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Biology Final Review

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 2hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What organs are in the nervous system?

a)

skin

b)

brain

c)

muscles

d)

heart

2.

What organ is part of the integumentary system?

a)

brain

b)

skin

c)

heart

d)

lungs

3.

Cyclins signal cells to progress through stages of cell replication. Uncontrolled production of cyclins will most likely result in...

a)

the formation of haploid cells

b)

transfer of cyclins to other cells

c)

formation of tumors

d)

death of the cell

4.

Farmers spray pesticides on plants to protect plants from being eaten by insects. Some individual insects have a genetic mutation that makes them resistant to the pesticides. Which best describes how only a few resistant individuals resulted in the pesticide becoming ineffective?

a)

the resistant insects change the toxin on the plants, making it safe for others

b)

the resistant insects grow larger and eat less of the plants

c)

the resistant insects eat the contaminated surface and leave the rest for others

d)

the resistant insects are able to survive to reproduce and create a population that is also resistant

5.

What property is shared by cells of all living things?

a)

the cells contain DNA composed of adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine

b)

the cells are surrounded by a phospholipid bilayer and a cell wall made of cellulose

c)

the cells have chromosomes that are located inside a membrane-bound nucleus

d)

the cells rely on mitochondria to carry out aerobic cellular respiration

6.

Which organism gets the LEAST energy?

a)

eagle/bird

b)

snakes

c)

rabbits

d)

grass/plants

7.

Which organism has the MOST energy?

a)

eagle/bird

b)

snake

c)

rabbit

d)

grass/plants

8.

Which best explains how the cell cycle is important to the life cycle of a frog?

a)

it enables frogs to produce tadpoles that are clones

b)

it allows frogs to grow, develop, and reproduce

c)

it prevents overproduction of frog offspring

d)

it ensures the best adapted frogs survive and pass on traits to offspring

9.

What organs are part of the digestive system?

a)

heart

b)

skin

c)

brain

d)

intestines/stomach

10.

Which is part of the endocrine system?

a)

brain

b)

muscles

c)

mouth

d)

hormones

11.

When multiple transitional fossils are found in many rock layers, they provide evidence of...

a)

seasonal variation in the diet of the species

b)

gradual change of a species over time

c)

DNA functioning as the genetic material of organisms

d)

an unchanging environment

12.

A segment of DNA is shown. Which is the part labeled X?

a)

nucleotide

b)

phosphate group

c)

hydrogen bond

d)

deoxyribose

13.

What are genes?

a)

DNA

b)

ATP

c)

ABC

d)

DTA

14.

Match the following words with their definitions.

a)

ATP

1.

energy source

b)

osmosis

2.

water moving

c)

adaptations

3.

changes that increase survival

d)

prokaryote

4.

simple organisms

e)

eukaryote

5.

complex organisms

15.

A student conducted an investigation to study phototropism in grasses. The only difference between the control group and the experimental group was the light conditions. The control group was provided full light, while the experimental group was shaded on one side. The diagrams show the average heights and positions of blades of grass in the investigation. (View Image)


Which statement best explains why the grass tips of the experimental group bent toward the light?

a)

Water evaporated faster on the side of the plant having full light.

b)

Light sensors in the grass tips simulated a hormone in the shoot system.

c)

The xylem in the roots system absorbed more nutrients from the shaded side.

d)

The side facing the light has greater chance of absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

16.

The energy pyramid shows the energy made available by producers. (View Image)


Base on the energy flow between trophic levels in an energy pyramid, how much energy would be expected to be found at the secondary consumer level in this pyramid?

a)

100 joules

b)

500 joules

c)

1,000 joules

d)

50 joules

17.

Some students used vinegar to dissolve away the shells of three eggs and used the eggs as models of human red blood cells. The students observed the changes in the eggs when they were placed in different solutions. (View Image)


Which statement best describes the role of the cell membrane in this model?

a)

The cell membrane is an impermeable barrier that prevents water from entering the cell.

b)

The cell membrane allows solutes to enter the cell, which causes the cell to shrink.

c)

The cell membrane allows water to enter and leave the cell.

d)

The cell membrane removes solutes from the environment.

