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Earth science midterm prep!

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

what does "revolution" mean (IN EARTH SCIENCE)?

a)

movement of the earth around its axis (spinning)

b)

overthrow of government

c)

moving of the earth around the sun

d)

the shifting of the earth's tilt towards or away from the sun

2.

what does rotation mean?

a)

movement of the earth around its axis (spinning)

b)

overthrow of government

c)

movement of the earth around the sun

d)

changing of the earth's tilt toward or away from the sun

3.

what does redshift mean?

a)

galaxies and stars are moving towards the earth, or one common point

b)

galaxies and stars are moving away from the earth and each other

c)

galaxies and stars are not moving predictably, they are moving randomly

d)

galaxies and stars are not moving at all

4.

objects in the solar system revolve around...

a)

nothing

b)

each other

c)

a star (sun)

d)

an orbit

5.

what 2 elements is the sun mostly made of?

a)

silicon and oxygen

b)

hydrogen and helium

c)

hydrogen and oxygen

d)

helium and iron

6.

what process is happening in stars, which emits light and energy? This process also creates heavier elements.

a)

nuclear fission

b)

nuclear fusion

c)

compaction

d)

supernova

7.

what is another name for the inner planets of our solar system? These planets are denser, smaller and are composed mostly of solids.

a)

jovian planets

b)

earthly planets

c)

terrestrial planets

d)

outer planets

8.

the largest planet in the solar system is

a)

earth

b)

saturn

c)

uranus

d)

jupiter

9.

this planet takes roughly about 165 earth years to

a)

mercury

b)

mars

c)

uranus

d)

neptune

10.

red supergiants form from

a)

average stars

b)

supernovas

c)

massive stars

d)

red giants

11.

what is the name of the solar system model that represents the EARTH as the center of the solar system?

a)

heliocentric

b)

geocentric

c)

self-centric

d)

geologic

12.

at what point is a planet moving the fastest in its orbit around the sun (or any star)?

a)

at its farthest point in orbit (aphelion)

b)

at its closest point in orbit (perihelion)

c)

the planet moves the same speed at all times

d)

the planet speed varies unpredictably

13.

The apparent path of the sun through the sky is caused by

a)

earth's revolution around the sun

b)

the sun's revolution around the earth

c)

earth's rotation on it's axis

d)

The sun's rotation on it's axis

14.

The model below shows the apparent path of the Sun as seen by an observer in New York State on the first day of one of the four seasons.

This apparent path of the Sun was observed on the first day of

a)

spring

b)

summer

c)

fall

d)

winter

15.

The diagram represents the Sun's apparent paths and the solar noon positions for an observer at 42° N latitude on December 21, September 23, and June 21.

In which direction will sunrise occur on June 21?

a)

due west

b)

north of due west

c)

north of due east

d)

due east

16.

In New York, which day of the year has the shortest amount of daylight?

a)

March 21st

b)

June 21st

c)

September 23rd

d)

December 21st

17.

How many degrees does the sun "move" across the sky in one hour?

a)

one degree

b)

15 degrees

c)

23.5 degrees

d)

60 degrees

18.

What motion causes the day and night cycles?

a)

rotation

b)

revolution

c)

gravity

d)

tides

19.

how many degrees is Earth's tilt?

a)

1 degree

b)

15 degrees

c)

23.5 degrees

d)

90 degrees

20.

What is the Earth's tilt always pointing to?

a)

the sun

b)

the moon

c)

polaris (north star)

d)

the milky way galaxy

21.

true or false: Polaris rises and sets in the sky throughout the day/night

a)

true

b)

false

22.

What is the correct coordinate for the red line?

a)

0 degrees longitude (equator)

b)

0 degrees latitude (equator)

c)

0 degrees longitude (prime meridian)

d)

0 degrees latitude (prime meridian)

23.

what is the correct coodinate for the line in red?

a)

0 degrees latitude (prime meridian)

b)

0 degrees longitude (prime meridian)

c)

0 degrees latitude (equator)

d)

0 degrees longitude (equator)

24.

which coordinate lines are being shown here?

a)

latitude lines (vertical)

b)

longitude lines (vertical)

c)

latitude lines (horizontal)

d)

longitude lines (horizontal)

25.

Which coordinate lines are being shown here?

a)

latitude lines (horizontal)

b)

latitude lines (vertical)

c)

longitude lines (horizontal)

d)

longitude lines (vertical)

26.

this latitude line is found at 23.5 degrees SOUTH of the equator

a)

tropic of capricorn

b)

tropic of cancer

c)

arctic circle

d)

prime meridian

27.

