Font size
S
M
L
XL
Worksheets13. PSD_Exam muestra v1.4
Total questions: 80
Worksheet time: 3600secs
Name
Class
Date
1.
Choose four desirable characteristics of a unit test.
(choose the best four answers)
a)
Includes exercising the persistence layer
b)
makes assertions about only one logical concept
c)
Test code is a small as possible
d)
Independent of others
e)
Execution is fast
2.
What are two differences between unit tests and integration tests? (choose the best two answers)
a)
A unit test is automated.
b)
A unit test only runs on a Developers workstation.
c)
A unit test isolates a specific system behavior.
d)
An integration test usually focuses on the integration of two or more units.
e)
An integration test runs overnight.
3.
When should Product Backlog refinement occur? (choose the best answer)
a)
Only during refinement meetings planned by the Product Owner
b)
Anytime the Scrum Team feels Product Backlog items require more precision
c)
Only during Sprint Planning
d)
Always prior to Sprint Planning
4.
True or False: Stakeholders can be included in Product Backlog refinement.
a)
True
b)
False
5.
Cyclomatic complexity is a metric for: (choose the best answer)
a)
Assessing if code is written in as few lines as possible.
b)
Measuring branching structures and nesting levels in code
c)
Determining the number of unit tests required to ensure correctness.
d)
A measurement for complexity based on the number of people involved
e)
Demonstrating code is well structured and cleanly implemented
6.
When using Scrum, can a Scrum Team use Continuous Delivery? (choose the best answer)
a)
No, because before releasing an Increment it first has to fulfill the Definition of Done.
b)
No, because Stakeholders may have alreacy seen the new features and the Sprint Review Will be meaningless.
c)
No, because the Product Owner may not be available each time a PBI is done and the Product Owner has to decide if it snould be released.
d)
No, because the increment has to be approved at the Sprint Review before it can be released, and a 2-week Sprint would not be considered continuous.
e)
Yes, there is nothing in Scrum that conflicts With Continuous Delivery.
7.
Which are three attributes of a bad bug report? (choose the best three answers)
a)
Vague statements or untested assumptions.
b)
Generic titles.
c)
Simple and repeatable reproduction steps.
d)
Assigning blame.
e)
One bug per report.
8.
What is a mock object? (choose the best answer)
a)
A test object that mimics the behavior of a dependency in the system under test.
b)
A mock helps you create a build script.
c)
Mocks, stubs, dummies, fakes, and shims are all the same.
d)
A mock is a way to initialize the database for testing.
9.
Who creates documentation included with an Increment? (choose the best answer)
a)
Technical writers
b)
Increments do not need documentation
c)
The Developers
d)
The Product Owner
e)
The Scrum Master
10.
Which of the following are advantages of Continuous Integration? (choose the best two answers)
a)
The feature-branch is generally kept in a buildable state.
b)
Reduce effort and risk when integrating changes
c)
Readability of code is improved
d)
Know immediately how a change affected the product
11.
What are the typical roles when practicing Pair Programming? (choose the best answer)
a)
Product Owner and Developer
b)
Business Analyst and Developer
c)
Tester and Developer
d)
Driver and Navigator
e)
Frontend and Backend
12.
Which of the following best describes Continuous Integration? (choose the best answer)
a)
A software development practice that continuously integrates feedback from users into software design
b)
A software development practice where Developers integrate and verify their work frequently, often multiple times each day, to detect integration errors as quickly as possible.
c)
A software development practice where Developers all work on the same computer to ensure a common code base.
d)
A software development practice used by integration teams to create best practice branching and merging strategies.
13.
True or False: Database design must be complete before coding starts to ensure a solid foundation.
a)
True
b)
False
14.
What does Code Coverage show? (choose the best answer)
a)
The absence of defects in code
b)
Code being exercised by tests
c)
The quality of unit tests being written.
d)
When a feature is done.
e)
The ratio of the number of tests to lines of code in the system being tested.
15.
True or False: Only technical writers can create documentation during a Sprint.
a)
True
b)
False
16.
Which three of the following criteria are most helpful as part of a Scrum Team's Definition of Done? (choose the best three answers)
a)
Code review is done
b)
Regression tests pass
c)
The product is released at the end of every Sprint
d)
No impediments exist
e)
Acceptance tests pass
17.
A Scrum Team is a cohesive unit of professionals that consists of which of the following? (choose all that apply)
a)
Developers.
b)
One Product Owner
c)
Customers
d)
One Scrum Master
e)
Users
18.
