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PSI Practice Exam 4

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The surface of a healthy natural nail should be?


a)

 

flexible and spotted

b)

 

smooth and unspotted

c)

 

pitted and rough

d)

 

smooth and spotted

2.

Clients with skin or nails that are infected, inflamed, or swollen should be referred to a(n) _________________________. 


a)

esthetician

b)

physician

c)

stylist

d)

technician

3.

Visible depressions running across the width of the natural nail plate that are the result of a major illness or injury are known as ________________. 


a)

 

eggshell nails

b)

 

narrow lines

c)

 

Beau's lines

d)

 

hangnails

4.

What is a nail condition in which blood clots form under the nail plate due to a small injury of the nail plate?


a)

 

Bruised nails

b)

 

Blue nails

c)

 

Abnormal nails

d)

 

Bruised onychia

5.

Which type of nail has a noticeably thin, white nail plate, and is more flexible than a normal nail?

a)

Eggshell

b)

Leukonychia

c)

Bitten

d)

Ingrown

6.

When the eponychium or other living tissue surrounding the nail plate becomes split or torn, a ____________ occurs.

a)

 

purogenic granuloma

b)

 

splinter hemorrhage

c)

 

trumpet nail

d)

hangnail

7.

Which treatment should be suggested to an individual with a simple hangnail?

a)

 

Removal of the entire cuticle, including living portions

b)

 

Hot oil manicure

c)

 

Removal of the damaged nail

d)

 

Daily use of medicated soaks

8.

Redness, pain, and swelling are best described as signs of a(n) _____________________. 

a)

deformity

b)

infection

c)

 

cosmetic defect

d)

abrasion

9.

Minor damage to the matrix that produces a whitish discoloration or white spots on the nails is known as _____________________. 

a)

leukonychia

b)

 

a hangnail

c)

melanonychia

d)

 

nail fungus

10.

Leukonychia spots result from __________________. 

a)

 

calcium deficiency

b)

 

excess melanocytes

c)

 

zinc excess

d)

 

injury to the nail matrix

11.

A dark band within the nail plate extending from the base to the free edge due to increased pigmentation is known as __________________. 

a)

 

melanin nails

b)

melanonychia

c)

onychophagy

d)

onycholysis

12.

Melanocytes are ____________________. 

a)

 

pigment cells

b)

 

pre-cancerous cells

c)

 

infection fighters

d)

 

stem cells

13.

An individual who bites his or her nails may be said to have _________________. 

a)

onychocryptosis

b)

 

onychomycosis

c)

 

trumpet nail

d)

onychophagy

14.

Split or brittle nails with a series of lengthwise ridges and a rough appearance to the surface of the nail plate is known as _____________________. 

a)

onychorrhexis

b)

onychorrhexis

c)

 

plicatured nails

d)

onychophosis

15.

 Excessive use of ________ can cause onychorrhexis. 

a)

 

hot oil treatments

b)

 

cuticle removers

c)

 

nail strengtheners

d)

 

nail polish

16.

A highly curved nail plate often called "folded nail," caused by injury to the matrix or inherited, is a(n) ________________________. 

a)

 

plicatured nail

b)

 

eggshell nail

c)

 

bruised nail

d)

 

bitten nail

17.

________________ often leads to ingrown nails.

a)

 

Plicatured nails

b)

 

Beau's lines

c)

 

Onychophagy

d)

 

Nail pterygium

18.

 Ridges running vertically down the natural nail plate are caused by _____________________. 

a)

 

uneven growth and age

b)

 

overgrowth and polish

c)

 

bitten nails

d)

 

medication and cold temperatures

19.

Physical trauma or injury to the nail bed that damages the capillaries and allows small amounts of blood flow results in ____________________. 

a)

hangnails

b)

 

splinter hemorrhages

c)

 

trumpet nail

d)

 

purogenic granulomas

20.

________________ are always be positioned lengthwise in the direction of growth

a)

 

Splinter hemorrhages

b)

Koilonychia

c)

Leukonychia

d)

Hangnails

21.

The disorder in which the edges of the nail plate curl around to form a sharp cone at the free edge is called _______________________. 

a)

 

purogenic granuloma

b)

 

splinter hemorrhages

c)

onychophagy

d)

 

trumpet nail

22.


Moriah has a nail deformity. The general term for her condition is _________________________. 

a)

onychosis

b)

onychophosis

c)

onychia

d)

onyx

23.

Inflammation of the nail matrix followed by shredding of the natural nail plate is known as _________________________. 

a)

Onyx

b)

flagella

c)

onychia

d)

fungi

24.

Which of the following is an infectious nail condition?

a)

 

nail psoriasis

b)

onychomycosis

c)

 

onycholysis

d)

onychocryptosis

25.