As you travel from west to east, does it become earlier or later in the day?

a)

earlier

b)

later

c)

no correlation

d)

time only gets earlier/later when you travel north to south

28.

There is a 4 hour time difference between A and B. What is the difference in Longitude between these locations? (each line represents 15 degrees)

a)

15 degrees

b)

45 degrees

c)

23.5 degrees

d)

60 degrees

29.

The diagram below represents a view of Earth from above the North Pole. Points A and B represent locations on Earth's surface.

Locations A and B have the same

a)

latitude and local time

b)

longitude and local time

c)

longitude and elevation

d)

latitude and elevation

30.

true or false: going due north will go through time zones

a)

true

b)

false

31.

true or false: longitude lines are parallel to each other (never cross)

a)

true

b)

false

32.

It is 4 pm in location A. It is 10am in location B. How many degrees of longitude separate these places?

a)

15 degrees

b)

45 degrees

c)

60 degrees

d)

90 degrees

33.

How many time zones are in the world?

a)

6

b)

12

c)

48

d)

24

34.

Which historically important location does the Prime meridian cross?

a)

New York CIty

b)

Paris

c)

London (Greenwich)

d)

San Francisco

35.

The Earth is not a perfect sphere. What do we call this shape, instead?

a)

Prolate Spheroid

b)

Oblate Spheroid

c)

Ellipse

d)

Orbital

36.

What is the elevation of point B?

a)

850 feet

b)

800 feet

c)

900 feet

d)

950 feet

37.

What is the elevation at sea level?

a)

100 meters or feet

b)

0 meters or feet

c)

-100 meters or feet

d)

10 meters or feet

38.

true or false: sea level changes as the high tides and low tides come and go

a)

true

b)

false

39.

What topographic feature can be found at point B?

a)

river

b)

hill/mountain

c)

valley

d)

sinkhole

40.

What is the profile view to topographic map 1?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

41.

How many mountaintops does this topographic map display?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

42.

A mountain stream begins at an elevation of 3500 ft. It ends in a lake at 500 ft elevation. It ran for about 8 miles. What is the gradient of the stream? (gradient=change in elevation/distance)

a)

300ft/mi

b)

375 m/km

c)

375 ft/mi

d)

300 m/km

43.

Which way is Fish Creek flowing?

a)

north

b)

east

c)

south

d)

west

44.

True or false: On earth, we always see the same side of the moon

a)

true

b)

false

45.

what is the correct arrangement of the sun, moon and earth during a solar eclipse?

a)

sun, moon, earth

b)

sun, earth, moon

c)

earth, sun, moon

d)

it's random every time

46.

what is the correct arrangement of the sun, moon and earth during a lunar eclipse?

a)

sun, moon, earth

b)

sun, earth, moon

c)

earth, sun, moon

d)

it's random every time

47.

true or false: the moon's rotation equals the moon's period of revolution

a)

true

b)

false

48.

what is the name of the point in the moon's orbit when it is CLOSEST to Earth?

a)

aphelion

b)

perihelion

c)

perigee

d)

apogee

49.

What is the name of the point in the Earth's orbit when it is CLOSEST to the sun?

a)

perihelion

b)

aphelion

c)

apogee

d)

perigee

50.

What is the name of the phenomenon when the moon moves into Earth's shadow?

a)

Total Eclipse

b)

Solar Eclipse

c)

Lunar Eclipse

d)

Annular Eclipse

51.

Name the moon phase

a)

full moon

b)

new moon

c)

first quarter

d)

last quarter

52.

A solar eclipse can only happen on a _____ phase

a)

full moon

b)

new moon

c)

first quarter

d)

last quarter

53.

Name the moon phase

a)

waxing crescent

b)

waning crescent

c)

waxing gibbous

d)

waning gibbous

54.

Name the eclipse

a)

solar

b)

lunar

55.

Which sample has the greatest porosity?

a)

sorted

b)

unsorted

c)

equal

d)

can't tell

56.

Which of the following statements is the definition of porosity?

a)

the amount of air/empty space between sediments

b)

how easily water can pass through sediment

c)

the rate of infiltration

d)

the density of sediments

57.

Which of the following statements is the definition of permeability?

a)

the amount of air/empty space between sediment

b)

the ability for water to flow through sediment

c)

the density of sediments

d)

rate of infiltration

58.

