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Page 1

Total questions: 136

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The cover text states: "Practice Practicum Anatomy and Disease and Disorders 2024/2025." Based on this, which area of science is the primary focus of the material?

a)

Astronomy and cosmology

b)

Human anatomy and pathological conditions

c)

Environmental chemistry and ecology

d)

Computational physics and algorithms

2.

Fill in the blank with the exact wording from the cover: The practicum emphasizes "Anatomy and ______ and _______ 2024/2025."

a)

Disease and Disorders

b)

Health and Wellness

c)

Structure and Function

d)

Injury and Recovery

3.

Which statement best interprets the phrase "Practice Practicum" in the title of a senior-level science course?

a)

It indicates a theoretical survey with no hands-on components.

b)

It suggests a skills-based experience applying concepts in practical settings.

c)

It refers to a historical analysis of medical practices.

d)

It implies a literature-only focus on anatomy texts.

4.

Select the TWO elements in the title that signal temporal context for the material.

a)

Practice

b)

Practicum

c)

Anatomy

d)

2024/2025

e)

Disease and Disorders

5.

Which of the following best describes the intended subject-matter pairing implied by the cover?

a)

Physics, focusing on quantum mechanics and thermodynamics

b)

Biology, integrating structural anatomy with health-related conditions

c)

Geology, combining mineralogy with tectonic processes

d)

Computer science, blending data structures with networking

6.

Fill in the blank: The year range on the cover indicates that the resource is designed for the ______ academic cycle.

a)

2024/2025

b)

2023/2024

c)

2022/2023

d)

2025/2026

7.

Which interpretation aligns with the phrase "Disease and Disorders" in a grade 12 science resource?

a)

Focus only on healthy lifestyle habits

b)

Study of pathogens and deviations from normal physiological function

c)

Exclusive coverage of surgical techniques

d)

Overview of veterinary medicine for farm animals

8.

Choose the option that most likely represents a central learning outcome implied by the cover text.

a)

Identify constellations in the night sky using a star chart.

b)

Describe the anatomical structure of major organ systems and relate them to common diseases and disorders.

c)

Design a microprocessor layout using logic gates.

d)

Classify igneous rocks based on cooling rates.

9.

From the title, infer the balance of content types that students should expect.

a)

Predominantly mathematical proofs

b)

A combination of anatomical knowledge and analysis of pathological conditions

c)

Exclusive focus on ecological fieldwork

d)

Primarily historical case studies of scientific discoveries

10.

A precancerous lesion that occurs on the mucous membrane of the tongue and is common among smokers is called:

a)

leukoderma

b)

melanoma

c)

scleroderma

d)

leukoplakia

11.

Identify the condition in which the heart is unable to pump adequate amounts of blood to the tissues and organs:

a)

cardiac failure

b)

congestive failure

c)

rheumatic heart disease

d)

arteriosclerosis

12.

The medical specialty focused on the diagnosis and treatment of diseases of the brain, spinal cord, and nerve disorders is:

a)

internal medicine

b)

neurology

c)

nuclear medicine

d)

cardiology

13.

Name the inflammation of the meninges of the brain and spinal cord, usually caused by a bacterial infection originating from the ears, sinuses, lungs, or a brain abscess:

a)

encephalitis

b)

meningitis

c)

herpes zoster

d)

multiple sclerosis

14.

Which functional change would be least expected in patients with acute myocardial infarction?

a)

a decrease in cardiac output

b)

a decrease in left ventricular end-diastolic pressure

c)

an increase in pulmonary wedge pressure

d)

an increase in central venous pressure

15.

A quick-rising and collapsing (water hammer) pulse is characteristic of:

a)

mitral stenosis

b)

aortic stenosis

c)

mitral regurgitation

d)

aortic regurgitation

16.

Which term refers specifically to a cancerous tumor of melanocytes?

a)

melanoma

b)

leukoplakia

c)

scleroderma

d)

leukoderma

17.

Select the statements that accurately describe complications or etiologies associated with infections of the central nervous system.

a)

Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges, often due to bacterial spread from adjacent structures.

b)

Encephalitis primarily describes demyelination rather than inflammation.

c)

Herpes zoster is the typical term for bacterial meninges infection.

d)

Multiple sclerosis is an acute bacterial infection of the spinal cord.