____________________ refers to a fungal infection of the nail. 

a)

Onychomycosis

b)

Onychocryptosis

c)

Onychophagy

d)

Onychopathology

26.

Which parasite, under some conditions, can cause infections to the feet and hands?

a)

Flagella

b)

Plicature

c)

Fungi

d)

Onychiosis

27.

If a cosmetologist provides a service to a client with a fungal infection, it is ___________________________ that the cosmetologist will get that infection from the client.

a)

probable

b)

 

extremely likely

c)

possible

d)

 

extremely unlikely

28.

Discolorations of the nail plate from infections of the fingernails or toenails are usually the result of a ________________. 

a)

 

bacterial infection

b)

fungus

c)

mold

d)

 

viral infection

29.

A naturally occurring skin bacterium that can grow out of control and cause nail infections, incorrectly referred to as mold, is __________________________. 

a)

 

pyogenic granular

b)

 

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c)

 

paronychia granular

d)

 

plicatured nails

30.

In the early stages, a typical bacterial infection on the nail plate can be identified as a _________________________. 

a)

 

separation of the nail

b)

 

white, length wise ridge

c)

 

nail deformity

d)

 

yellow-green spot

31.

Severe inflammation of the nail in which a lump of red tissue grows up from the nail bed to the nail plate is called __________________. 

a)

onychophagy

b)

 

pyogenic granuloma

c)

 

splinter hemorrhages

d)

 

trumpet nail

32.

A friend shows you paperwork from a doctor stating that he has tinea pedis. What is his condition?

a)

 

Ingrown nails

b)

 

Whitish patches on the nail

c)

 

Scaling skin

d)

 

Athlete's foot

33.

Tiny pits or severe roughness on the surface of the nail plate is an indication of ______________________. 

a)

 

local infection

b)

 

athlete's foot

c)

 

ingrown nails

d)

 

nail psoriasis

34.

An ingrown nail is called a(n) ________. 

a)

onychomycosis

b)

onychophagy

c)

 

trumpet nail

d)

onychocryptosis

35.

The lifting of the nail plate from the bed without shedding is a sign of __________________. 

a)

onycholysis

b)

onychomadesis

c)

 

nail psoriasis

d)

 

eggshell nails

36.

_______________ may be caused by an allergic reaction of the nail bed

a)

Melanonychia

b)

Onychophagy

c)

 

Splinter hemorrhage

d)

Onycholysis

37.

Onychomadesis is the separation and falling off of a nail plate and can typically be traced to ________________. 

a)

 

local infection

b)

 

nail splitting

c)

 

darkening of nail

d)

 

bitten nails

38.

What term refers to the scientific study of hair and its diseases and care?

a)

Selenology

b)

Cartology

c)

Trichology

d)

Cosmetology

39.

The Greek word trichos means _______________. 


a)

hair

b)

fingernails

c)

skin

d)

glands

40.

The hair, skin, nails, and glands are part of the __________ system. 

a)

integumentary

b)

endocrine

c)

epidermal

d)

lymphatic

41.

What part of the hair is located below the surface of the epidermis?

a)

 

Hair cuticle

b)

 

Hair root

c)

 

Hair shaft

d)

 

Hair medulla

42.

The pocket or tube-like depression in the scalp or skin that contains the hair root is the hair __________________. 

a)

follicle

b)

shaft

c)

bulb

d)

dermal

43.

The thickened, club-like structure that forms the lower part of the hair root is the ____________________. 

a)

 

cuticle layer

b)

 

hair bulb

c)

 

arrector pili

d)

 

dermal papilla

44.

 A small, cone-shaped area located at the base of the hair follicle that fits into the hair bulb is the ___________________. 

a)

 

hair strand

b)

 

dermal papilla

c)

 

hair follicle

d)

 

dermal cuticle

45.

What structures contain the blood and nerve supply that provide the nutrients needed for hair growth?

a)

 

Dermal papillae

b)

 

Sebaceous glands

c)

Furuncles

d)

 

Hair bulbs

46.

The small, involuntary muscle fiber in the base of the hair follicle is the ____________________. 

a)

 

dermal papilla

b)

 

angled bulb

c)

 

arrector pili

d)

 

inner follicle

47.

The substance secreted by the sebaceous glands is called _______________________. 

a)

lymph

b)

sulfur

c)

sudoriferous

d)

sebum

48.

What is the oily substance secreted by the skin's oil glands that lubricates the hair and skin?

a)

Mucous

b)

Helix

c)

Keratin

d)

Sebum

49.

The body naturally produces ___________________ of the 20 amino acids that make up hair.

a)

11

b)

3

c)

all

d)

9

50.