What is a merge in a version control system? (choose the best answer)
a)
Combining two or more versions of code into a single codebase.
b)
Identifying a particular codebase as ready for distribution.
c)
Copying a portion of a code base to isolate it from the original codebase.
d)
Triggering a deployment into production.
19.
What are possible benefits from practicing Test-Driven Development? (choose the best three answers)
a)
It helps break down complex problems into smaller ones that are much easier to be tackled.
b)
It helps to identify gaps in understanding the desired behavior
c)
It increases collaboration between Developers as it requires Pair Programming.
d)
It is a great way for Testers to contribute early in the Sprint as they can start creating all the tests from the beginning on.
e)
It might lead to code as refactoring is part of the Test-Driven Development cycle
20.
When must the Product Owner participate in the Daily Scrum? (choose the best answer)
a)
When the Scrum Master asks the Product Owner to attend.
b)
When the Product Owner is actively working on items on the Sprint Backlog; however, they participate as a Developer
c)
When the Product Owner needs to represent the stakeholders' point of View to the Developers.
d)
When there are impediments to discuss
21.
What are two reasons to use mock objects in unit tests? (choose the best two answers)
a)
The behavior of a given Object can be emulated to the system under test.
b)
They are machine-generated and eliminate the need to write code by hand.
c)
Isolating a particular system component for controlled testing.
d)
TDD is impossible without them.
e)
To decrease cyclomatic complexity.
22.
What is Pair Programming? (choose the best answer)
a)
Developers that are able to write code both in the back-end and the front-end.
b)
Two persons working on the same Product Backlog item trying to get it done as soon as possible.
c)
Two Developers working on the same problem, at the same computer (pnysically or virtually), at the same time.
d)
A Tester and a Developer working together to ensure high quality.
23.
While developing a new feature, you find a bug delivered in a previous Increment. What should you do? (choose the best answer)
a)
Revise the tests so that the bug no longer appears on the bug report.
b)
Set aside the Sprint Goal until the bug is fixed.
c)
Talk to the Product Owner about what steps to take.
d)
Stub out the code that cause the bug so it no longer occurs.
24.
What are the top three benefits of a good Definition of Done? (choose the best three answers)
a)
A full description of all test steps
b)
Guidance on the specific patterns to be implementec in code.
c)
Clear communjcation of the Scrum Team's quality standarcs.
d)
An ongoing strategy or technique for steadily addressing technical debt.
e)
A fully valuable, useful Increment by the end of each Sprint.
25.
Which of the following are DevOps Practices? (choose the best answer)
a)
Continuous Integration / Continuous Deployment / Continuous Delivery.
b)
Blue-Green-Deployment.
c)
Hypothesis-Driven Development.
d)
Vertical Teams.
e)
All of the above
26.
What is Technical Debt? (choose the best answer)
a)
The average time or money a Scrum Team spends per Sprint on bug fixes.
b)
A term representing the eventual consequences of poor technical choices.
c)
Code that has not been commented or documented.
d)
The money an organization owes to tool and hardware vencors.
27.
In software development, DRY refers to: (choose the best answer)
a)
Code that has been peer reviewed.
b)
Code with low cyclomatic complexity
c)
Code that has not been peer reviewed.
d)
Code with minimal duplication
28.
How should a Scrum Team deal with non-functional requirements? (choose the best answer)
a)
Assign them to the lead developers on the team
b)
Ensure every Increment meets them.
c)
Make sure the release department understands these requirements, but it is not the Scrum Team's responsibility.
d)
Manage them during the Integration Sprint prior to the Release Sprint.
29.
What are some disadvantages of code coverage as a measurement for how well a system or product is tested? (choose the best three answers)
a)
It is too complicated to explain to management.
b)
It could create incentives to write tests that simply increase code coverage, rather than tests that find bugs without increasing coverage
c)
It does not ensure that the most important or highest risk areas of the code are being exercised by tests
d)
It only provides insights to programmers.
e)
Developers could stop adding more valuable tests once the target coverage is achieved.
30.
Which three of the following are feedback loops in Scrum? (choose the best three answers)
a)
Refinement Meeting
b)
Sprint Retrospective.
c)
Daily Scrum
d)
Release Planning
e)
Sprint Review.
31.
True or False: Multiple Scrum Teams working on the same product must have the same Sprint start date.
a)
True
b)
False
32.
Whicn of the following describes an architecture spike? (choose the best answer)
a)
A small development activity to learn about technical elements of a proposed solution.
b)
A fundamental architectural problem round in an existing application.
c)
The result of an exhaustive architectural planning effort.
d)
A decision made by a systems architect to settle disagreement with a Developer.