18.

Fill in the blank: The specialty that evaluates disorders of the nerves across the central and peripheral nervous systems is __________.

a)

neurology

b)

cardiology

c)

dermatology

d)

gastroenterology

19.

A lift or heave is the rise of which anatomical structure with each heartbeat?

a)

lungs

b)

sternum

c)

heart

d)

mediastinum

20.

Hypertension in adults is defined as blood pressure greater than which measurement?

a)

120/89

b)

130/80

c)

110/85

d)

140/90

21.

The precordium refers to the area of the chest overlying which structure?

a)

lungs

b)

sternum

c)

heart

d)

mediastinum

22.

A slow-rising and sustained carotid pulse is most characteristic of which condition?

a)

mitral stenosis

b)

aortic stenosis

c)

mitral regurgitation

d)

aortic regurgitation

23.

In cluster headaches, which statement is correct?

a)

The onset typically occurs at night during REM sleep.

b)

The pain is unilateral and non-throbbing.

c)

There may be conjunctival injection and tearing of the eye on the involved side.

d)

None of these.

24.

Migraine headaches may be preceded by which feature?

a)

visual disturbances

b)

continuous, lasting for weeks

c)

aggravated by oral contraceptives

d)

all of these

25.

Identify the combination of features that commonly co-occur with cluster headaches.

a)

Nocturnal onset during REM sleep

b)

Unilateral, non-throbbing pain

c)

Conjunctival injection and tearing on the involved side

d)

Photophobia aura preceding pain

26.

Choose the blood pressure threshold that defines adult hypertension, and determine whether 138/88 qualifies.

a)

140/90 mmHg; 138/88 does not qualify as hypertension

b)

130/80 mmHg; 138/88 qualifies as hypertension

c)

120/80 mmHg; 138/88 qualifies as hypertension

d)

150/95 mmHg; 138/88 does not qualify as hypertension

27.

Fill in the blank: The area of the chest overlying the ______ is called the precordium.

a)

heart

b)

liver

c)

stomach

d)

lung

28.

Which of the following is the most common type of headache?

a)

classic migraine

b)

tension headache

c)

cluster headache

d)

inflammation headache

29.

Variation in the shape of red blood cells is indicated by which term?

a)

poikilocytosis

b)

anisocytosis

c)

anasotosis

d)

poikotosis

30.

Erythroblastosis fetalis in newborns, characterized by anemia, jaundice, and enlargement of the liver and spleen, is an example of which type of disease?

a)

aplastic

b)

iron deficiency

c)

pernicious

d)

hemolytic

31.

A thrombotic occlusion is best described as which condition?

a)

irregular heart rhythm

b)

increased platelet formation

c)

condition of unknown etiology

d)

blocking of an artery by a clot

32.

An inflammation of the skin that usually causes itching and may include scaling or blisters is identified as which condition?

a)

pemphigus

b)

keratosis

c)

impetigo

d)

eczema

33.

Coronary artery disease is directly associated with which clinical effect?

a)

normal heart rhythms

b)

restricted blood flow to the heart

c)

bacterial infection

d)

mitral stenosis

34.

Identify the condition that is specifically caused by autoimmune blistering of the skin, rather than generalized itching and scaling.

a)

pemphigus

b)

eczema

c)

keratosis

d)

impetigo

35.

Choose the statement that best explains why coronary artery disease compromises cardiac function.

a)

It reduces blood flow to the heart muscle, leading to a decreased oxygen supply.

b)

It increases the heart rate, causing overexertion of the heart muscle.

c)

It strengthens the heart muscle, improving its efficiency.

d)

It causes the heart valves to become more flexible, enhancing blood flow.

36.

Fill in the blank: Erythroblastosis fetalis primarily involves __________ of red blood cells.

a)

hemolysis

b)

coagulation

c)

proliferation

d)

aggregation

37.

A congenital defect characterized by the absence of the vertebral arch of the spinal column is called:

a)

hydrocephalus

b)

spina bifida

c)

tabes dorsalis

d)

paresthesia

38.