What is the outermost layer of hair?

a)

 

Hair Follicle

b)

 

Hair Medulla

c)

 

Hair Cortex

d)

 

Hair Cuticle

51.

Which layer of the hair shaft creates the shine and the smooth, silky feel of healthy hair?

a)

 

Hair Cuticle

b)

 

Arrector pili

c)

 

Hair Medulla

d)

 

Hair Cortex

52.

A lengthwise section of hair shows that cuticle scales overlap and each individual cuticle scale is attached to the _________________________. 

a)

cortex

b)

melanin

c)

root

d)

medulla

53.

Which term refers to a layer that protects the hair from penetration and prevents damage to hair fibers?

a)

 

Hair cuticle

b)

Medulla

c)

 

Hair follicle

d)

Cortex

54.

The fibrous protein core formed by elongated cells that contains melanin pigment is the _____________________. 

a)

cuticle

b)

sebum

c)

cortex

d)

medulla

55.

The changes involved in oxidation haircoloring, wet setting, thermal styling, permanent waving, and chemical hair relaxing take place within the __________________. 

a)

medulla

b)

 

dermal papilla

c)

cortex

d)

cuticle

56.

Hair is composed of protein that grows from cells originating within the __________________. 

a)

 

medulla layer

b)

 

hair follicle

c)

 

hair bulb

d)

 

dermal papilla

57.

The hair shaft that emerges from the scalp is a nonliving fiber composed of ___________________. 

a)

 

melanin protein

b)

 

keratinized acids

c)

 

keratinized protein

d)

 

hydrogen bonds

58.

Hair is approximately ________________ percent protein. 

a)

50

b)

70

c)

90

d)

30

59.

The major elements that make up human hair are carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, and sulfur, often referred to as_______________. 

a)

 

amino acids

b)

 

COHNS elements

c)

 

dermal foundation

d)

keratins

60.

The units of structure that build protein and are joined together end to end like pop beads are __________________. 

a)

 

primary acids

b)

 

amino acids

c)

 

oxygenated cells

d)

 

lymph glands

61.

A long chain of amino acids linked by peptide bonds is called a __________ chain. 

a)

keratin

b)

polymer

c)

polypeptide

d)

 

amino-peptide

62.

What substances are comprised of long, coiled, complex polypeptides made of amino acids?

a)

Keratins

b)

Melanins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Proteins

63.

The three different types of side bonds that link chains of amino acids together are _________________. 

a)

 

hydrogen, salt, and disulfide

b)

 

oxygen, hydrogen, and salt

c)

 

hydrogen, ionic, and carbon

d)

 

ionic, helix, and disulfide

64.

 A physical side bond that is easily broken by water and heat is a ________________ bond. 

a)

disulfide

b)

nitrogen

c)

sulfur

d)

hydrogen

65.

What type of bond is broken by wetting the hair with water and is reformed when the hair dries?

a)

 

Peptide bond

b)

 

Salt bond

c)

 

Hydrogen bond

d)

 

Disulfide bond

66.

A weak, physical, cross-link side bond between adjacent polypeptide chains that is broken by changes in pH is a _____________ bond.

a)

salt

b)

hydrogen

c)

sulfur

d)

carbon

67.

Permanent waving and hair relaxers change the shape of hair by chemically altering the hair's __________________. 

a)

 

disulfide bonds

b)

 

ionic bonds

c)

 

hydrogen bonds

d)

 

amino acids

68.

Hydroxide chemical relaxers break disulfide bonds and convert them to _________________ bonds. 

a)

carbon

b)

hydrogen

c)

lanthionine

d)

sulfur

69.

All natural hair color is the result of pigment called __________________. 

a)

melanin

b)

tissue

c)

sebum

d)

proteins

70.

The pigment that provides brown or black color to hair is _______________. 

a)

telogen

b)

ionic

c)

eumelanin

d)

pheomelanin

71.

What pigment in hair provides natural colors ranging from red and ginger to yellow and blond tones?

a)

Keratin

b)

Eumelanin

c)

Neuromelanin

d)

Pheomelanin

72.

What term refers to the shape of the hair strand?

a)

Whorl

b)

 

Hair stream

c)

Cowlick

d)

 

Wave pattern

73.

What is the cross-section shape of curly hair?

a)

Oval

b)

Hexagonal

c)

Rectangular

d)

Round

74.

Vellus hair is also known as ____________ hair. 

a)

straight

b)

melamine

c)

terminal

d)

lanugo

75.

What type of hair is short, fine, unpigmented, and downy?

a)

 

Terminal hair

b)

 

Androgenic hair

c)

 

Feathered hair

d)

 

Vellus hair

76.