33.
What would NOT be considered refactoring? (choose the best answer)
a)
Extracting interfaces.
b)
Changing external interfaces or APIS.
c)
Renaming things to be more logical.
d)
Extracting methods.
e)
Reordering method parameters to improve readability.
34.
When using Continuous Integration, how often should the build be executed? (choose the best answer)
a)
Once per day
b)
Whenever new tests are created or uncertainty arises about whether old tests will pass
c)
Once per hour
d)
Before the end of the Sprint.
e)
Whenever new or changed code is checked into version control.
35.
What is static analysis? (choose the best answer)
a)
Work performed by a business analyst.
b)
Analysis performed on software at runtime.
c)
A tool that inspects the correctness of static classes.
d)
Analysis performed on code.
36.
Why might Developers choose to do pair programming? (choose the best answer)
a)
Information sharing and learning.
b)
Improving code quality.
c)
Efficiency.
d)
It can be a fun way to work
e)
All of the above
37.
A team has expressed requirements as a set of failing acceptance tests. What are three benefits? (choose the best three answers)
a)
Clear acceptance criteria for each feature.
b)
Improves quality in the requirement itselt
c)
Tracking of completeness.
d)
Using a code generation tool, the solution can be generated from the requirements model.
e)
Promotes the use of the DRY principle.
38.
Which four are benefits of Test-Driven Development? (choose the best four answers)
a)
It reduces the cost of maintenance over time.
b)
It ensures no defects are present in the code.
c)
It causes you to construct a test harness.
d)
It promotes good design and separation of concerns.
e)
It improves quality and reduces bugs
39.
True or False: User Stories are required in the Product Backlog.
a)
True
b)
False
40.
What are two ways Developers can ensure a good application architecture? (choose the best two answers)
a)
The Developers have a set of guiding architecture principles that are understood and followed when writing Code.
b)
The Scrum Team assigns someone to the role of software architect to provide architectural oversight.
c)
The Developers at Sprint O create intrastructure that Will be needed later.
d)
The Developers focus only on adding tunctionality. The architecture will take care of itself as the Developers add tunctionality.
e)
Architecture is an ongoing discussion by Developers, focusing on implementing current Sprint Backlog items.
41.
The right time to refactor code using Test-Driven Development is: (choose the best answer)
a)
After the test passes.
b)
After the test fails.
c)
When preparing legacy code for unit tests.
d)
When I can see the "debt" building in the code
42.
As a Developer, while developing new functionality, you find a bug that has already been delivered to the customer. What do you do? (choose the best answer)
a)
Revise the tests so that the bug no longer appears on the bug report.
b)
Talk to the Product Owner.
c)
Stub out the code that caused the bug so it no longer occurs.
d)
Fix the bug.
43.
Choose two benefits of Continuous Integration. (choose the best two answers)
a)
It leads to higher transparency and rapid feedback for the team.
b)
It eliminates bugs completely.
c)
It can increase collaboration within the Developers.
d)
The build is executed once every night and at least once each weekend.
44.
Product Backlog items are refined by: (choose the best answer)
a)
The Scrum Team.
b)
The Developers.
c)
The Product Owner.
d)
The Business Analyst and the Product Owner.
45.
Which of the following are quality goals in application architecture? (choose the best two answers)
a)
Scalability.
b)
Build.
c)
Security.
d)
Design pattern selection.
46.
What is the primary purpose of refactoring? (choose the best answer)
a)
Ensuring that all factors are constantly aligned.
b)
Removing all bugs that were found during regression tests.
c)
Making sure that the code is readable and maintainable.
d)
Creating better technical documentation.
47.
Which are two benefits of establishing naming conventions for code (choose the best two answers)
a)
To reduce friction in a shared codebase
b)
To make it easy to distinguish between different software products
c)
To make the code more readable
d)
To ensure that abandoned functions are not created.
e)
To communicate the identity of the Developer who worked on the code.
48.
What would a Developer with special quality assurance skills not do? (choose the best answer)
a)
Create a plan for testing the application
b)
Delay test activities until a feature has been coded.
c)
Define acceptance criteria for features
d)
Identity tools and techniques to be used in testing the product
49.
How much time must a Product Owner spend with the Developers? (choose the best answer)
a)
As much time as the Developers tell the Product Owner to be present
b)
100%.
c)
Enough so that the Product Owner is confident the Increment Will meet the intended value.
d)
40%, or more if the stakeholders agree.
50.
