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Electrical Regulations Quiz (Revised)

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following Regulations are non-statutory?

a)

BS 7671 Requirements for Electrical Installations (ET Regulations)

b)

Electricity Safety, Quality and Continuity Regulations

c)

Electricity at Work Regulations 1989

d)

Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974

2.

Which of the following is excluded from the scope of BS 7671?

a)

Equipment of aircraft

b)

Caravans

c)

Commercial premises

d)

Agricultural and horticultural premises

3.

Which of the following is included in the scope of BS 7671?

a)

Lightning protection systems

b)

Equipment of motor vehicles

c)

Those aspects of mines and quarries covered by Statutory Regulations

d)

Photovoltaic systems

4.

Which of the following would not necessarily need to be taken into consideration when additions or alterations are being made?

a)

The rating of any existing equipment.

b)

The condition of existing equipment.

c)

The existing earthing and bonding arrangements.

d)

The existing final circuits are protected by rewireable fuses.

5.

Fault protection is defined as

a)

Protection against electric shock under fault-free conditions

b)

Protection against short circuit

c)

Protection against electric shock under single fault conditions

d)

Protection against overload

6.

The definition 'An operation intended to remove, as quickly as possible, danger, which may have occurred unexpectedly' describes which of the following?

a)

Switching off for mechanical maintenance

b)

Emergency switching

c)

Emergency stopping

d)

Functional switching

7.

Which of the following is not a characteristic that needs to be taken into account when choosing methods of protection for safety?

a)

Maintainability

b)

Continuity of service

c)

External influences

d)

Energy efficiency

8.

In which of the following systems is the protective conductor separate from the neutral conductor inside the installation but combined on the supply side of the installation?

a)

TN-C-S

b)

IT

c)

TN-C

d)

TT

9.

Which of the following items of information might need to be given to the distributor prior to receiving a connection?

a)

Maximum demand

b)

Nominal voltage

c)

Type and rating of the overcurrent devices at the origin

d)

External earth fault loop impedance

10.

Which one of the following is not a reason given in BS 7671 for dividing circuits?

a)

To avoid hazards and minimise inconvenience

b)

To prevent the indirect energizing of a circuit intended to be isolated

c)

To facilitate safe inspection, testing and maintenance

d)

To enable functional switching

11.

Which one of the following is not a characteristic to be considered under the heading compatibility?

a)

DC feedback

b)

Continuity of conductors

c)

Starting currents

d)

Transient overvoltages

12.

Which of the following characteristics of supply cannot be determined by enquiry to the distributor?

a)

The type and rating of the protective device at the origin of the installation

b)

The nature of the current and frequency

c)

The external earth fault loop impedance for a TT system

d)

The nominal voltage and its characteristics

13.

In an installation connected to a 400 V three-phase supply the value of Uo is?

a)

400 V

b)

230 V

c)

240 V

d)

415 V

14.

Which of the following provides basic protection?

a)

Protective bonding

b)

RCDs

c)

FELV

d)

Insulation of live parts

15.

Which of the following is not a basic protection provision?

a)

Placing out of reach

b)

Insulation of live parts

c)

Protective bonding

d)

Barriers or enclosures

16.

For basic protection provision a readily accessible horizontal top surface requires a degree of protection of at least:

a)

IP2X

b)

IPX2

c)

IP4X

d)

IP44

17.

The maximum disconnection time for a TN system with a nominal voltage of 400 V AC is which of the following:

a)

0.2 s

b)

0.4 s

c)

1 s

d)

5 s

18.

The maximum earth fault loop impedance for 0.4 s disconnection time with Uo of 230 V for a BS 88-3 20 A fuse is which of the following:

a)

1.0 Ω

b)

1.93 Ω

c)

1.7 Ω

d)

2.0 Ω

19.

Where a lid or an insulating enclosure can be opened without the use of a tool or key and conductive parts are accessible if the lid or door is open, an insulating barrier should be provided with a minimum degree of protection of which of the following?

a)

IPXXB or IP2X

b)

IPXXB or IP4X

c)

IPXXD or IP2X

d)

IPXXD or IP4X

20.