18.

The diagram shows cells in different phases of mitosis. A student is trying to find a cell in a particular phase of mitosis. The student is looking for evidence that spindle fibers are separating the chromosomes to ensure that each new nucleus has one copy of each chromosome. (View Image)


Which cell is in the phase of mitosis that the student is searching for?

a)

Cell 1

b)

Cell 2

c)

Cell 3

d)

Cell 4

19.

The diagram represents one way an enzyme can be inhibited. (View Image)


Which statement explains the effect of an inhibitor on an enzyme?

a)

A substrate will be able to bond with the enzyme.

b)

The enzyme will likely be attacked by immune cells.

c)

The enzyme will be unable to produce more enzymes.

d)

A substrate will be unable to attach to the enzyme.

20.

A cladogram of five species is shown. Based on the diagram, the ancestral species most likely had -

a)

a vertebral column

b)

a vertebral column and hair

c)

sharp teeth and retractable claws

d)

the ability to purr

21.

Based on the information provided, which two species are most closely related? LOOK CAREFULLY

a)

Northern cricket frog and bullfrog

b)

Northern leopard frog and green treefrog

c)

Northern cricket frog and green treefrog

d)

Northern leopard frog and bullfrog

22.

Based on the diagram, which two populations best represent trophic levels that RECIEVE the LEAST amount the total energy provided to the ecosystem by the grass?

a)

Crickets and sparrows

b)

Toads and spiders

c)

Rabbits and mice

d)

Hognose snakes and owls

23.

When cells lose their ability to regulate the cell cycle, they divide at accelerated rate and form a mass of cells. This mass of cells is referred to as -

a)

a tumor

b)

an embryo

c)

a gland

d)

an organ

24.

Based on the diagram, which set of bat species is the least related?

a)

Ptenochirus minor and Megaerops niphanae

b)

Dyacopterus spadiceus and Otopteropus cartilagondus

c)

Haplonycteris fisheri and Ptenochirus jagori

d)

Cynopterus sphinx and Chironax melancephalus

25.

How do the wings of the Gentoo penguin and the legs of the common ostrich provide an advantage in their habitat?

a)

Allows them to find prey

b)

Allows them to escape from predators

c)

Allows them to control their body temperature

d)

Allows them to be camouflaged in their environments

26.

Overfishing is causing the decline of fish populations, such as Eastern Atlantic bluefin tuna in the Mediterranean. Eastern Atlantic bluefin tuna are caught faster than they can reproduce. Which statement describes the most likely effect that overfishing will have on this ecosystem?

a)

Overfishing makes the ecosystem more stable by increasing competition for limited resources.

b)

Overfishing decreases the stability of the ecosystem by disrupting food chains.

c)

Overfishing has no effect on ecosystem's stability because it affects one species out of many.

d)

Overfishing increase ecosystem stability by allowing prey populations to overproduce.

27.

The aye-aye lemur is mammal that feeds mostly on insect larvae that live inside trees. When it hears a difference in the echo, it tear open the bark with its teeth until the insect tunnel is exposed. It uses its specialized finger to reach the insect larvae and remove it. Which selective pressure most likely resulted in the the aye-aye lemur's special adaptation?

a)

Limited availability of water

b)

Competing for mates

c)

Large numbers of natural predators

d)

Food sources that are hard to find

28.

Conservation biologists studying cheetah populations have determined that the lack of genetic diversity among the cheetahs is due to genetic drift. Which statement explains the most likely consequence of having a low genetic diversity on the cheetah population?

a)

The chances of a mutation occurring in the cheetah population are decreased, increasing the cheetah survival rate.

b)

The gene pool remains in equilibrium and future generations of cheetah offspring are stronger and better adapted to their environments.

c)

The cheetah population becomes less likely to survive an outbreak of a disease or an environmental change, increasing the chance of species extinction.

d)

Genetic variability is maintained from older cheetah populations that have survived and endured environmental stressors.

