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Week 3 Revision Blood and Immunity

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many parts is the blood made up from?

a)

3

b)

1

c)

5

d)

4

2.

What makes up around 55% of the blood?

a)

Plasma

b)

Red Blood Cells

c)

White Blood Cells

d)

Platelets

3.

What carries oxygen around the body?

a)

Plasma

b)

Red Blood Cells

c)

Platelets

d)

White Blood Cells

4.

What causes the blood to be the distinct red colour?

a)

Heamaglobin

b)

Glucose

c)

Hormones

d)

Oxygen

5.

How many different types of blood vessels are in our bodies?

a)

1

b)

5

c)

3

d)

2

6.

Which of the following is NOT a type of blood vessel?

a)

Artery

b)

Capillary

c)

Vein

d)

Ventricle

7.

What is the function (job) of the platelets?

a)

To form clots (i.e. scabs) when you have cuts and grazes.

b)

To transport oxygen to the muscles

c)

To carry dissolved sugars.

d)

To produce antibodies

8.

What is the function (job) of the white blood cells?

a)

To transport oxygen around the body.

b)

To carry dissolved sugars.

c)

To clot and cover wounds like cuts and grazes.

d)

To release antibodies to help destroy infections.

9.

What is the function (job) of the plasma?

a)

To release antibodies to fight infections.

b)

To transport oxygen around the body.

c)

To carry dissolved nutrients and sugars.

d)

To transport oxygen around the body.

10.

What is the function (job) of the red blood cells?

a)

To transport oxygen around the body and to the muscles.

b)

To release antibodies to fight infections.

c)

To carry dissolved nutrients and sugars.

d)

To clot and form scabs if there is a wound on the body.

11.

Which blood vessels take blood TO the heart?

a)

Veins

b)

Arteries

c)

Capillaries

12.

Which blood vessels take blood AWAY from the heart?

a)

Veins

b)

Arteries

c)

Capillaries

13.

Which is the smallest of the 3 blood vessels?

a)

Veins

b)

Arteries

c)

Capillaries

14.

Which blood vessel has valves to prevent the back-flow of blood?

a)

Veins

b)

Arteries

c)

Capillaries

15.

What type of blood do the arteries usually carry?

a)

Oxygenated Blood

b)

Deoxygenated Blood

16.

What type of blood do the veins usually carry?

a)

Oxygenated Blood

b)

Deoxygenated Blood

17.

The thickest and strongest blood vessel is the

a)

vein

b)

artery

c)

capillary

d)

both veins and capillaries

18.

The blood vessel that has the largest diameter is

a)

vein

b)

artery

c)

capillary

19.

The pathway that carries blood to the body is called?

a)

Pulmonary

b)

Systemic

20.

The pathway that carries blood to the lungs is called?

a)

Pulmonary

b)

Systemic

21.

Which of the following is true about formation of oxyhemoglobin?

a)

it forms when pO2 is low and dissociates when pCO2 is low

b)

it forms when pO2 is low and dissociates when pCO2 is high

c)

it forms when pO2 is high and dissociates when pCO2 is high

d)

it forms when pO2 is high and dissociates when pCO2 is low

22.

How is myoglobin structurally different to hemoglobin?

a)

myoglobin contains one heme and one globin group

b)

myoglobin contains two heme and two globin groups

c)

myoglobin contains three heme and three globin groups

d)

myoglobin contains magnesium instead of iron

23.

Using the graph, what does graph A represent?

a)

graph of fetal haemoglobin

b)

graph of sickle celled haemoglobin

c)

graph of adult haemoglobin

d)

graph of denatured haemoglobin

24.

The Bohr effect causes …………………………..

a)

shift B to happen

b)

shift A to happen

c)

affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen to increase

d)

affinity of haemoglobin for carbon dioxide to increase

25.

Where in the Hb molecule do molecules of oxygen bind?

a)

To the haem group

b)

To amino acids in the polypeptide chains

c)

In the cytoplasm of the erythrocyte

d)

In the plasma

26.

Which ion does Haemoglobin (Hb) contain in the haem group?

a)

Chloride

b)

Iron (Fe2+)

c)

Iron (Fe3+)

d)

Protons

27.

The main blood vessel responsible for taking oxygenated blood to the body is the

a)

pulmonary artery

b)

aorta

c)

vena cava

d)

pulmonary veins

28.

What is the name of the molecule formed when oxygen binds to haemoglobin?

a)

oxyhaemoglobin

b)

oxygen-haemoglobin

c)

carbaminohaemlobin

d)

oxyglobin

29.