The maximum permitted voltage of a separated circuit is:

a)

60 V

b)

12 V

c)

23 V

d)

500 V

21.

Which of the following cannot be used as a source for a SELV or PELV system?

a)

Autotransformer

b)

Safety isolating transformer

c)

An electrochemical source

d)

Specific electronic devices

22.

Which of the following provisions for providing basic protection can only be used in installations that are controlled or supervised by skilled persons?

a)

Insulation of live parts

b)

Enclosures

c)

Obstacles

d)

Barriers

23.

The height in the overhead direction to comply with the requirements for placing out of reach is which of the following?

a)

1.25 m

b)

1.75 m

c)

2.25 m

d)

2.5 m

24.

Consumer units used in domestic premises should either be made from, or enclosed in, a cabinet made from:

a)

Heat resistant material

b)

Flame retardant material

c)

Low smoke, halogen free material

d)

Non combustible material

25.

Where overload protection is being provided by a BS 3036 fuse, the correction factor that may need to be applied when calculating the required current-carrying capacity of a conductor is which of the following?

a)

0.707

b)

0.725

c)

0.755

d)

1.45

26.

Which of the following is the recommended standard for an AFFD device for a single-phase final circuit supplying socket-outlets not exceeding 32A?

a)

BS EN 62423

b)

BS EN 62305

c)

BS EN 62606

d)

BS EN 62395

27.

What class of equipment is this symbol used to identify?

a)

Class 0

b)

Class I

c)

Class II

d)

Class III

28.

An automatic supply classified as normal break would be available within which of the following?

a)

0.15 s

b)

0.5 s

c)

5 s

d)

15 s

29.

Which of the following must not be used as an earth electrode?

a)

An earth rod m

b)

A public gas service pipe

c)

Underground structural metalwork

d)

Earth plates

30.

What is the minimum size for a supplementary bonding conductor connecting two extraneous-conductive-parts where mechanical protection is provided?

a)

2.5 mm²

b)

4.0 mm²

c)

6.0 mm²

d)

10 mm²

31.

Which of the following must be incorporated in, or placed in close proximity to, a single-phase water heater having immersed and uninsulated heating elements?

a)

A double pole switch

b)

A single pole switch

c)

A non linked circuit breaker

d)

A fuse

32.

Control equipment incorporating means of protection against overload should be provided for every motor having a rating in excess of which if the following?

a)

0.25 kW

b)

0.37 kW

c)

0.5 kW

d)

3.7 kW

33.

The common terminal of an autotransformer must be connected to which of the following?

a)

The neutral conductor

b)

An earth terminal

c)

The line conductor

d)

The protective conductor

34.

The minimum cross-sectional-area of a screened multicore cable used in an auxiliary circuit is:

a)

0.1 mm²

b)

0.2 mm²

c)

0.5 mm²

d)

1.0 mm²

35.

The value of the nominal voltage that should preferably not be exceeded for an auxiliary circuit connected to a DC supply is:

a)

200 V

b)

220 V

c)

230v

d)

250v

36.

In TT and TN systems, except for E14 and E27 lampholders complying with BS EN 60238, the outer contact of every Edison screw lampholder shall be connected to the:

a)

Neutral conductor

b)

Line conductor

c)

PEN conductor

d)

Circuit protective conductor

37.

The rating factor for a cable surrounded by thermal insulation for a length of 200 mm is which of the following?

a)

0.5

b)

0.63

c)

0.725

d)

0.78

38.

The minimum cross-sectional area of a copper conductor for signalling and control circuits using bare conductors is which of the following?

a)

1.0 mm²

b)

2.5 mm²

c)

4.0 mm²

d)

6.0 mm²

39.

Which Type of RCD should ONLY be used for fixed equipment, where it is known that no D.C. components are contained?

a)

Type F

b)

Type AC

c)

Type B

d)

Type A

40.

For installations with a 230 V single-phase supply rated up to 100 A that are under the control of ordinary persons, the switchgear and controlgear should be?

a)

A single pole switch

b)

A switch in the neutral alone

c)

A consumer unit complying with BS EN 61439-2

d)

A consumer unit complying with BS EN 61439-3

41.

