal cavity

d)

diaphragm

104.

Another name for the voice box is...

a)

larynx

b)

pharynx

c)

esophagus

d)

nasopharynx

e)

trachea

105.

The passageway that moistens the air and has hairs to trap dust and particles

a)

nasal cavity

b)

mouth cavity

c)

bronchi

d)

larynx

106.

Which letter represents the larynx?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

107.

Which letter represents the diaphragm?

a)

H

b)

I

c)

J

d)

K

108.

Which letter represents the trachea?

a)

H

b)

I

c)

J

d)

K

109.

What structure covers the laryngeal inlet during swallowing, thereby routing food into the esophagus?

a)

nasopharynx

b)

uvula

c)

epiglottis

d)

pharyngeal tonsil

e)

tongue

110.

When you exhale, air flows through respiratory structures in which sequence?

a)

alveolus, bronchiole, bronchus, larynx, trachea, pharynx, nasal cavity

b)

alveolus, trachea, bronchus, bronchiole, larynx, pharynx, nasal cavity

c)

alveolus, bronchus, bronchiole, trachea, larynx, pharynx, nasal cavity

d)

alveolus, bronchiole, bronchus, trachea, larynx, pharynx, nasal cavity

111.

Which of the following is NOT an organ found in the urinary system?

a)

kidney

b)

ureter

c)

pancreas

d)

urinary bladder

e)

urethra

112.

Urine is transported from the bladder to the outside of the body by the:

a)

ureter

b)

trigone

c)

prostate gland

d)

urethra

e)

collecting duct

113.

What is the function of the respiratory system?

a)

take in oxygen only

b)

remove carbon dioxide

c)

take in oxygen and remove carbon dioxide

d)

make sugar

114.

The kidney's job is to...

a)

make bile

b)

store urine

c)

filter waste from blood

d)

release urine outside of the body

115.

Inside the kidneys you have millions of filters called...

a)

alveoli

b)

nephrons

c)

capillaries

d)

diaphragm

116.

The liver functions to...

a)

produce bile

b)

store vitamins

c)

detoxify substances

d)

all of these

117.

If the liver were severely damaged, which substance would be difficult to digest?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

sugars

d)

proteins

e)

nucleic acids

118.

Peristalsis occurs in the digestive tract...

a)

from the pharynx to the anus

b)

in the small and large intestines only

c)

in the stomach and small intestine only

d)

in the stomach, small intestine and large intestine

119.

When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This series of reactions is called...

a)

absorption

b)

chemical digestion

c)

secretion

d)

mechanical digestion

120.

The function of goblet cells is to:

a)

absorb nutrients from digested food and store them for future use

b)

produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion

c)

secrete buffers in order to keep the pH of the digestive tract close to neutral

d)

provide protection against invading bacteria and other disease-causing organisms that enter the digestive tract in food

121.

Which one of the following represents the correct order through which food passes in the alimentary canal?

a)

mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine

b)

mouth, esophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

c)

pharynx, mouth, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine

d)

mouth, pharynx, esophagus, small intestine, stomach, large intestine

e)

mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

122.

Protein digestion begins in the:

a)

mouth

b)

esophagus

c)

stomach

d)

small intestine

e)

large intestine

123.

Enzymes and bile are carried by the pancreatic duct and bile duct into the:

a)

duodenum

b)

jejunum

c)

ileocecal valve

d)

ileum

e)

large intestine

124.

The primary function of the small intestine is:

a)

absorption of nutrients

b)

absorption of water

c)

waste secretion

d)

vitamin conversion

e)

mineral secretion

125.

Which one of the following is NOT a subdivision of the large intestine?

a)

cecum

b)

appendix

c)

duodenum

d)

colon

e)

rectum

126.

What organ is responsible for drying out indigestible food residue through water absorption and the elimination of feces?

a)

stomach

b)

large intestine

c)

small intestine

d)

pancreas

e)

liver

127.

The accessory digestive organ that produces enzymes that break down all food groups is the:

a)

liver

b)

gallbladder

c)

salivary glands

d)

pancreas

e)

spleen

128.

Where is bile stored?

a)

gallbladder

b)

pancreas

c)

duodenum

d)

stomach

e)

cecum

129.

Which anatomical structure produces the hormone testosterone?

a)

penis

b)

testis

c)

scrotum

d)

prostate gland

e)

seminal vesicles

130.

What anatomical structure is represented by letter "j"?

a)

penis

b)

testicle

c)

scrotum

d)

prostate gland

e)

epididymis

131.

Letter "m" is a structure that stores sperm until ejaculation. What is the name of structure "m"?

a)

penis

b)

testicle

c)

prostate gland

d)

epididymis

e)

bulbourethral gland

132.

Letter "k" secretes a clear, lubricating liquid that neutralizes the urine in the urethra during copulation. What is this structure called?

a)

prostate gland

b)

seminal vesicles

c)

epididymis

d)

bulbourethral gland

133.

Letter "i" represents the womb where the embryo implants and develops. What is the name of this structure?

a)

ovary

b)

uterine tube

c)

vagina

d)

urethra

e)

uterus

134.

The letter "h" represents the organ that manufactures the ovum. What is the name of this organ?

a)

ovary

b)

uterine tube

c)

vagina

d)

uterus

e)

clitoris

135.

The letter "d" represents a tube in the female anatomy. What is the name of this organ?

a)

ovary

b)

uterine tube

c)

vagina

d)

uterus

e)

clitoris

136.

The letter "k" represents a tube in the female anatomy. What substance travels through this tube?

a)

feces

b)

fetus

c)

urine

d)

endometrial layer

e)

ova

137.

The letter "h" represents the organ that manufactures the ovum. That is the name given to the periodic release of this ovum into the uterine tube?

a)

menstruation

b)

ejaculation

c)

ovulation

d)

urination

e)

menarche

138.

Which epithelial tissue is found in areas subject to considerable friction and abuse, such as the esophagus?

a)

pseudostratified columnar epithelium

b)

simple squamous epithelium

c)

simple columnar epithelium

d)

transitional

e)

stratified squamous epithelium

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