Paralysis of the lower limbs and, to varying degrees, the lower trunk is called:

a)

paraplegia

b)

hemiplegia

c)

paresis

d)

paresthesia

39.

A seizure disorder affecting 1 to 2 percent of the population and associated with abnormal electrical impulses from neurons in the brain is:

a)

encephalitis

b)

Bell's palsy

c)

epilepsy

d)

meningitis

40.

Persons incapable of forming melanin are called:

a)

albino

b)

leukoderma

c)

Caucasian

d)

pale-faced

41.

Increasing evidence has linked idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) to which mechanisms?

a)

Circulating IgG molecules reactive with platelet surfaces

b)

Prominent decrease in complement levels

c)

Catastrophic lysis of platelets in the free circulation

d)

Platelets bound with IgG molecules that are more readily removed and destroyed by macrophages in the spleen and liver

42.

Which term best distinguishes paralysis affecting both lower limbs from paralysis affecting one side?

a)

Paraplegia is paralysis of both lower limbs; hemiplegia is one-sided paralysis.

b)

Hemiplegia is paralysis of both lower limbs; paraplegia is one-sided paralysis.

c)

Paresis is paralysis of both lower limbs; hemiplegia is one-sided paralysis.

d)

Paresthesia is paralysis of both lower limbs; paraplegia is one-sided paralysis.

43.

Fill in the blank: A disorder characterized by recurrent seizures due to abnormal neuronal electrical activity is __________.

a)

epilepsy

b)

diabetes

c)

asthma

d)

arthritis

44.

Which statement best explains why platelets coated with IgG in ITP are decreased in circulation?

a)

IgG-coated platelets adhere to vessel walls and cause clot occlusion.

b)

Macrophages in the spleen and liver more readily remove and destroy IgG-coated platelets.

c)

Complement activation rapidly dissolves the platelet membrane.

d)

IgG prevents megakaryocytes from producing new platelets.

45.

A person with an absence of melanin production in the skin, hair, and eyes would most accurately be classified as which of the following?

a)

Albino, due to lack of melanin

b)

Leukoderma, due to excess melanin

c)

Caucasian, due to normal melanin

d)

Pale-faced, due to transient vasoconstriction

46.

Serum sickness is described in the material. Which statement best characterizes this condition?

a)

Occurs only after the administration of foreign serum to humans

b)

Occurs within a few minutes following the administration of the offending antigen

c)

May cause joint pain, lymph node enlargement, and neuritis

d)

Requires many previous exposures to an offending antigen before the disease is seen

47.

Individuals at risk for hemolytic reactions to transfused blood are those sensitized to red blood cell antigens by prior events. Which prior event(s) increase the risk the most?

a)

Transfusion

b)

Pregnancy

c)

Transfusion and pregnancy

d)

None of these

48.

Which of the following are characteristics of infantile eczema according to the material? Select all that apply.

a)

It usually appears in the first year of life.

b)

It is associated with a great increase in sebaceous activity, producing excessively oily skin.

c)

In all cases, it occurs permanently by three years of age.

d)

It is associated with red, raised, pruritic, scaling areas involving the cheeks, scalp, and diaper area.

49.

Hereditary angioedema (HANE) involves which mechanism?

a)

The same mechanism as angioedema accompanying acute urticaria.

b)

It manifests as recurrent bouts of edema involving peripheral structures as well as the larynx and bowel.

c)

It produces laryngeal edema that usually develops in minutes and is accompanied by urticaria.

d)

It implies low activity levels of the factor that normally inhibits the activated first component of the complement system.

50.

Which exposure may precipitate individual attacks of asthma based on the material?

a)

Volatile irritants from organic solvents

b)

Exposure to mists and dusts in individual plants

c)

Inhalation of cold air

d)

All of these

51.

Fill in the blank: Serum sickness may present with ________, lymph node enlargement, and neuritis.

a)

joint pain

b)

skin rash

c)

abdominal pain

d)

visual disturbances

52.

Which statement about infantile eczema is most accurate?

a)

It is permanent in all cases by age three

b)

It is strongly linked to increased sebaceous activity causing oily skin

c)

It commonly presents with red, raised, itchy, scaling patches on the cheek, scalp, and diaper area

d)

It never appears in the first year of life

53.