29.

The life cycle of a frog is illustrated in the diagram.

Which statement best explains how the cell cycle is important to the life cycle of the frog?

a)

It enables frogs to produce tadpoles that are clones.

b)

It allows frogs to grow, develop, and reproduce.

c)

It prevents overproduction of frog offspring.

d)

It ensures the best adapted frogs survive and pass on traits to offspring.

30.

When the skin comes in contact with an irritant, receptors in the skin send signals to the spinal cord. The signal is then sent to the brain for processing, and the individual begins to scratch the affected area. Which two systems are most likely interacting when a person experiences itching caused by a skin irritant?

a)

Circulatory and excretory

b)

Integumentary and nervous

c)

Digestive and muscular

d)

Respiratory and lymphatic

31.

An illustration of how a particular DNA mutation will most likely affect the polypeptide produced is shown. What type of mutation is illustrated?

a)

Insertion

b)

Translocation

c)

Substitution

d)

Deletion

32.

In Texas Longhorn cattle, coat coloration is an inherited trait. What is the genetic basis of coat-color variation in Texas Longhorn cattle?

a)

Differences in the nucleotide sequences of genes

b)

Differences in the numbers of chromosomes in cells

c)

Differences in the diets of individual cattle

d)

Differences in the environmental conditions of different geographic areas

33.

8 A cellular process is shown. Which statement best describes the significance of this process?

a)

The process allows organisms to grow and heal.

b)

The process produces clones of the parent organism.

c)

The process copies DNA before cell division

d)

The process creates genetic variation in the resulting cells

34.

The giant octopus lays 20,000 to 100,000 fertilized eggs. After hatching, most octopuses become prey to larger marine organisms, and less than 5% will reach adulthood to reproduce. One benefit of the giant octopus laying many eggs is to —

a)

increase the average body size for surviving individuals to avoid predation

b)

decrease competition between different octopus species to maintain resources in the population

c)

increase the chance that more individuals will survive to maintain the population

d)

decrease the likelihood of offspring being consumed by predators

35.

Which of these correctly compliments the following DNA strand during replication: AGGTCA

a)

UCCAGU

b)

TCCAGT

c)

ACCAGU

d)

TGGAGT

36.

In which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

Mitosis

b)

G1 phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

S phase

37.

Adaptations that result from natural selection are expected to increase the fitness of an organism. In terms of natural selection, what is fitness?

a)

being able to escape from predators

b)

being among the strongest organisms in a population

c)

being able to survive, find a mate, and produce offspring

d)

being able to survive long enough to reach an adult age

38.

In cattle the allele for cloven hooves (H) is dominant over the allele for mule-foot hooves (h). The phenotype for each trait is shown in this picture.


What is the probability of cloven hooves in the offspring of parents that are heterozygous for the trait?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

39.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Metaphase
40.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
41.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
42.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
43.
Put the following stages of mitosis in order: anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and telophase. 
a)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
b)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase
44.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
Aa
b)
red hair
c)
heterozygous genes
d)
mutated DNA
45.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
46.
Natural selection is
a)
survival of the fittest
b)
humans change
c)
two species are the same
d)
more animals survive
47.

What is a change in an organism that allows for it to survive in its environment?

a)

homologous

b)

vestigial

c)

variation

d)

adaptation

48.
What is a producer?
a)
an organism that gets energy from eating other organisms
b)
an organisms that uses sunlight to make its own food
c)
an organism that gets energy from eating dead organisms, non-living material or waste
d)
an organism that uses chemical energy to make its own food
49.

What are the three main parts of a nucleotide?

a)

carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

b)

phosphate, sugar, and nitrogen base

c)

phosphate, sulfate, and nitrate

d)

adenine, thymine, and uracil

50.