Oxyhaemoglobin gives up O2 when …

a)

CO2 partial pressures are high

b)

Body temperature is lowered

c)

pH values are high

d)

O2 partial pressure are high

30.

The Bohr Effect/Shift moves the oxygen saturation curve in what direction

a)

up and left

b)

down and right

c)

down and left

d)

up and right

31.

What colour line represents the oxygen saturation curve during intense exercise?

a)

blue

b)

black

c)

red

32.

Each haemoglobin molecule can bind reversibly with

a)

one atom of oxygen

b)

one molecule of oxygen

c)

two molecules of oxygen

d)

four molecules of oxygen

33.

Normally in the blood, hemoglobin is saturated with oxygen only up to

a)

80%

b)

95%

c)

75%

d)

50%

34.

Where do you have high levels of O2 (pick 2)

a)

blood leaving the lungs

b)

blood leaving the muscle

c)

in the lungs/alveoli

d)

in the veins and venules

35.

What does high affinity mean in relation to haemoglobin

a)

wants to keep hold of O2 molecules

b)

wants to collect lots of CO2

c)

wants to release O2 molecules

d)

neither collects or releases gas

e)

not sure

36.

When does the curve shift to the right

a)

when we are relaxed

b)

when we are sat in an ice bath

c)

when we are exercising

d)

when we are eating

37.

Which of these causes the Bohr shift to the right?

a)

low protein

b)

high O2

c)

high CO2

d)

cold environment

38.

Which of these causes the Bohr shift to the right?

a)

low pH / high acidity

b)

high O2

c)

high carbs

d)

drinking too much water

39.

If there is higher pressure in the aorta, there will be no movement of blood out of the ventricle

a)

True

b)

False

40.

The function of the atrium

a)

To collect blood

b)

To pump blood to the lungs

c)

To pump blood into systemic circulation

d)

To pump blood to the heart muscle

41.

The entrance to the ascending aorta is guarded by

a)

an atrioventricular valve

b)

bicuspid valve

c)

semilunar valve

d)

tricuspid valve

42.

The opening of semilunar valves is due to

a)

increased ventricular pressure

b)

decrease ventricular pressure

c)

increased aortic pressure

d)

increase in artrial volume

43.

If ventricular pressure is low, what will happen to the arterioventricular valves?

a)

close

b)

open

44.

During artrial systole, the ventricles are

a)

in systole

b)

in diastole

c)

contracting

d)

not filling

45.

Aortic pressure at its peak during

a)

arterial systole

b)

isovolumetric contraction

c)

ventricular ejection

d)

isovolumetric relaxation

46.

Which component of ECG cycle shows ventricular depolarisation?

a)

P

b)

QRS

c)

T

d)

U

47.

In the diagram below, which part of the tracing represents the contraction of the atria?

a)

P

b)

T

c)

R

d)

S

48.

In the 6 second strip below, the heart rate is

a)

7

b)

60

c)

70

d)

75

49.

This wave indicates repolarisation of ventricles

a)

T waves

b)

U waves

c)

P waves

d)

Q waves

50.

Systole refers to what action?

a)

Filing

b)

Pumping

51.

The Vena Cava delivers blood to the heart into the.....

a)

left atrium

b)

right atrium

c)

left ventricle

d)

right ventricle

52.
Why are the walls of the left ventricle thicker than that of the right ventricle?
a)
The left ventricle must force blood into all the capillaries of the lungs 
b)
the left ventricle doesn't skip leg day
c)
This is false, the walls of the right ventricle are thicker
d)
Blood from the left ventricle is pumped throught the entire body 
53.
A flap of tissue that prevents blood from flowing backward
a)
Aorta
b)
Atrium
c)
Septum
d)
Valve
54.
An electrocardiogram measures what?
a)
The amount of pressure exerted on blood vessels.
b)
The electrical activity of the heart.
c)
How many times the heart contracts over time.
d)
The body's temperature caused by friction of blood in vessel.
55.
For a blood pressure reading, the number on top measures...
a)
Diastolic Pressure
b)
Systolic Pressure
c)
Diastemic Pressure
d)
Systemic Pressure
56.
The 'Lub' sound of the heart's LUB DUB? are the....
a)
Atrioventricular valves closing
b)
Semilunar Valves closing
c)
Blood flowing through the Pulmonary Trunk and Aorta
d)
Blood Flowing down into the venticles
57.
The 'Dub' sound of the heart's LUB DUB? are the....
a)
Atrioventricular valves closing
b)
Semilunar Valves closing
c)
Blood flowing through the Pulmonary Trunk and Aorta
d)
Blood Flowing down into the venticles
58.
What is the definition of the Cardiac Cycle?
a)
the contraction of the atria
b)
the sequence of events that occur during one complete heartbeat
c)
the contraction and relaxation of the ventricles
d)
the circulation of blood in the heart
59.
Pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs
a)
Right Ventricle
b)
Right Atrium
c)
Left Ventricle
d)
Left Atrium
60.
Receives blood from the body that is low in oxygen and high in carbon dioxide
a)
Right Atrium
b)
Right Ventricle
c)
Left Atrium
d)
Left Ventricle
61.

