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Cell Cycle and Central Dogma

Total questions: 69

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What does NOT happen during interphase?
a)
growth
b)
DNA replication 
c)
obtaining nutrients
d)
cell divison
2.
Cells spend the majority of their lives in
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Synthesis 
d)
Gap 2
3.

Cells of organisms must go through cell division for?

a)

growth

b)

repair of damaged cells

c)

replacement of dying cells.

d)

All of these

4.

DNA is replicated during ______ of the cell cycle.

a)

Gap 1

b)

Synthesis (S phase)

c)

Gap 2

d)

Gap 0

5.
What is cytokinesis?
a)
This is when two cells merge together to make one giant cell.
b)
The stage where chromosomes migrate to the opposite ends of the cell. 
c)
The stage of the cell cycle where the rest of the cell divides after mitosis is complete.
d)
The stage in which DNA condenses into chromosomes.
6.
Identify the parts of the nucleotide shown:
a)
1) Ribose Sugar      2) Phosphate 
3)  Nitrogen Base
b)
1) Deoxyribose Sugar
2) Phosphate
3) Nitrogen Base
c)
1) Phosphate
2) Ribose Sugar
3) Nitrogen Base
d)
1)  Phosphate
2) Deoxyribose Sugar
3)  Nitrogen Base
7.
What occurs during G1?
a)
Checkpoint after S phase
b)
Chromosomes line up at the equator.
c)
The cell grows and develops.
d)
Spindle fibers separate chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell. 
8.
True or False:
Normal cells grow and divide continuously.
a)
True
b)
False
9.

During most of interphase, DNA is found in a relaxed form called

a)

chromosome

b)

centromere

c)

centriole

d)

chromatin

10.

During mitosis, DNA is found in the condensed form called a

a)

chromosome

b)

centromere

c)

centriole

d)

chromatin

11.

In prophase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

12.

In metaphase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

13.

In anaphase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

14.

In telophase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

15.

After mitosis, the cytoplasm and organelles are divided between the two new forming cells in a process called

a)

centriole

b)

chromatin

c)

cytokinesis

d)

centromere

16.

This process is the programmed death of a cell

a)

stem cell

b)

regulation

c)

apoptosis

d)

cytocide

17.

The cell cycle is regulated by this

a)

cyclins

b)

stem cells

c)

cyclin-dependent kinases

d)

both cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases

18.

When cells go through mitosis repeatedly without entering interphase, this results

a)

arthritis

b)

cancer

c)

mutation

d)

diabetes

19.
Which macromolecule is shown?
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
20.
How many atoms can a Carbon atom potentially bind to?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
21.
Which of the following elements make up nucleic acids?
a)
C, H, O
b)
C, H, O, N
c)
C, H, O, N, P
d)
C, H, O, Ca, S
22.
When coiled together, DNA looks like a:
a)
Single Helix
b)
Double Helix
c)
Triple Helix
d)
Broken Ladder
23.
The backbone of DNA is made up of _______ & ________ units. 
a)
sugar & base
b)
sugar & phosphate
c)
base & phosphate
d)
phosphate & phosphate
24.
From the nucleotide on the right, which part is labeled 2?
a)
Sugar
b)
Phosphate
c)
Nitrogenous Base
d)
Phosphorous
25.
What pentose sugar does DNA use?
a)
Ribose
b)
Sucrose
c)
Amylose
d)
Deoxyribose
26.
Guanine is complementary to what other nitrogenous base?
a)
Cytosine
b)
Adenine
c)
Thymine
d)
Uracil
27.
If a cell has 20% Adenine in it, what % of Cytosine must it have?
a)
10%
b)
20%
c)
30%
d)
80%
28.
If one series of bases reads: TTGACTAGG, then the complementary set of bases would read:
a)
TTGACTAGG
b)
AACTGATCC
c)
AATCGAACTT
d)
AAGTCATCC
29.
What is the function of nucleic acids?
a)
Stores energy
b)
Stores genetic information
c)
Movement
d)
Physical structure
30.

Each base will only bond with one other specific base. For DNA replication, what bases always pair together?

a)

Adenine - Guanine

Cytosine - Thymine

b)

Thymine - Adenine

Cytosine - Guanine

c)

Adenine - Uracil

Thymine - Cytosine

d)

Adenine - Uracil

Cytosine - Guanine

31.

For the following strand of DNA, type the complementary DNA base pairings. (Type your codon, then a space, then a dash (-), then a space and your next codon.)


AGG - CTC - AAG - TCC - TAG

(a)  

32.
The following picture must be
a)
DNA because it's double stranded
b)
RNA because it's single stranded
c)
DNA because it's single stranded
d)
RNA because it's double stranded
33.
If a section of DNA has 13% thymine, then there is _____ adenine
a)
13%
b)
26%
c)
37%
d)
74%
34.