Which description best differentiates HANE from angioedema accompanying acute urticaria?

a)

Both share the same mechanism and typically include urticaria

b)

HANE is characterized by recurrent edema affecting peripheral structures, larynx, and bowel, often with urticaria

c)

HANE results from deficient inhibition of the activated first complement component and classically lacks urticaria

d)

HANE develops only after multiple exposures to allergens

54.

According to the material, prior pregnancy can sensitize individuals to red blood cell antigens. What implication does this have for transfusion risk?

a)

It decreases the risk of hemolytic reaction during transfusion

b)

It has no effect on transfusion reactions

c)

It increases the risk, especially when combined with previous transfusions

d)

It only matters for males

55.

Which condition indicates that certain elements are lacking in the blood? Choose the best answer based on the definitions provided.

a)

angina

b)

anemia

c)

ischemia

d)

all of these

56.

Identify the mysterious condition that can kill apparently healthy infants between the ages of 4 weeks and 7 months.

a)

apnea

b)

pneumonia

c)

tuberculosis

d)

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)

57.

Name the acute bronchopneumonia that derived its name from a highly publicized incident in which 182 people developed the disease at a convention in Philadelphia in 1976.

a)

AIDS

b)

asian flu

c)

Legionnaires' disease

d)

none of these

58.

Which metabolic bone disorder affects primarily postmenopausal women and is characterized by the loss of calcium and phosphate from bone?

a)

scoliosis

b)

kyphosis

c)

osteoporosis

d)

sprain

59.

What chronic inflammatory disease attacks joints and surrounding tissues and is intermittent with periods of remissions?

a)

dysplasia

b)

dislocation

c)

bursitis

d)

rheumatoid arthritis

60.

Which contagious, superficial skin infection is usually seen in young children?

a)

keloid

b)

ringworm

c)

impetigo

d)

verrucae

61.

Select the condition that best matches the description: chest pain due to reduced blood flow to heart muscle.

a)

angina

b)

anemia

c)

ischemia

d)

rheumatoid arthritis

62.

Choose the term that refers specifically to insufficient blood supply to a tissue, leading to oxygen shortage.

a)

angina

b)

anemia

c)

ischemia

d)

apnea

63.

Which statement best explains why postmenopausal women are at increased risk for the identified metabolic bone disorder?

a)

Decreased estrogen contributes to reduced bone remodeling balance, increasing calcium and phosphate loss

b)

Higher testosterone levels accelerate bone mineralization, leading to brittle bones

c)

Enhanced vitamin C absorption causes excessive collagen formation in bones

d)

Increased lung infections directly deplete bone calcium stores

64.

A condition of excessive intraocular pressure which results in atrophy of the optic nerve is called:

a)

hordeolum

b)

amblyopia

c)

glaucoma

d)

strabismus

65.

A gradually developing cloudiness of the lens, occurring most frequently in persons over 70 years of age, is:

a)

blepharitis

b)

pink eye

c)

cataracts

d)

amblyopia

66.

Which of the following tissue changes are associated with uncomplicated asthma?

a)

Gradual loss of supporting bronchial striated muscle

b)

Atrophy of bronchial smooth muscle

c)

Smooth muscle spasm with mucosal edema

d)

Hypersecretion of viscid mucus

67.

A fragile organism called gonococcus bacteria causes which of the following?

a)

Genital herpes

b)

Crabs

c)

Gonorrhea

d)

PMS

68.

A chronic disease characterized by insulin deficiency or resistance is:

a)

Cushing syndrome

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Cretinism

d)

Insulin transfusion

69.

A critical illness resulting in the sudden cessation of kidney function is:

a)

Renal failure

b)

Polycystic kidney

c)

Pyelonephritis

d)

Spastic colon

70.

Fill in the blank using the exact term: Excessive intraocular pressure leading to optic nerve atrophy is known as ________.

a)

glaucoma

b)

cataract

c)

retinopathy

d)

conjunctivitis

71.