Which geologic feature is caused primarily by chemical weathering?

a)

dissolved limestone caves and sinkholes

b)

chunks of basalt at the bottom of a cliff

c)

rounded pebbles at the beach

d)

parallel cracks in granite rock

59.

what climate will have the fastest rate of chemical weathering?

a)

hot and wet

b)

hot and dry

c)

cold and wet

d)

cold and dry

60.

two tombstones placed in the same cemetary in 1887 have drastically different appearances. One can be read clearly, the other cannot be read anymore. What is the reason for this?

a)

one tombstone is more expensive than the other

b)

one tombstone was made from a less resistant material

c)

one tombstone existed for longer than the other

d)

one tombstone is in a warmer and moister place

61.

Two 200-ml beakers contain two well sorted sediments. One beaker has sand in it, the other has pebbles. What is the SAME between these two containers?

a)

permeability

b)

porosity

c)

infiiltration rate

d)

runoff

62.

Which two agents of erosion leave behind sorted sediment?

a)

rivers and glaciers

b)

wind and glaciers

c)

rivers and wind

d)

glaciers and gravity

63.

Which of these erosional features is NOT a result of glaciers

a)

unsorted sediment

b)

v-shaped valley

c)

u-shaped valley

d)

erratic

64.

what happens in a stream when the stream velocity decreases?

a)

deposition increases

b)

deposition decreases

c)

erosion increases

d)

gradient increases

65.

Which of the following is NOT a part of a groundwater system

a)

zone of saturation

b)

zone of aeration

c)

water table

d)

zone of infiltration

66.

what happens to a water table when there is increased precipitation?

a)

water table goes down

b)

water table goes up

c)

no change to water table

d)

unpredictable changes to water table

67.

Which of the following is an example of mechanical weathering?

a)

the statue of liberty turning green

b)

acid dissolving limestone

c)

ice pushing blocks of rock

d)

paper being burned

68.

the process in which sediment particles are picked up and moved from one place to another

a)

weathering

b)

erosion

c)

deposition

d)

burial

69.

The size of crystals in Igneous Rocks depends upon

a)

the presence of air

b)

the presence of water

c)

pressure

d)

cooling rate

70.

all rocks are classified based on their

a)

color

b)

the way they were formed

c)

crystal size

d)

the minerals they contain

71.

The color of an igneous rock tells you about its

a)

composition

b)

place of formation

c)

texture

d)

cooling rate

72.

true or false: granite and rhyolite are often, if not always, made of the same minerals

a)

true

b)

false

73.

mafic rocks are high in

a)

silicon and oxygen

b)

silicon and iron

c)

magnesium and aluminum

d)

iron and magnesium

74.

which of the following is not a form of mineral ID?

a)

hardness

b)

streak

c)

size

d)

color

75.

you snap a mineral in your hands. There are two new, perfectly flat surfaces on each half. What do we call this form of breakage?

a)

fracture

b)

cleavage

76.

Which word also means "intrusive"?

a)

volcanic

b)

plutonic

c)

mafic

d)

felsic

77.

what do we call the holes in extrusive igneous rocks

a)

texture

b)

vesicles

c)

bubbles

d)

pores

78.

What word best describes this metamorphic rock

a)

banded/foliated

b)

minerally aligned

c)

non-foliated

d)

clastic

79.

What results when rocks come in close contact with molten rocks such as those in a magma chamber?

a)

regional metamorphism

b)

contact metamorphism

c)

igenous rocks

d)

cementation

80.

The process in which dissolved minerals crystallize and glue sediment together.

a)

burial

b)

cementation

c)

melting

d)

recrystallization

81.

A rock is composed of rounded silt sediments. What would be the best name for this rock?

a)

sandstone

b)

conglomerate

c)

siltstone

d)

shale

82.

What is a feature predominantly found in metamorphic rocks?

a)

mineral alignment

b)

fossils

c)

glassy textures

d)

cleavage

83.

true or false: applying more heat and pressure to gneiss will cause it to become an igneous rock

a)

true

b)

false

84.

Large garnet mineral crystals are found in the metamorphic surface bedrock in which New York State landscape region? (hint: use page 2 and 3 of the reference table)

a)

catskills

b)

taconic mountains

c)

erie ontario lowlands

d)

tug hill plateau

85.

which rock could be formed either from organic material or the evaporation of water?

a)

shale

b)

slate

c)

rock gypsum

d)

limestone