NUCLEOTIDES ARE THE BUILDING BLOCKS OF...

a)

CARBOHYDRATES

b)

LIPIDS

c)

NUCLEIC ACIDS

d)

PROTEINS

51.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
52.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
53.
The ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment 
a)
diversity.
b)
evolution
c)
adaptation
d)
 fitness
54.
Which plant parts are the tubes that carry water throughout the plant?
a)
xylem
b)
phloem
c)
roots
d)
leaves
55.
Which plant parts carry sugars and other nutrients throughout the plant?
a)
phloem
b)
xylem
c)
roots
d)
leaves
56.
Vascular tissue that transports water and minerals UPWARDS from a plant's roots is know as ______.
a)
Chlorophyll
b)
Phloem
c)
Stomata
d)
Xylem
57.
The plant tissue that carries food materials DOWNWARD from the leaves to the rest of the pant is the ______.
a)
Phloem
b)
Stomata
c)
Chlorophyll
d)
Xylem
58.
Barnacles create home sites by attaching themselves to whales. This relationship neither harms nor benefits the whales. 
a)
parasitism
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
59.
Mistletoe extracts water and nutrients from a spruce tree. The spruce tree is harmed. 
a)
parasitism
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
60.
Two male Giraffes are fighting over the last green leaf of a tree that is dying.  
a)
Competition
b)
Mutualsim
c)
Predation
d)
Commensalism
61.
1.  A bee and a flower work together to benefit each other. This is an example of _________________. The bee helps the flower by pollinating it and the flower helps the bee by providing it with nectar. 
a)
commensal relationship 
b)
parasitic relationship 
c)
mutual relationship 
62.
Inherited trait that helps an organism survive is a(n) __________.
a)
Fossil
b)
Adaptation
c)
Ancestor
d)
Natural selection
63.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
64.
Comparing human hemoglobin of chimpanzees, horses, kangaroos, and chickens, reveal that humans have the fewest amino acid differences with 
a)
Kangaroos
b)
Horses
c)
chickens
d)
chimpanzees
65.

Reindeer from a rancher in Alaska escape from their pen during an enormous snow storm. After their escape, they mate with wild caribou that are migrating across the land. The offspring of these have traits for short legs and have tame behavior.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

c)

Non-Random Mating

d)

Natural Selection

66.

During a hurricane, a population of beetles almost gets completely wiped out. The only beetles that survived were lucky that they were in their nest at the time of the hurricane and had enough food to survive.

a)

Natural selection

b)

Genetic Drift

c)

Gene Flow

d)

Non-Random Mating

67.

A chemical spill causes the offspring of ladybugs to have blue dots instead of black dots.

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Genetic Drift

c)

Mutation

d)

Gene Flow

68.

The country of Sweden is known for having people with blonde hair and blue eyes. One day a family moves from Sweden to India where dark hair and dark eyes are very common. A female from Sweden marries a male from India and their offspring now have blonde hair and blue eyed traits.

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Mutation

c)

Non-Random Mating

d)

Gene Flow

69.

In a habitat there are red bugs and green bugs. The birds prefer the taste of the red bugs, so soon there are many green bugs and few red bugs. The green bugs reproduce and make more green bugs and eventually there are no more red bugs

a)

Genetic Drift

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Gene Flow

d)

Mutation

70.

Cell have several mechanisms for regulating their internal environments. Which of these mechanisms involved in maintaining homeostasis requires energy?

a)

osmosis

b)

diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

passive transport

71.
This diagram shows the cell cycle.

Which of the following activities occur in the S phase?
a)
Replication of the DNA
b)
Growth of the cell
c)
Formation of the mitotic spindle
d)
Breakdown of the nuclear membrane
72.

A segment of a DNA strand is shown.

3' AGGTCAGGT 5'

Which of these is the correct complementary DNA strand for the segment shown?

a)

5' AGGTCAGGT 3'

b)

5' ACCUGAGGU 3'

c)

5' TGGACTGGA 3'

d)

5' TCCAGTCCA 3'

73.