Select ALL changes that most directly contribute to airway narrowing during an uncomplicated asthma episode.

a)

Loss of supporting bronchial striated muscle over time

b)

Atrophy of bronchial smooth muscle

c)

Smooth muscle spasm

d)

Mucosal edema

e)

Hypersecretion of viscid mucus

72.

Diabetes mellitus is described as a disease of insulin deficiency or resistance, and this contrasts with cretinism in terms of endocrine involvement because:

a)

Diabetes mellitus involves insulin deficiency or resistance, while cretinism involves thyroid hormone deficiency.

b)

Both diabetes mellitus and cretinism involve insulin deficiency.

c)

Cretinism is caused by excess insulin, while diabetes mellitus is caused by thyroid hormone deficiency.

d)

Diabetes mellitus and cretinism both involve resistance to thyroid hormones.

73.

An encircled lesion in the mucous membrane lining of the stomach is referred to as which condition?

a)

polyp

b)

hernia

c)

peptic ulcer

d)

all of these

74.

A condition characterized by alternating constipation and diarrhea is called what?

a)

ulcerative colitis

b)

spastic colitis

c)

pancreatitis

d)

all of these

75.

A crack in the lining of the anus is referred to as which term?

a)

hemorrhoids

b)

fissure

c)

fistula

d)

foramen

76.

Which condition is characterized by frequent liquid stools?

a)

colitis

b)

diarrhea

c)

flatus

d)

none of these

77.

Congenital anemia occurring primarily in African Americans, with about 1 in 10 carrying the abnormal gene, is called what?

a)

ischemia

b)

angina

c)

sickle cell

d)

trisomy 21

78.

What is the most potent stimulus for increasing coronary blood flow?

a)

systemic lactic acidosis

b)

local myocardial hypoxia

c)

sympathetic stimulation

d)

increased arterial pressure

79.

Identify the gastrointestinal term: an outgrowth on a mucous membrane that is not ulcerative or herniated.

a)

polyp

b)

peptic ulcer

c)

hernia

d)

fistula

80.

Select the best match for the description: an abnormal opening connecting two epithelial surfaces, often in gastrointestinal contexts.

a)

fissure

b)

fistula

c)

foramen

d)

hemorrhoid

81.

Choose the correct statement regarding the stimulus for coronary blood flow:

a)

It is primarily driven by systemic metabolic acidosis throughout the body.

b)

It is most strongly increased by low oxygen levels within the heart muscle.

c)

It depends mainly on elevated arterial pressure.

d)

It arises chiefly from heightened sympathetic outflow.

82.

Which term best fits: inherited disorder leading to misshapen red blood cells and chronic anemia, prevalent among African Americans?

a)

angina

b)

sickle cell

c)

ischemia

d)

ulcerative colitis

83.

Which physician specializes in treating diseases of the skin?

a)

Urologist

b)

Dermatologist

c)

Pathologist

d)

Dentist

84.

Identify the term that means disease-producing.

a)

Pathogenic

b)

Histology

c)

Pathology

d)

Bacteriology

85.

Diabetes Mellitus primarily involves which organ?

a)

Pancreas

b)

Pituitary gland

c)

Thyroid gland

d)

Adrenal glands

86.

Name the medical specialty that uses radioactive substances for diagnosis and treatment.

a)

Aerospace medicine

b)

Nuclear medicine

c)

Forensic

d)

Neurological

87.

Select the field concerned with diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the musculoskeletal system.

a)

Radiology

b)

Orthopaedic surgery

c)

Physical medicine

d)

Ophthalmology

88.

What does osteolysis mean?

a)

Cartilage build up

b)

Cartilage break down

c)

Dissolving the bone

d)

Joint inflammation

89.

Choose all terms that describe study fields rather than disease conditions or procedures.

a)

Pathology

b)

Histology

c)

Pathogenic

d)

Bacteriology

e)

Orthopaedic surgery

90.

A patient with severe insulin deficiency is most likely to have a disorder involving the ________.

a)

pancreas

b)

liver

c)

kidney

d)

thyroid

91.

A hospital department plans to treat thyroid cancer using radioactive iodine. Which specialty should oversee this plan?

a)

Neurology

b)

Nuclear medicine

c)

Dermatology

d)

Forensic medicine

92.