Which of these may a Scrum Team deliver at the end of a Sprint? (choose the best answer)
a)
Failing unit tests, to identify acceptance tests for the next Sprint.
b)
An Increment of software with minor known bugs in it
c)
A single document, if that is what management asked for
d)
A valuable, useful Increment that meets the Definition of Done.
51.
How is architecture decided by a Scrum Team? (choose the best answer)
a)
It emerges as the Developers create the system.
b)
The architect works in the early part of each Sprint to define the architecture for that Sprint.
c)
Upfront designs are presented to the Scrum Team prior to the first Sprint.
d)
An architect on the Scrum Team undertakes all architecture tasks.
e)
The architecture cares for itself as code is written and deployed.
52.
Which are four attributes of a good bug report. (choose the best four answers)
a)
Includes build or version number where bug was found.
b)
Expected results and observed results.
c)
Screenshots or other pictures of the bug in action.
d)
Includes code for a proposed fix.
e)
Provides simple and repeatable reproduction steps.
53.
True or False: Best Practices are recommended to solve complex problems.
a)
True
b)
False
54.
What is a unit test? (choose the best answer)
a)
A way to ensure product code satisfies the user requirements.
b)
A technique for ensuring that units of co-dependent systems integrate correctly.
c)
A test that isolates and verifies individual units of functionality
d)
A test that ensures a specific method integrates properly with the code calling it.
55.
When a Continuous Integration build fails, who ideally fixes it? (choose the best answer)
a)
The person assigned to the configuration management role within the team.
b)
The next person who needs the build to complete successfully.
c)
The tester responsible tor validating builds.
d)
The person who broke the build.
e)
Whoever the Developers agree should fix it.
56.
What does a test written with Test-Driven Development represent? (choose the best answer)
a)
An assignment from the lead quality engineer.
b)
Something that completes the test coverage of a system.
c)
A technical requirement that must be satisfied
d)
A bug that will be uncovered.
57.
When should Developers ask the Product Owner for feedback on their work? (choose the best answer)
a)
During the Sprint Review
b)
During Product Backlog Refinement
c)
During the Daily Scrum.
d)
Whenever the feedback can help avoid waste.
58.
While practicing Test-Driven Development, what is done after the test fails. (choose the best answer)
a)
Run it again to make sure it really fails.
b)
Implement the required functionality.
c)
Write the minimum amount of product code to satisfy the test.
d)
Meet with the business analyst to ensure that the test is correct
e)
Refactor the test so the code passes.
59.
Choose three reasons why automated builds are important. (Choose the best three answers)
a)
They allow frequent validation and ensure the product remains in a usable state.
b)
They eliminate the need tor Build Engineers.
c)
They support Continuous Integration.
d)
They clearly define the build process.
e)
They ensure your product remains bug free.
60.
During the Sprint, the Scrum Master's role is to do which two of the following (choose the best two answers)
a)
Ensure the Product Owner attends all Scrum events.
b)
Facilitate inspection and adaptation opportunities as requested or needed.
c)
Assign tasks with the Scrum Team.
d)
Monitor the progress of the Developers.
e)
Coaching the team members in self-management.
61.
What is test-first development? (choose the best answer)
a)
The continuous restructuring of software to retain flexibility.
b)
Having the tester in the Scrum Team write the test plans before coding.
c)
Creating tests before satisfying them.
d)
Testing existing code before adding more code to it.
62.
Which of the following describe Test-Driven Development? (choose the best two answers)
a)
A software development technique based on automated tests
b)
Having testers involved in the development process.
c)
An incremental and emergent approach to software design.
d)
A predictable way to develop working, well-organized code.
e)
Creating a manual test script before writing code.
63.
When are individuals with testing and quality expertise included in the software development effort? (choose the best answer)
a)
After Sprint Review
b)
When the implementation of each feature is complete.
c)
When the product is feature complete.
d)
From the beginning and throughout all Sprints.
64.
Who creates tests on a Scrum Team? (choose the best answer)
a)
The Developers.
b)
The Product Owner
c)
The Scrum Master
d)
Quality Assurance Specialists.
65.
The practice of decomposing a requirement into failing tests is called: (choose the best answer)
a)
Object oriented requirements definition.
b)
Regression testing.
c)
Behavior-Driven Development.
d)
Acceptance Test-Driven Development.
66.
What is an integration test? (choose the best answer)
a)
A test of the user interface.
b)
A test of a Single unit of functionality.
c)
A test that runs during a Continuous Integration build.
d)
A test of multiple units of functionality.
67.