The opening of semilunar valves is due to

a)

increased ventricular pressure

b)

decrease ventricular pressure

c)

increased aortic pressure

d)

increase in artrial volume

62.
Which number is the vena cava?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
8
63.
Which number is the pulmonary artery?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
8
64.
Where is the blood in 3 coming from?
a)
All over the body
b)
The upper half of the body, head and arms
c)
The lower half of the body, legs and abdomen
d)
The lungs
65.
The two chambers of the heart which receive blood are known as the _________
a)
atria
b)
ventricles
c)
systemics
d)
pulmonic
66.
Blood leaves the right ventricle through the ___________.
a)
pulmonary artery
b)
aorta
c)
superior vena cava
d)
right atrium
67.
What does letter D represent?
a)
aorta
b)
left atrium
c)
left ventricle
d)
right atrium
68.
What does letter B represent?
a)
aorta
b)
superior vena cava
c)
inferior vena cava
d)
right pulmonary artery
69.
Which valve is letter X?
a)
aortic
b)
bicuspid
c)
tricuspid
d)
pulmonary
70.
What carries the oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart?
a)
vena cava 
b)
aorta
c)
pulmonary vein
d)
pulmonary artery
71.
Freshly oxygenated blood is delivered to the _____________ and then it passes into the  __________ to be pumped to the entire body.
a)
right ventricle; right atrium
b)
left ventricle; left atrium
c)
left atrium; left ventricle
d)
right atrium; right ventricle
72.
The most muscular chamber of the heart is the 
a)
left ventricle
b)
left atrium
c)
right atrium
d)
right ventricle
73.
Identify
a)
Pulmonary veins
b)
Pulmonary artery
c)
Aorta
d)
Vena cava
74.
Which letter is the aortic valve?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
E
d)
F
75.
Which letters carry deoxygenated blood?
a)
A, B, D
b)
G, A
c)
A, D
d)
B, C, D
76.

The response to an infection. Causes the area to redden, swell, and feel warm.

a)

Fever

b)

Mucus

c)

Dilation

d)

Inflammation

77.

Which is NOT considered FIRST line of defense?

a)

Helper T-Cells

b)

Skin

c)

Hair

d)

Mucous Membranes

78.
What are the two types of immune systems?
a)
Acquired & Adaptive
b)
Innate & Acquired
c)
Innate & Autoimmune
d)
Red & White Blood Cells
79.

What is phagocytosis?

a)

WBCs

b)

When a cells eat other cells

c)

When a cell collapses

d)

When a cell releases nutrients

80.
Which of the following secretes histamine?
a)
B cells
b)
macrophages
c)
neutrophils
d)
mast cells
81.

The innate immune system is...

a)

Always working and doesn't require any special preparation

b)

Needs to be "primed" before it can work to its full effectiveness

c)

Very specific and only defends against a specific pathogen

d)

Not very effective at preventing intruders

82.

This sticky fluid traps any pathogens that try and get in our body

a)

Mucous Lining

b)

Blood

c)

Stomach Acid

d)

Skin

83.
What is the function of innate immune response?
a)
Act very rapid as a first line of defense to eliminate the infection
b)
Trap microbes so they cannot spread in our body freely
c)
Coordinate and support adaptive immunity
d)
All of the above
84.
What category of immune response would sneezing and mucus production fall under?
a)
Innate Immunity
b)
Acquired Immunity
c)
Humoral Immunity
d)
Cell Mediated Immunity
85.
What chemical is released by the immune system in response to an allergen?
a)
Dopamine
b)
Histamine
c)
Insulin
d)
No clue
86.

Cells that provide a physical barrier to resist pathogen invasion, as well as secrete protective substances to discourage the accumulation of pathogens.

a)

Macrophages

b)

White blood cells

c)

Epithelial cells

d)

Helper T Cells

87.
What is the largest outer defense of the body?
a)
Stomach Acid 
b)
Mucous Membranes
c)
White Blood Cells
d)
Skin
88.

What are the names of the two types of WHITE BLOOD CELL we have learnt about:

a)

phagocytes and lymphocytes

b)

lymphocytes and platelets

c)

platelets and phagocytes

d)

phagocytes and plasma

89.