Leukemia is best categorized as which condition?

a)

cancer

b)

a blood condition

c)

a blood condition involving red cells

d)

a blood condition involving white cells

93.

Inflammation of the renal pelvis is referred to as what medical term?

a)

nephritis

b)

renitis

c)

cystitis

d)

pyelonephritis

94.

In anatomical terminology, the adjective intercostal refers to a location where?

a)

under the cartilage

b)

on the cartilage

c)

under the ribs

d)

between the ribs

95.

Choose the correct term that means occurring inside the cell.

a)

intracellular

b)

intercellular

c)

pericellular

d)

none of these

96.

Hepatitis is inflammation of which organ?

a)

liver

b)

spleen

c)

kidney

d)

stomach

97.

A malignant tumor is referred to by which term?

a)

myoma

b)

carcinoma

c)

sarcoma

d)

adenoma

98.

Fill in the blank with the correct term: Inflammation of the bladder is called ________.

a)

cystitis

b)

nephritis

c)

urethritis

d)

pyelonephritis

99.

Explain why leukemia is classified as cancer rather than simply a blood condition.

a)

Because leukemia involves uncontrolled growth of abnormal white blood cells, which is a hallmark of cancer.

b)

Because leukemia only affects red blood cells.

c)

Because leukemia is caused by a bacterial infection.

d)

Because leukemia is a temporary condition that resolves on its own.

100.

Multiple-select: Which terms correctly denote inflammation of a specific organ or structure? Select all that apply.

a)

hepatitis

b)

nephritis

c)

intercostal

d)

carcinoma

e)

cystitis

101.

A malignant tumor of the epithelium is called which of the following?

a)

uvula

b)

carcinoma

c)

myoma

d)

petechiae

102.

Pathology is best defined as which statement?

a)

the study of paths

b)

the study of disease

c)

the process of disease

d)

the study of microbiology

103.

A myoma is most accurately described as which type of tumor?

a)

a malignant tumor

b)

a benign tumor

c)

a tumor of the muscle

d)

a tumor of the gland

104.

High blood pressure is referred to by which term?

a)

hypertension

b)

hyperemia

c)

hypertrophy

d)

hyperthermia

105.

Bradycardia refers to which condition?

a)

slow heart rate

b)

fast heart rate

c)

sinus rhythm

d)

enlarged heart

106.

Which term refers to the presence of pathogenic microorganisms causing tissue injury and clinical illness?

a)

toxic

b)

sepsis

c)

cocci

d)

chills

107.

Select all terms below that correctly match the described condition. Choose two.

a)

Hypertension: elevated arterial pressure

b)

Bradycardia: tachyarrhythmia with rapid pulse

c)

Myoma: neoplasm of smooth or skeletal muscle

d)

Pathology: study of microbial species only

108.

A patient’s heart rate is measured at 45 beats per minute. Which term best classifies this finding?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Arrhythmia

d)

Hyperemia

109.

Complete the statement: The discipline that investigates the nature, causes, and effects of diseases in organisms is called _____.

a)

pathology

b)

ecology

c)

genetics

d)

anatomy

110.

Remission refers to which clinical state? Choose the best definition based on medical terminology.

a)

worsening of symptoms

b)

recurrence of symptoms

c)

lessoning of symptoms

d)

relapse

111.

Relapse refers to which clinical state? Select the most accurate definition.

a)

remission

b)

recurrence of symptoms

c)

lessoning of symptoms

d)

recovery from disease

112.

Pancytopenia refers to which hematologic condition?

a)

a decrease in white cells

b)

a decrease in red cells

c)

an increase in all blood cells

d)

a decrease in all blood cells

113.

Metastasis refers to which process in cancer progression?

a)

growth of cancer cells from one tissue to another

b)

a form of sarcoma

c)

a form of carcinoma

d)

a form of strep

114.

The medical term for liver enlargement is which of the following?

a)

hypomegaly

b)

hyperhepat

c)

hyperliver

d)

hepatomegaly

115.

An abnormal increase in red blood cells is called what?

a)

erythropenia

b)

erythrocytosis

c)

erythrodextrin

d)

erythrophage

116.