During a Sprint Retrospective, the Developers propose moving the Daily Scrum to only occur on Tuesdays and Thursdays. Which two are the most appropriate responses for the Scrum Master to recommend? (choose the best two answers)
a)
Coach the team on why the Daily Scrum is important as an opportunity to update the Plan.
b)
Consider the request and decide on which days the Daily Scrum should occur
c)
Learn why the Developers want this and work with them to improve the outcome ot the Daily Scrum.
d)
Have the Developers vote.
e)
Acknowledge and support the self-managing team's decision
68.
At Sprint Planning, the Scrum Team has NO clear standard to meet for releasable software. What should the Scrum Team do? (choose the best answer)
a)
Ask the Scrum Master what they should do.
b)
Create a unique completion checklist for each item in the Sprint.
c)
Specify a Definition of Done.
d)
Ask the Product Owner to specify a Definition of Done.
69.
During the Sprint Retrospective a Scrum Team has identified several high priority process improvements. Which of the following statements is most accurate? (choose the best answer)
a)
The Scrum Master selects the most important process improvement and places it in the Sprint Backlog
b)
The Scrum Team should decline to add a process improvement to the Sprint Backlog when things are running smoothly
c)
The Scrum Team may add the items to the Sprint Backlog for the next Sprint.
d)
The Scrum Team should choose at least one high priority process improvement to place in the Product Backlog.
70.
When is a system's architecture decided? (choose the best answer)
a)
Before writing code.
b)
In the beginning of the project, during Sprint 0.
c)
It is designed along with the Vision, betore the first Sprint.
d)
Throughout development, as understanding emerges.
71.
Is it a good idea to follow each automated build with the execution of automated tests? (choose the best answer)
a)
Yes. The tests may identify whether there are problems that the Developers should fix before proceeding.
b)
No. It would take too much time.
c)
No. Automated tests should only be executed when the implementation of a Product Backlog item is complete.
d)
Yes. Code coverage can be used to assess progress.
72.
What may be included in the Sprint Backlog? (choose the best answer)
a)
User Stories.
b)
Tasks.
c)
Use Cases
d)
Tests.
e)
Any of the above (or others) which are a decomposition of the selected Product Backlog items.
73.
What is pair programming? (choose the best answer)
a)
Managers doing performance reviews by comparing one programmer's code to another's.
b)
Two programmers write code separately. A third programmer integrates the work
c)
A Developer and a tester work together to write and test code.
d)
Two Developers writing code together, providing constant peer review
e)
The Scrum Team is divided into several two-person sub-teams that consolidate work in a Scrum of Scrums.
74.
Why is architectural layering important for emergent systems? (choose the best three answers)
a)
Layering separates different logical concerns within the system.
b)
Layering increases maintainability of a system by isolating functional responsibilities
c)
Layering assigns clear responsibilities to individual Developers.
d)
Layering makes it easier to reuse functionality.
75.
What three things can happen when refining Product Backlog items? (choose the best three answers)
a)
Product Backlog item decomposition.
b)
Feature Testing
c)
Analysis.
d)
Sizing.
e)
Programming
76.
What does it mean to say that an event has a timebox? (choose the best answer)
a)
The event must happen by a given time.
b)
The event can take no more than a maximum amount of time.
c)
The event must take at least a minimum amount of time.
d)
The event must happen at a set time.
77.
Which of the following are the Developers accountable for? (choose the best two answers)
a)
Selecting the Product Owner
b)
Reporting productivity.
c)
Creating a plan for the Sprint, the Sprint Backlog.
d)
Organizing the work required to meet the Sprint Goal.
78.
You are the Scrum Master for four Scrum Teams working from the same Product Backlog. Several of the developers come to you complaining that work identified for the upcoming two Sprints will require full-time commitment from a specialist who is external to the teams. What should the Scrum Master consider in this situation? (choose the best two answers)
a)
The ability of the Scrum Teams to produce integrated Increments
b)
The benefit of Developers figuring out a solution for themselves
c)
The need to have enough work to keep all Developers busy
d)
The desire to maintain a stable velocity
79.
When is performance testing most effectively performed? (choose the best answer)
a)
In production.
b)
Often, throughout development of the software.
c)
Just before deploying to production.
d)
After coding is complete.
80.
Which answer best describes Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)? (choose the best answer)
a)
A development Style that accounts for leadership Style among team members.
b)
A way to organize unit tests based on class and method structures
c)
A technique for maintaining regression test harnesses
d)
An agile practice that encourages collaboration between business, implementation and testing perspectives
Reset