What is on the surface of pathogens that allows white blood cells to detect and recognise them?

a)

antibiotics

b)

antigens

c)

anticlockwise

d)

antihistamine

90.

What process is being shown shown in the diagram?

a)

production of antibodies

b)

production of antigens

c)

phagocytosis

d)

production of antitoxins

91.

What process is being shown shown in the diagram?

a)

production of antibodies

b)

production of antigens

c)

phagocytosis

d)

production of antitoxins

92.

What is it called when a large proportion of the population are immune to a disease?

a)

resistance

b)

herd immunity

c)

immunisation

d)

peer review

93.

What is a vaccine?

a)

when a live pathogen is injected into the body

b)

when a medicine is injected into the body

c)

when a dead or inactive pathogen is injected into the body

d)

when a dead or inactive pathogen put on the skin

94.

What do the white blood cells produce when a vaccine is given?

a)

antibiotics

b)

antitoxins

c)

antibodies

d)

antigens

95.

A pathogen is

a)

a disease

b)

a disease-causing plant

c)

a disease-causing animal

d)

a disease-causing microorganism (bacteria, virus)

96.

People can ONLY become immune to a pathogen by having the pathogen and creating antibodies.

a)

true

b)

false

97.

Which types of cells form the immune system?

a)

Pathogen

b)

Phagocytes

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Erythrocytes

98.

Which statement regarding phagocytosis is incorrect?

a)

The response is the same regardless of the pathogen

b)

Enzymes are involved

c)

It creates memory cells

d)

It is part of the non-specific immune response

99.

'A protein on the surface of a substance that triggers an immune response' is referring to...

a)

An antibody

b)

An antigen

c)

An antitoxin

d)

An enzyme

100.

'A protein produced by the immune system that attaches to non-self organisms that enter the body' is referring to...

a)

An antibody

b)

An antigen

c)

An antitoxin

d)

An enzyme

101.

What is occurring in region A of the graph?

a)

The primary immune response

b)

The secondary immune response

c)

The non-specific immune response

d)

Phagocytosis

102.

What is occurring in region B of the graph?

a)

The primary immune response

b)

The secondary immune response

c)

The non-specific immune response

d)

Phagocytosis

103.

Which statement regarding vaccinations is incorrect?

a)

Antigenic material is administered into the body

b)

Antibodies that are specific and complementary to particular antigens are produced

c)

Phagocytosis occurs

d)

Memory cells are created

104.

'The protection given to a population against an outbreak of a specific disease when a very high percentage of the population has been vaccinated against it' is known as...

a)

Immunological memory

b)

Herd immunity

c)

A pandemic

d)

Outbreak prevention

105.
How are monoclonal antibodies produced?
a)
Taken from bone marrow
b)
From a clone of a single cell
c)
From an embryo
d)
All of the above
106.
What are antibodies made of?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Protein
c)
Polysacchiaride
d)
Lipid
107.
What is the first stage of producing monoclonal antibodies?
a)
Stimulating mouse lymphocytes to make an antibody
b)
collect spleen cells from a mouse
c)
Form hybridoma cells
d)
produce myeloma cells
108.
What is a hybridoma cell?
a)
A particular antibody
b)
A B lymphocyte fused with a cancer cell
c)
An antibody fused with a lymphocyte
d)
None of the above
109.

What are Monoclonal antibodies ?

a)

An antibody produced by the body.

b)

An antibody produced by a single clone of cells or cell line and consisting of identical antibody molecules.

c)

An antibody produced by a single clone of cells or cell line and consisting of many different antibody molecules.

d)

An antibody produced in a lab

110.
Antibodies... 
a)
destroy body cells
b)
destroy toxins
c)
make pathogens stick together
d)
destroy particular viruses and bacteria
111.
Which best describes the relationship between antibodies and antigens?
a)
Antibodies are specific to one antigen
b)
Antigens are produced in response to antibodies
c)
One antibody can affect several different antigens
d)
Immunity develops when an antigen destroys an antibody.
112.

What is phagocytosis?

a)

microbes that are engulfed by phagocytes which destroys, removes, confines antigens or its by products

b)

microbes that are engulfed by phagocytes which creates & invites antigens or its by products

113.

What is antigen presentation?

a)

antigen fragments, cell peptides or epitope sequences that are loaded onto class I and class II MHC

b)

antigen fragments, cell peptides or epitope sequences that are loaded onto ONLY class I MHC

c)

antigen fragments, cell peptides or epitope sequences that are loaded onto ONLY class II MHC

114.

Explain memory cells?

a)

for rapid response to re-exposure

b)

cell-mediated immunity or humoral response

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