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Parenteral Nutrition - Higgins - Nutrition Exam 1

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Select all of the following indications for parental nutrition

a)

A person who's able to take medications PO

b)

A person with motility disorders

c)

A person with a mechanical bowel obstruction

d)

A person with impaired absorption. or loss of nutrients via GIA tract

e)

Patients with an inability to achieve or mantain enteral access

2.

Which of the following patients would peripheral parenteral nutrition be reccomended

a)

JT who needs parenteral nutrition indefinitely

b)

MK who needs a large amount of nutrients for parenteral nutrition

c)

DT who needs parental nutrition and is expected to recover in 10 days

d)

BG who needs a large amount of nutrients over the next 4 weeks

3.

Match the following descriptions to their proper types of peripheral parenteral nutritions

a)

Shortest term. Uses a vein in arm. Highest infection risk

1.

Peripherally inserted central catheter

b)

Usually used in cancer population. Port hidden under the skin. Lowest infection risk

2.

Port-a-cath (port)

c)

Surgically inserted. Lines hang out of chest.

3.

Central venous catheter

4.

Which of the following is the best description on how peripheral parenteral nutrition (PPN) is different from central parenteral nutrition (CPN)

a)

Lower concentrations of AA, dextrose, and micronutrients compared to CPN

b)

Higher concentrations of AA, dextrose, and micronutrients compared to CPN

c)

PPN is the preferred route due to allowing higher osmolality and wider pH variation

d)

PPN is best for long term use

5.

Between peripheral parenteral nutrition and central parenteral nutrition, which is preferred

a)

Centeral

b)

Parenteral

6.

Which of the following is an advantage when using the peripheral parenteral nutrition (PPN)

a)

Allows for higher osmolarity

b)

Allows for wider variation in pH

c)

Best for long term and large nutrients needed

d)

Lower risk of infectious, metabolic, and technical complications

7.

Which of the following are the advantage when using the central parenteral nutrition (PPN). Select all that apply

a)

Allows for higher osmolarity

b)

Allows for wider variation in pH

c)

Best for long term and large nutrients needed

d)

Lower risk of infectious, metabolic, and technical complications

8.

Which of the following is a disadvantage when using the peripheral parental nutrition (PPN)

a)

Higher risk of phlebitis and vein damage

b)

Cather insertion, routine catheter use, and care of access site required

c)

Access is associated with a greater potential for infeciton

9.

Which of the following are disadvantage when using the central parental nutrition (SATA

a)

Higher risk of phlebitis and vein damage

b)

Cather insertion, routine catheter use, and care of access site required

c)

Access is associated with a greater potential for infeciton

10.

Central parenteral nutrition is best for patients who are expected to need nutrition over 14 days or patients who will need nutrition indefinitely

a)

True

b)

False

11.

When would you initiate parenteral nutrition in an adult who was previously well nourished

a)

Initiate after 7 days of oral or EN intake less than 50% of estimated requirements

b)

Initiate after 3-5 days of oral or EN intake less than 50% of estimated requirements

c)

Initiate PN as soon as feasible for those whom oral or EN is not possible or sufficient

d)

Delay parenteral nutrition until until improvement in clinical condition

12.

When would you initiate parenteral nutrition in an adult who is nutritionally at-risk

a)

Initiate after 7 days of oral or EN intake less than 50% of estimated requirements

b)

Initiate after 3-5 days of oral or EN intake less than 50% of estimated requirements

c)

Initiate PN as soon as feasible for those whom oral or EN is not possible or sufficient

d)

Delay parenteral nutrition until until improvement in clinical condition

13.

When would you initiate parenteral nutrition in an adult who is moderately or severely malnourished

a)

Initiate after 7 days of oral or EN intake less than 50% of estimated requirements

b)

Initiate after 3-5 days of oral or EN intake less than 50% of estimated requirements

c)

Initiate PN as soon as feasible for those whom oral or EN is not possible or sufficient

d)

Delay parenteral nutrition until until improvement in clinical condition

14.

If you have an ICU patient who is metabolically unstable when should you initiate parenteral nutrition

a)

Initiate after 7 days of oral or EN intake less than 50% of estimated requirements

b)

Initiate after 3-5 days of oral or EN intake less than 50% of estimated requirements

c)

Initiate PN as soon as feasible for those whom oral or EN is not possible or sufficient

d)

Delay parenteral nutrition until until improvement in clinical condition

15.

Which of the following are macronutrients in PN (SATA)

a)

Protein

b)

Fat

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Fluid

e)

Vitamins

16.

Which of the following are micronutrients in PN (SATA)

a)

Fluids

b)

Fat

c)

Trace elements

d)

Electrolytes

e)

Vitamins

17.

Match the caloric content with their descriptions

a)

1.1 kcal/mL

1.

10% IVFE

b)

2 kcal/mL

2.

20% IVFE

c)

3 kcal/mL

3.

30% IVFE

18.