According to Chargoff's Rule, if I have a DNA molecule with 18% Thymine, it must have __________ % Guanine

a)

64

b)

18

c)

30

d)

32

35.
RNA has how many strands?
a)
one
b)
two
36.

According to Chargoff's Rule, if I had a DNA molecule with 27% Adenine, it would have to have _________ % Thymine

a)

23%

b)

25%

c)

27%

d)

29%

37.

Give the correct base pairing for this strand of RNA

AAUUGGCCUU

a)

AAUUGGCCUU

b)

TTAACCGGAA

c)

UUAACCGGAA

d)

UAUACGCGAT

38.

The nitrogen base pairs for RNA are

a)

Adenine-Thymine

Cytosine-Guanine

b)

Adenine-Uracil

Cytosine-Guanine

c)

Adenine-Cytosine

Thymine-Guanine

d)

Thymine-Uracil

Guanine-Cytosine

39.
How does RNA differ from DNA?
a)
RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose
b)
RNA contains ribose and thymine
c)
RNA contains uracil and ribose
d)
RNA contains adenine and ribose
40.

In eukaryotes, which organelle is DNA usually found in?

a)

cell membrane

b)

vacuole

c)

chloroplast

d)

nucleus

41.

The process of replication using one parent strand and one new strand of DNA

a)

Okasaki Fragment

b)

Semiconservative replication

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

Copy copy

42.

The ability of an organism to control the genes that are transcribed

a)

Gene regulation

b)

Mutation

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

Segmentation

43.

A permanent change in an organisms DNA

a)

Operon

b)

Intron

c)

Mutation

d)

Mutagen

44.

Substances that cause mutations

a)

Okasaki Fragments

b)

Mutations

c)

Mutagens

d)

Roundup

45.

Synthesis of mRNA from DNA

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Mutation

d)

Introns

46.

Enzyme that regulates RNA synthesis

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

RNA polymerase

47.

Segment of nucleic acid that travels from the nucleus to the ribosome

a)

Transfer RNA

b)

DNA

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Messenger RNA

48.

The type of RNA that makes up ribosomes

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

qRNA

49.

The type of RNA that takes messages from the DNA in the nucleus to the ribosome in the cytoplasm.

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

qRNA

50.

Small segments of RNA that transport amino acids to the ribosomes

a)

tRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

qRNA

51.

Three base code in DNA and RNA

a)

Intron

b)

Exon

c)

Translation

d)

Codon

52.

When the RNA is read to make a protein

a)

Transcription

b)

Ribosome

c)

Translation

d)

Amino Acid

53.

A frameshift mutation is which of the following?

a)

Point mutation

b)

Insertion

c)

Deletion

d)

Subtitution

54.

Which mutation would be more harmful for an organism?

a)

Point mutation (substitution)

b)

Frameshift (insertion/Deletion)

55.

Which of the following is not a type of mutation?

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Prescription

d)

Deletion

56.

THEBIGFATREDCATSAT is the normal message, what type of mutation is this: ZHEBIGFATREDCATSAT

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

Substitution

57.

THEBIGFATREDCATSAT is normal, what would this be:

THESBIGFATREDCATSAT

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Deletion

58.

THEBIGFATREDCATSAT is normal, what is this:

THEBIGFATREDATSAT

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Deletion

59.

Which mutation will cause translation to stop?

a)

Mutations 1 and 3 only

b)

Mutation 1 only

c)

Mutation 2 only

d)

Muations 1, 2, 3

60.

Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

61.

ATTTGAGCC- Original

ATTGAGCC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion- Frameshift

b)

Deletion- Substitution

c)

Deletion -Frameshift

d)

All of the above

62.
Restriction Enzymes are . . . 
a)
proteins
b)
DNA
c)
fats
d)
carbohydrates
63.
Restriction Enzymes . . . 
a)
cut DNA at precise locations
b)
help bacteria to pick up DNA
c)
move DNA through a gel
d)
copy DNA
64.
Some restriction enzymes produce "sticky ends". Sticky ends are . . . 
a)
single-stranded DNA "overhangs" that can bind to complementary DNA
b)
smooth cuts that are sticky due to the "goo" left behind by the enzyme
c)
The two wires (black and red) on a gel box
d)
The surface of the LB agar plates so that bacteria can grow
65.

DNA pieces can then be separated and compared using a process called

a)

gel electrophoresis

b)

DNA Puzzle Pieces

c)

RFLPs

d)

Agrose Gel

66.

What is a palindrome?

a)

Sticky end

b)

Blunt end

c)

A sequence that reads the same forwards and backwards

d)

A sequence that is complementary to the other

67.

Which RE's from above make blunt cuts?

a)

Alul

b)

HaeIII

c)

BamHI

d)

HindIII

e)

EcorRI

68.

What kind of cuts were made in the scenario above?

a)

Blunt

b)

Sticky

c)

No cuts were made

d)

Palindrome

69.

Using the codon chart, which one of these mRNA codons is for the amino acid Tryptophan (Trp for short)

a)

CUU

b)

UGU

c)

UAG

d)

UCG

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