What are the three growth cycles of human hair?

a)

 

Anagen, catagen, and telogen

b)

 

Catagen, return, and transition

c)

 

Anagen, growth phase, and telogen

d)

 

Anagen, transition, and mature

77.

What is the growth phase during which new hair is produced?

a)

Catagen

b)

Anagen

c)

Telogen

d)

Genesis

78.

What is the resting phase or final phase of the hair cycle that lasts until the fully grown hair is shed?

a)

 

Telogen phase

b)

 

Anagen phase

c)

 

Transition phase

d)

 

Catagen phase

79.

The sudden falling out of hair in round patches or baldness in spots is known as _______________________. 

a)

 

postpartum alopecia

b)

 

alopecia totalis

c)

 

alopecia areata

d)

 

androgenic alopecia

80.

The complete loss of all body hair is known as ______________. 

a)

 

alopecia areata

b)

 

alopecia universalis

c)

 

alopecia totalis

d)

 

androgenic alopecia

81.

Temporary hair loss experienced at the end of a pregnancy is called ______________________. 

a)

 

androgenic alopecia

b)

 

postpartum alopecia

c)

 

involutional alopecia

d)

 

congenital alopecia

82.

What is the technical term for gray hair?

a)

 

Alopecia

b)

Canities

c)

Albino

d)

 

Ringed hair

83.

The condition of abnormal hair growth of terminal hair is referred to as _____________. 

a)

trichoptilosis

b)

 

ringed hair

c)

hypertrichosis

d)

monilethrix

84.

Trichoptilosis is the technical term for _______________________. 

a)

 

split ends

b)

 

knotted hair

c)

 

beaded hair

d)

 

hair loss

85.

What is a condition that is characterized by brittleness and the formation of nodular swellings along the hair shaft?

a)

 

Trichorrhexis nodosa

b)

 

Alopecia areata

c)

Hypertrichosis

d)

 

Fragilitas crinium

86.

What is the technical term for beaded hair?

a)

Trichinosis

b)

Hyperkeratosis

c)

Canities

d)

Monilethrix

87.

What is the technical term for brittle hair?

a)

 

Fragilitas crinium

b)

Pruritis

c)

 

Pityriasis capitis simplex

d)

Hypertrichosis

88.

What is the medical term used to describe dandruff?

a)

Pyrithione

b)

Pityriasis

c)

Selenium

d)

Alopecia

89.

Current research confirms that dandruff is the result of a fungus called ______________________. 

a)

capitis

b)

malassezia

c)

pyrithione

d)

steatoides

90.

What is a severe type of dandruff characterized by an accumulation of greasy or waxy scalp scales mixed with sebum?

a)

 

Pityriasis steatoides

b)

 

Tinea favosa

c)

 

Pityriasis capitis

d)

 

Pityriasis papules

91.

What severe form of dandruff is accompanied by redness and inflammation?

a)

 

Seborrheic dermatitis

b)

 

Pityriasis steatoides

c)

 

Pityriasis capitis simplex

d)

Folliculitis

92.

What is the medical term for ringworm?

a)

Aspergilloma

b)

Candidiasis

c)

Tinea

d)

Pneumocystosis

93.

Tinea is characterized by itching scales and sometimes painful circular lesions and is caused by ______________________. 

a)

 

subcutaneous tissue

b)

 

fungal organisms

c)

parasites

d)

 

seborrheic dermatitis

94.

What is a scalp disorder characterized by dry, sulfur-yellow, cup-like crusts on the scalp?

a)

 

Tinea favosa

b)

 

Tinea barbae

c)

 

Tinea capitis

d)

 

Pediculosis furuncle

95.

What is a highly contagious skin disease caused by a parasite called a mite?

a)

Dandruff

b)

Pediculosis

c)

Scabies

d)

Tinea

96.

What term refers to an infestation of the hair and scalp with head lice?

a)

 

Pediculosis furuncle

b)

 

Vesicles parasites

c)

 

Alopecia areata

d)

 

Pediculosis capitis

97.

What term refers to an acute, localized bacterial infection of the hair follicle that produces constant pain?

a)

Furuncle

b)

Capitis

c)

Alopecia

d)

Tinea

98.

The thickness or diameter of the individual hair strand is referred to as hair _______________________. 

a)

dryness

b)

texture

c)

porosity

d)

elasticity

99.

Which type of hair has the largest diameter and usually requires more processing?

a)

 

Medium hair

b)

 

Gray hair

c)

 

Coarse hair

d)

 

Terminal hair

100.

The measurement that describes the number of individual hair strands on one square inch of the scalp is hair ____________________. 

a)

elasticity

b)

density

c)

diameter

d)

porosity

101.

The ability of the hair to absorb moisture is hair _____________. 

a)

porosity

b)

saturation

c)

density

d)

elasticity