Which part of a DNA molecule is responsible for the direct coding of specific traits in an organism?

a)

The number of hydrogen bonds that hold the strands of DNA together.

b)

The number of carbons in the DNA molecule.

c)

The sequence of nucleotide bases in the DNA molecule.

d)

The sequences of phosphates along each DNA strand.

74.

An illustration of how a particular DNA mutation will most likely affect the polypeptide produced is shown. What type of mutation is illustrated?

a)

Insertion

b)

Translocation

c)

Substitution

d)

Deletion

75.

What is the purpose of this process this process?

a)

To replicate the DNA of an organism before cell division

b)

To assemble nucleotides in an mRNA chain along a DNA template

c)

To synthesize amino acids used to unzip strands of DNA and copy the genetic code

d)

To translate the genetic code into a specific sequence of amino acids

76.

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both involve the use and release of gases. Which statement correctly identifies the role of gases in the two processes?

a)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both use carbon dioxide and release oxygen.

b)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both use oxygen and release carbon dioxide.

c)

Cellular respiration uses oxygen and releases carbon dioxide, while photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide and releases oxygen.

d)

Cellular respiration uses carbon dioxide and releases oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen and releases carbon dioxide.

77.

Which two processes does this diagram most directly model?

a)

Energy conversions and synthesis of new molecules

b)

Synthesis of new molecules and homeostasis

c)

Transport of molecules and energy conversions

d)

Homeostasis and transport of molecules

78.

Plant roots have extensions called root hairs. These root hairs are important in the homeostasis of the plant. Which statement best explains the importance of the root hairs to the stems and leaves of the plant?

a)

root hairs convert minerals into glucose for immediate use by cells

b)

root hairs decrease the need for osmosis and diffusion in vascular tissue

c)

root hairs prevent water loss in leaves through transpiration and gas exchange

d)

root hairs increase the surface area of the roots for nutrient and water absorption

79.

Answer the question.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

80.

In domesticated dogs, hair type is controlled by two different alleles. The allele for wire hair is (H) and the allele for smooth hair is (h).

What two heterozygous dogs are crossed, what percentage of the offspring is expected to be homozygous for smooth hair?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

81.

In humans blood type is determined by the A, B, and O alleles. The A and B alleles are codominant to each other and dominant over the O allele. An individual with the AO genotype and an individual with the BO genotype can produce offspring with which of the following phenotypes?

a)

O only

b)

A or B only

c)

A, B, and O only

d)

A, B, AB, or O

82.

Albinism is an autosomal recessive condition. Which circle graph shows the genotype probability when an albino female mates with a male that is heterozygous for the albinism trait?

a)

b)

c)

d)

83.

In Holstein cattle the allele for black hair color (B) is dominant over the allele for red hair color (b), and the allele for polled (P), or lacking horns, is dominant over the allele for having horns (p).

What is the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring of a BbPp x BbPp cross if these alleles sort independently?

a)

16 black/polled

0 black/horned

0 red/polled

0 red/horned

b)

12 black/polled

0 black/horned

0 red/polled

4 red/horned

c)

4 black/polled

4 black/horned

4 red/polled

4 red/horned

d)

9 black/polled

3 black/horned

3 red/polled

1 red/horned

84.

The four butterflies in the illustrations represent the offspring in the F1 generation.

Which statement is best supported by the phenotypes of these offspring?

a)

The F1 generation is the result of a dihybrid cross.

b)

The F1 generation is composed only of males.

c)

Two of the offspringin the F1 generation will not be able to reproduce.