Identify the correct prefix-root-suffix breakdown for the term hepatomegaly and infer its meaning.

a)

hepato- (liver) + -megaly (enlargement): enlargement of the liver

b)

hepa- (blood) + -tome (cut): surgical cut into blood

c)

hepat- (stomach) + -algia (pain): stomach pain

d)

mega- (large) + -hepat (liver): large liver cell

117.

Which scenario best exemplifies a clinical relapse rather than remission?

a)

Symptoms diminish steadily after treatment and remain minimal.

b)

After a period of improvement, prior symptoms return with similar intensity.

c)

A patient’s symptoms never change despite therapy.

d)

Laboratory values normalize and the patient reports no symptoms.

118.

A patient’s complete blood count shows concurrent low erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets. Which term most accurately describes this condition?

a)

anemia

b)

leukopenia

c)

pancytopenia

d)

thrombocytosis

119.

Based on the terminology shown in the image, select the term that correctly names a specialist who studies diseases. Choose one option.

a)

pathology

b)

pathologist

c)

pathos

d)

patio

120.

According to the provided options, inflammation of both joint and bone is referred to as which term? Choose one option.

a)

osetitis

b)

arthritis

c)

osteoarthritis

d)

osteorthrosis

121.

Hysteropathy refers to which of the following? Choose one option.

a)

any uterine disorder

b)

a suture

c)

any excision

d)

removal of the uterine

122.

An allergy is best described as which option from the list? Choose one option.

a)

an irritation of the mucosa

b)

a state of hypersensitivity

c)

a condition of living organisms

d)

an irritation of the sinus cavity

123.

Anemias are diseases primarily affecting which of the following? Choose one option.

a)

brain

b)

red blood cells

c)

white blood cells

d)

none of these

124.

The islets of Langerhans primarily perform which function? Choose one option.

a)

produce adrenalin

b)

stimulate growth of the thyroid

c)

produce insulin

d)

produce ADH

125.

Identify the incorrect term spelling for inflammation of bone from the listed choices and rewrite it correctly in the blank.

a)

osteitis

b)

osteitus

c)

osteitits

d)

osteitess

126.

Which statement best explains why an allergy is considered a hypersensitivity rather than an infection?

a)

Allergy involves an exaggerated immune response to harmless substances, not a pathogenic invasion.

b)

Allergy is caused by bacteria entering the body.

c)

Allergy is a result of viral infection.

d)

Allergy is the same as an autoimmune disease.

127.

Which condition would most directly alter oxygen transport in the blood?

a)

Anemia

b)

Leukemia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Diabetes

128.

Goiter is best described as which of the following conditions?

a)

Controls levels of blood calcium

b)

Secretes steroids

c)

Is the result of hypoparathyroidism

d)

Is visible swelling of the thyroid gland

129.

Select the correct set of organs that compose the urinary system.

a)

Prostate, bladder, kidneys, ureters

b)

Kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra

c)

Kidneys, bladder, urethra, external genitalia

d)

Kidneys, bladder, urethra, cervix

130.

During the first two months of development, the unborn child is referred to as what?

a)

A fetus

b)

An embryo

c)

A neonate

d)

An ovum

131.

What does the Apgar assessment represent in the context of newborn care?

a)

A medical term meaning nutrition

b)

A rating mechanism for the newborn

c)

A nutritional medium used to grow bacterial cultures

d)

None of these

132.

How many bones are present in the adult human body?

a)

90

b)

100

c)

206

d)

4508

133.

Identify the longest bone in the human body.

a)

Tibia

b)

Fibula

c)

Femur

d)

Humerus

134.

Which structure is NOT part of the urinary system?

a)

Kidneys

b)

Ureters

c)

Prostate

d)

Urethra

135.

Fill in the blank with the precise term: The term for an infant in the first four weeks after birth is a _____.

a)

neonate

b)

toddler

c)

adolescent

d)

fetus

136.

A healthcare provider evaluates a newborn with skin color, heart rate, reflexes, muscle tone, and respiration. What standardized assessment is being used?

a)

Apgar score

b)

Glasgow Coma Scale

c)

Bishop score

d)

Braden scale