BS 7671 requires that fire detection and fire alarm systems shall comply with the requirements of which series of standards?

a)

BS 5266

b)

BS EN 1838

c)

BS 5839

d)

BS 8519

42.

For which of the following types of electrical installation work would the issue of a Minor Electrical Installation Works Certificate not be suitable?

a)

A socket-outlet added to an existing ring final circuit

b)

A socket-outlet added to an existing radial circuit

c)

Replacement of a socket-outlet

d)

Replacement of a consumer unit

43.

The minimum value of insulation resistance for SELV and PELV circuits should be which of the following?

a)

0.25 MΩ

b)

0.5 MΩ

c)

1.0 MΩ

d)

2.0 MΩ

44.

For initial testing, which of the following is part of the correct test sequence?

a)

Polarity, earth fault loop impedance, insulation resistance, continuity of conductors

b)

Earth fault loop impedance, polarity, continuity of conductors, insulation resistance

c)

Insulation resistance, continuity of conductors, earth fault loop impedance, polarity

d)

Continuity of conductors, insulation resistance, polarity, earth fault loop impedance

45.

For a new installation which of the following persons completes the section on the Electrical Installation Certificate that recommends the time period until the next inspection and test?

a)

The designer

b)

The installer

c)

The inspector

d)

The owner

46.

In a location containing a bath or shower, socket-outlets other than SELV socket-outlets are:

a)

Permitted in zone 0

b)

Permitted in zone 1

c)

Permitted in zone 2

d)

Not permitted in a location containing a bath or shower

47.

The interior of the basin of a swimming pool would be described as which of the following?

a)

Zone 0

b)

Zone 1

c)

Zone 2

d)

Outside the zones

48.

Which of the following is the preferred electrical system for portable hand lamps in confined or damp locations of a construction site?

a)

SELV

b)

110 V centre-point earthed reduced low voltage

c)

110 V 3-phase, star point earthed

d)

230 V, 1-phase

49.

When used under normal conditions, electrical equipment in agricultural or horticultural premises should have a minimum degree of protection of which of the following?

a)
IPX2
b)

IP42

c)

IP44

d)

IPX4

50.

The minimum height for an overhead line in an area on a caravan site where vehicle movement is expected is which of the following?

a)

3.5 m

b)

5.0 m

c)

6.0 m

d)

8.0 m

51.

Overload protection may be omitted to PV string and PV array cables when the continuous current-carrying capacity of the cable is how many times greater than or equal to the IscSTC of any location?

a)

1.25

b)

1.5

c)

1.75

d)

2

52.

A flexible cable supplying a caravan with a rated supply current of 32 A requires a minimum cross-sectional area of which of the following?

a)

16 mm²

b)

6 mm²

c)

4 mm²

d)

2.5 mm²

53.

Which of the following is not a function of PEI?

a)

Supply

b)

Distrubtion

c)

Location

d)

Consumption

54.

The earthing arrangement needed for operating the PEI in island mode shall be connected to a suitable earth electrode complying with which Regulation?

a)

542.1.1

b)

542.1.2

c)

542.2.1

d)

542.2.2

55.

Selectivity does not concern which of the following devices?

a)

Overload protective device

b)

Short-circuit protective device

c)

Arc fault detection device

d)

Residual current device

56.

Which of the following is NOT a British Standard relating to plugs and socket-outlets?

a)

BS EN 60309-2

b)

BS 546

c)

BS 1362

d)

BS 1363

57.

A 32A protective device to BS 88-3 fuse system C operates 5 seconds after a fault occurs. What was the approximate value of fault current that caused the device to operate?

a)

32 A

b)

125 A

c)

140 A

d)

200 A

58.

The rating factor for the depth of cable (Cd) for a cable buried direct in the ground at a depth of 1 m is?

a)

1.03

b)

0.725

c)

0.9

d)

0.97

59.

Which of the following utilisation categories applies to equipment that is suitable for immersion in liquids?

a)

AA7

b)

AD7

c)

IPX7

d)

IPX7

60.

Model forms for certification and reporting are to be found in which of the following locations in BS 7671?

a)

Appendix 6

b)

Part 6

c)

Appendix 4

d)

Part 4