85.
Which illustration of transport across the membrane requires energy?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
86.
Which form of transport is being shown in the diagram.
a)
diffusion
b)
osmosis
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
active transport
87.
If the sodium concentration inside a cell is greater than outside the cell, how can a cell take in more sodium?
a)
osmosis
b)
diffusion
c)
active transport
d)
passive transport
88.
In this image, the cell is using which type of molecular transport?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion 
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Exocytosis 
89.
Facilitated diffusion is the movement of materials into and out of the cell
a)
with the use of energy
b)
with the use of proteins but no energy
c)
by moving water
d)
by using ATP
90.
The  movement of water from a high concentration to a low concentration is called
a)
diffusion
b)
osmosis
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
active transport
91.
In this situation, where the solute is illustrated by red dots, predict if will WATER move into or out of the cell, and how that will affect the cell.
a)
Water will move into the cell and the cell will expand.
b)
Water will move into the cell and the cell will shrink.
c)
Water will move out of the cell and the cell will expand.
d)
Water will move out of the cell and the cell will shrink.
92.
Semi-permeable mean to allow
a)
all materials across the membrane
b)
only some materials across the membrane
c)
no material to cross the membrane
d)
to allow only water across the membrane
93.

Which type of active transport is displayed?

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

94.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
95.

The mRNA leaves the ________ to find the ribosome to make proteins.

a)

cell

b)

nucleotide

c)

nucleus

d)

mitochondrion

96.

Choose the sequence of the mRNA strand that would be match up with to the following strand:

GTAGTCA

a)

UATUAGA

b)

ACGACTG

c)

CAUCAGU

d)

CATCAGT

97.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
98.

Select the DNA sequence below that demonstrates a subsitution mutation.

Original DNA: AAT - GCC

a)

Mutated DNA:

AAT - GGC - C

b)

Mutated DNA:

AAG- CC

c)

Mutated DNA:

ATT - GCC

d)

AAT - TGC - C

99.

What is the name of the process in which DNA is transcribed into RNA?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Protein Synthesis

c)

Translation

d)

Transcription

100.

Which process is shown?

a)

Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Photosynthesis

101.

What part of the plant responds positively to gravity?

a)

roots

b)

xylem

c)

leaves

102.
What does it mean if a plant has a NEGATIVE gravitropism?
a)
That the plant grows toward light.
b)
That the plant grows away from light.
c)
That the plant grows toward gravity.
d)
That the plant grows away from gravity. 
103.
What does it mean if a plant has a POSITIVE phototropism?
a)
That the plant grows toward light.
b)
That the plant grows away from light.
c)
That the plant grows toward gravity.
d)
That the plant grows away from gravity. 
104.

Venus Flytrap flower reacts to a bug.

a)

Thermotropism

b)

Negative Geotropism

c)

Thigmotropism

d)

Hydrotropism

105.

Which letter represents the most recent common ancestor of sponges and mushrooms?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

106.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Bacteria is an example of this

Fungi is an example of this

Has Nucleus

No Nucleus

Can be both Unicellular or Multicellular

Always has Cell Wall

Always Unicellular

Some has Cell Walls, and other do not have cell walls

Eukaryote
Prokaryote
107.

Which type of evolution is characterized by the interaction and mutual influence of two species on each other's evolution?

a)

Convergent Evolution

b)

Divergent Evolution

c)

Coevolution

d)

Parallel Evolution

108.

Which type of evolution is demonstrated by the development of different species from a common ancestor due to different environmental pressures?

a)

Convergent Evolution

b)

Divergent Evolution

c)

Coevolution

d)

Parallel Evolution

109.

What type of evolution is described by the sudden appearance of new species followed by long periods of little change?

a)

Gradualism

b)

Punctuated Equilibrium

c)

Adaptive Radiation

d)

Convergent Evolution

110.

Which type of evolution is exemplified by the development of similar traits in species of different lineages due to similar environmental challenges?

a)

Divergent Evolution

b)

Convergent Evolution

c)

Parallel Evolution

d)

Coevolution

111.

What is the term for the rapid evolution of diversely adapted species from a common ancestor?

a)

Adaptive Radiation

b)

Convergent Evolution

c)

Coevolution

d)

Gradualism

112.

Which type of evolution involves the accumulation of small genetic changes over long periods of time?

a)

Punctuated Equilibrium

b)

Gradualism

c)

Adaptive Radiation

d)

Artificial Selection

113.

