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Process Midterm

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 3hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

THIS includes the use of theory, knowledge of clinical principles, and evidence to support decisions about evaluations, interventions, and outcomes.

a)

Clinical reasoning

b)

Modes

c)

Models/FOR

d)

Intentional Relationship Model (IRM)

2.

What is at the center of occupational therapy?

a)

Collaborative relationship between therapist and client

b)

Evaluation process

c)

Models/FOR

d)

Occupational profile

3.

Select all of the following descriptions that correlate with an instructing mode of approach.

a)

Provides structure, information/advice, feedback, sets limits, and gives reminders about safety

b)

Emphasis on client education

c)

Provides information, direction, demonstration, role modeling

d)

Listen, watch, and adjust approach

e)

Client-centered

4.

Select all of the following descriptions that correlate with an empathizing mode of approach.

a)

Striving to understand; "feel with"

b)

Listen, watch, and adjust approach

c)

Disability as a function of environmental barriers

d)

Ask questions to help client self-evaluate

e)

Instills hope, courage, and motivation

5.

Select all of the following descriptions that correlate with an advocating mode of approach.

a)

Focus on eliminating environmental barriers to increase client participation

b)

Often a consulting role

c)

Works to ensure client as access to resources

d)

Promotes client empowerment, autonomy, independence

e)

Ask strategic questions to help client identify alternate solutions

6.

(T/F): A collaborating mode of approach emphasizes joint decision-making between therapist and client and is considered client-centered.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

(T/F): A problem-solving mode of approach involves the practitioner taking lead to figure things out and asking the client strategic questions to help him/her identify alternate solutions.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

What mode of approach involves instilling hope, courage, and motivation in your client and focuses on choosing activities to make them more appealing to them?

a)

Encouraging

b)

Problem-solving

c)

Collaborating

d)

Empathizing

9.

Which model of occupational therapy focuses on promoting a client's participation rather than fixing an impairment, and discusses the concept of volition, habituation, and performance capacity?

a)

MOHO

b)

OA

c)

EHP

10.

(T/F): The Ecology of Human Performance (EHP) model emphasizes the significance of measuring an individual's effectiveness, efficiency, and satisfaction relative to occupational performance.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

The four main components of the EHP model include person, task, context, and (a)   .

12.

The Occupational Therapy Practice Framework (OTPF-4) is an example of a _____.

a)

Paradigm

b)

Occupation-Based Model

c)

Intervention-Based Model/FOR

d)

FOR

13.

THIS is the planned use of an OT's personality, insights, perceptions, and judgements as part of the therapeutic process.

a)

Therapeutic use of self

b)

Intentional relationship model (IRM)

c)

Clinical reasoning

d)

Mode of therapy

14.

(T/F): The intentional relationship model (IRM) provides therapists w/ guidance on how to communicate with clients in ways that best met their clients' interpersonal needs as they unfold within the therapeutic interaction.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

THIS is a summary of a client's occupational history and experiences, patterns of daily living, interests, values, needs, and relevant contexts.

(a)  

16.

All of the following are components of an occupational profile EXCEPT for:

a)

Client report

b)

Environmental factors

c)

Personal factors

d)

Client goals

e)

Evaluation

17.

THIS part of the evaluation process includes the quality and quantity of a client's engagement or participation.

a)

Occupational profile

b)

Analysis of occupational performance

18.

Match the following types of reliability measures.

a)

How consistent different individuals are at measuring the same phenomenon (one person gives same test multiple times)

1.

Intra-rater

b)

Two people give the test on the same person )(ex. GREs, SATs)

2.

Inter-rater

c)

Administering the same test twice over a period of time to a group of individuals; scores form Time 1 and Time 2 can then be correlated in order to evaluate the test for stability over time

3.

Test-retest

19.

THIS is the extent to which an assessment measures what is was intended to measure.

a)

Reliability

b)

Validity

20.

Match the following types of validity measures.

a)

Relevance to concept being measured

1.

Content validity

b)

Measures theoretical construct or trait construct

2.

Construct validity

c)

Compared to outside test (gold standard)

3.

Criterion validity

d)

Convergent validity Agreement between 2 tests

Discriminant validity Disagreement between 2 tests

4.

Types of construct validity

e)

Concurrent validity 2 tests concur

Predictive validity Predicts future criterion

5.

Types of criterion validity

21.

Categorize the following based on the type of referenced tests.

Categorize the following

Compare a client's scores to others who have also been scored using the same assessment tool

Ex. SAT compares your scores to scores of other students

Compares a tester's score to an objective standard or criteria (cut-scores)

Ex. Montreal Cognitive Assessment

Norm
Criterion
22.

Taking the difference between the day, month, and year of BIRTH and the day, month, and year of ASSESSMENT DATE determines an individual's (a)   .

23.

(T/F): Standard deviation describes the confidence that an individual's true score is within the given standard of error or measurement.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Categorize the following descriptions to the appropriate type of assessment.

Categorize the following

Tools w/ sound psychometric properties (reliability & validity)

Has a consistent application and scoring procedure

Must complete assessment as directed

Informal

Flexibility on how to administer and score the assessment

Relies on practitioner's clinical reasoning for interpretation

Ex. COPM

Ex. Barthel Index, BOT2

Standardized
Non-Standardized
25.

(T/F): The setting determines how to choose an assessment.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Match the description to the appropriate category.

Categorize the following

Looking at occupation and ability to participate in occupation

Ex. COPM, Barthel Index

Focus on client factors, performance skills

Building

Ex. BOT2, MMT

Whole occupation first

Top-Down
Bottom-Up
27.

THIS includes the area of occupation impacted and contributing factors interfering with occupational engagement.

(a)  

28.

All of the following are roles of an OTA EXCEPT for:

a)

Can implement delegated assessments given demonstration of service competency

b)

Can select, implement, and modify interventions and can provide info. on client outcomes in collaboration with OTR

c)

Provides written documentation regarding client progress and performance

d)

Directs evaluation process and interprets assessment results

29.

(T/F): An OTR must ensure consistent supervision of OTA performance.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

(T/F): Direct quotes from the client must be incorporated into documentation to ensure an accurate reflection of the client's emotions.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

(T/F): Continue and maintain are considered "red flag words" because they do not show client progress.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Match the following in regard to reimbursement.

a)

Described procedure or service provided (Paid based on code submitted)

1.

Current procedural terminology (CPT)

b)

Based on the time spend one-on-one w/ the patient and include only skilled interventions

2.

Timed

c)

OT is paid a predetermined fee regardless of the time of treatment application

3.

Untimed

33.

If a patient utilizes the paraffin bath for 17 minutes, what is the amount of units that can be billed?

a)

1 unit

b)

2 units

c)

3 units

d)
  • 0 units

34.

If you dedicate 36 minutes to instructing a client on the usage of a button hook device, how many billing units are permissible?

a)

1 unit

b)

2 units

c)

3 units

d)

0 units

35.

Goals are typically written in the COAST format. What does the "A" stand for?

(a)