In critically ill patients, when should fat be held or added to their PN solution

a)

Consider holding fat for first week then adding fat 1-2 days per week

b)

Consider holding fat indefinitely for patients critically ill

c)

Consider holding fat for initial weeks then adding fat 3 weeks later

d)

Consider holding fat for a month then add into second month

19.

All of the following are times you should take extra caution when creating PN using lipid emulsions EXCEPT

a)

Severe egg allergy

b)

Soybean allergy

c)

Fish oil allergy

d)

Milk allergy

20.

How often do you need to give fat in order to avoid fatty acid deficiency

a)

at least daily

b)

at least monthly

c)

at least weekly

d)

At least annually

21.

Excessive amounts of dextrose in PN can lead to

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Kidney disfunction

d)

Hypotension

22.

Match the following initiation doses for adolescents/adults with the macronutrient

a)

1 g/kg/day

1.

Lipids

b)

1-3 g/kg/day

2.

Amino acids

c)

3-5 mg/kg/min

3.

Dextrose

23.

Match the following goal doses for adolescents/adults with the macronutrient

a)

1-2 g/kg/day

1.

Lipids

b)

0.8-2 g/kg/day

2.

Amino acids

c)

4-7 mg/kg/min

3.

Dextrose

24.

What is the advancement dose of lipids in adolescents/adults

a)

0.5-1 g/kg/day

b)

1-2 g/kg/day

c)

0.8-2 g/kg/day

d)

1-2 mg/kg/min

25.

What is the advancement dose of AA in adolescents/adults

a)

0.5-1 g/kg/day

b)

1-2 g/kg/day

c)

0.8-2 g/kg/day

d)

1-2 mg/kg/min

26.

What is the advancement dose of dextrose in adolescents/adults

a)

4-7 mg/kg/min

b)

1-2 g/kg/day

c)

0.8-2 g/kg/day

d)

1-2 mg/kg/min

27.

What is the maximum safe osmolarity of PN admixtures for peripheral administration

a)

500 mOSM/L

b)

900 mOSM/L

c)

700 mOSM/L

d)

1200 mOSM/L

28.

When calculating the total daily fluid requirement for a patient, what needs to be taken into consideration

a)

Fluid restricted patients

b)

Adjust for current fluid running IV medications

c)

Continuous infusion medications

d)

Any other fluids patient has

e)

All of these need to be considered

29.

In PN, what amount of sodium do we usually try not to exceed

a)

154 mEq/L

b)

200 mEq/L

c)

90 mEq/L

d)

200 mEq/L

30.

We usually choose sodium and potassium chloride for TPN except for acidotic patients

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Acidotic patient lab values will show which of the following when given sodium chloride

a)

Low chloride and low bicarb (or high total CO2)

b)

high chloride and low bicarb (or low total CO2)

c)

High chloride and high bicarb (or high total CO2)

d)

low chloride and low bicarb (or low total CO2)

32.

What are other sources of sodium or potassium to be aware of

a)

IV antibiotics

b)

IV bolus

c)

IV fluids

d)

All of these should be accounted for

33.

Phosphorous often needs to be reduced in renal disease

a)

True

b)

False

34.

In PN, what type of precipitation needs to be monitored

a)

Sodium phosphorous

b)

Calcium phosphorus

c)

Potassium phosphorus

35.

Calcium is added to TPN as

a)

Calcium phosphate

b)

Calcium gluconate

c)

Calcium bicarbonate

d)

Calcium hydroxide

36.

When albumin in a patient is high we need to calculate a corrected calcium

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Calculate the corrected calcium for a patient with the following laboratory parameters. They have a serum calcium of 7.5mg/dL, albumin of 2.0 g/dL and the normal albumin of 4g/dL
.
Corrected calcium = serum calcium + 0.8[(normal albumin - serum albumin)]

a)

4.8 mg/dL

b)

9.1 mg/dL

c)

5.9 mg/dL

d)

8.4 mg/dL

38.

Match the following goals serum levels with there proper labs

a)

135-145 MEQ/L

1.

Sodium

b)

3.5-5 MEQ/L

2.

Potassium

c)

2.5 to 4.5 MMOL/dL

3.

Phosphorus

d)

8.5-10.2 mg/dL

4.

Calcium

e)

1.8-3 mg/dL

5.

Magnesium

39.

When discontinuing TPN, stop it immediately and transition to EN

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Iron is routinely given in a PN

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Which of the following is in trace elements PN (SATA)

a)

Chromium

b)

Copper

c)

Manganese

d)

Zinc

e)

Iron

42.

Each day you should assess serum concentration of electrolytes and adjust as needed

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Which of the following is NOT a fat soluble vitamin

a)

A

b)

D

c)

K

d)

E

e)

C

44.

Which of the following TPN labs should be run weekly (SATA)

a)

Proteins

b)

Triglyceride levels

c)

Hepatic function (ALP, AST, ALT, TBILI)

d)

Renal function (BUN, SCR)

e)

Blood glucose

45.

Which of the following TPN labs should be run daily (SATA)

a)

Fluid balance

b)

Triglyceride levels

c)

Vital signs

d)

Weight

e)

Basic metabolic pannel