What type of evolution occurs when two species evolve in response to changes in each other over time?

a)

Convergent Evolution

b)

Divergent Evolution

c)

Coevolution

d)

Parallel Evolution

114.

Which traits were selected for in whale ancestors?

a)

Traits that helped them walk on land

b)

Traits that helped them move in water

c)

Traits that helped them give birth

115.

The hypothesis that evolution of a species occurs gradually over time as a slow and constant process is known as

a)

speciation

b)

punctuated equilibrium

c)

gradualism

d)

microevolution

116.

The hypothesis that evolution of a species occurs in periods of rapid change separated by periods of little or no change is called

a)

divergence

b)

gradualism

c)

punctuated equilibrium

d)

isolation

117.
Cellular Respiration's goal is to
a)
make water
b)
make ATP
c)
make glucose
d)
make  oxygen
118.
In photosynthesis ...
a)
water is chloronated
b)
light energy is changed to glucose
c)
osmosis happens
d)
ATP is made
119.
What is cellular respiration?
a)
the breakdown of glucose  to release ATP
b)
the breakdown of glucose to release NADH
c)
the breakdown of glucose to release FADH
d)
the breakdown of glucose to release carbon
120.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
sugar and glucose
b)
carbon dioxide 
c)
sugar and Oxygen
d)
water and energy
121.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
122.
The mitochondria is responsible for ...
a)
photosynthesis
b)
anaerobic respiration
c)
aerobic respiration
d)
fermentation
123.
A plant is releasing a gas. What is the mosl tlikely the gas?
a)
co2
b)
methane
c)
water vapor
d)
oxygen
124.
What is one of the reactants of cellular respiration?
a)
energy
b)
glucose
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
water
125.
All living things do which of the following?
a)
Chemosynthesis
b)
Respiration
c)
photosynthesis
d)
all of the answers
126.
Aerobic respiration is different from anaerobic respiration in that aerobic respiration needs...
a)
chlorophyll
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
glucose
d)
oxygen
127.
you breathe in oxygen for
a)
photosynthesis
b)
anaerobic respiration
c)
 fermentation
d)
aerobic respiration
128.
In which eukaryotic organelles does photosynthesis occur?
a)
mitochondria
b)
stomata
c)
xylem
d)
chloroplast
129.
Which statement about photosynthesis is correct?
a)
Plants get the energy they need for photosynthesis from water.
b)
Plants get the energy they need for photosynthesis from soil.
c)
Plants get the energy they need for photosynthesis from sunlight.
d)
Plants do not require energy to perform photosynthesis.
130.
Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
nitrogen
d)
carbon dioxide
131.
Which of the following structure is where cellular respiration occurs in the cell?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
mitochondria
d)
vacuoles
132.
The energy carrier that the cell uses to power its day to day activities is 
a)
ATP
b)
NADH
c)
FADH2
d)
glucose
133.

By far, the largest group(total numbers) of plants are the?

a)

angiosperms (flowering plants)

b)

gymnosperms(cone bearing)

c)

vascular seedless plants

d)

non-vascular plants

134.
Plants with seeds in cones are called?
a)
gymnosperms
b)
angiosperms
c)
flowers
d)
mosses
135.

The waxy waterproof layer on the leaves and some stems of plants is called the _________________.

a)

root

b)

stomata

c)

petal

d)

cuticle

136.

The tiny opening on the plant that lets air in and holds water in is called the ___________________.

a)

guard cell

b)

stomata

c)

petal

d)

cuticle

137.

Growth of plant towards or away from gravity

a)

gravitropism

b)

phototropism

c)

thigmotropism

138.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
139.
In the diagram, what is letter A? 
a)
product
b)
substrate
c)
enzyme-substrate complex
d)
active site
140.
An enzyme speeds up a reaction by
a)
lowering the activation energy.
b)
raising the activation energy.
c)
releasing energy.
d)
absorbing energy.