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Network 7-8 module quizz

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which part of an Ethernet Frame uses a pad to increase the frame field to at least 64 bytes?

a)

EtherType

b)

Preamble

c)

Start of Frame Delimiter

d)

Data field

2.

Which part of an Ethernet frame detects errors in the frame?

a)

Preamble

b)

Start of Frame Delimiter

c)

Frame Check Sequence

3.

Which part of an Ethernet Frame describes the higher- layer protocol that is encapsulated?

a)

EtherType

b)

Preamble



c)

Start of Frame Delimiter



d)

Frame Check Sequence

4.

Which part of an Ethernet Frame notifies the receiver to get ready for a new frame?

a)

Start of Frame Delimiter

b)

Frame Check Sequence

c)

Preamble

d)

Data field

5.

Which data link sublayer controls the network interface through software drivers?

a)

MAC

b)

LLC

6.

Which data link sublayer works with the upper layers to add application information for delivery of data to higher level protocols?

a)

MAC

b)

LLC

7.

What is a function of the MAC sublayer? (Choose three.)

a)

controls access to the media

b)

checks for errors in received bits

c)

uses CSMA/CD or CSMA/CA to support Ethernet technology

d)

communicates between software at the upper layers and the device hardware at the lower layers

e)

allows multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media

8.

When the switch forwards the frame, which statement(s) are true?

a)

Switch adds the source MAC address which is currently not in the MAC address table

b)

Frame is a broadcast frame and will be forwarded to all ports

c)

Frame is a unicast frame and wilt be sent to specific port only

d)

Frame is a unicast frame and will be flooded to all ports

e)

Frame is a unicast frame but it will be dropped at the switch

9.

What are two methods for switching data between ports on a switch? (Choose two.)

a)

cut-off switching

b)

cut-through switching

c)

store-and-forward switching

d)

store-and-supply switching

e)

store-and-restore switching

10.

Which switching method can be implemented using fast-forward switching or fragment-free switching?

a)

cut-off switching

b)

cut-through switching

c)

store -and-forward switching

d)

store-and-restore switching

11.

Which two types of memory buffering techniques are used by switches?

(Choose two.)

a)

long-term memory buffering

b)

port-based memory buffering

c)

shared memory buffering

d)

short-term memory buffering

12.

What feature automatically negotiates the best speed and duplex setting between interconnecting devices?

a)

auto-MDIX

b)

autobots

c)

autonegotiation

d)

autotune

13.

Which two characteristics describe Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)

a)

It uses a ring topology

b)

It is supported by IEEE 802.3 standards

c)

It uses unique MAC addresses to ensure that data is sent to the appropriate destination

d)

It typically uses an average of 16 Mbps for data transfer rates

e)

it is supported by IEEE 802.5 standards

14.

What statement describes a characteristic of MAC addresses?

a)

They have a 32-bit binary value

b)

They are added as part of a Layer 3 PDU

c)

They are only routable within the private network

d)

They must be globally unique

15.

What is the special value assigned to the first 24 bits of a multicast MAC address transporting an IPv4 packet?

a)

01-00-5E

b)

01-5E-00



c)

FF-00-5E

d)

FF-FF-FF

16.

What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a unicast destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?

a)

It will forward the frame to the next host

b)

It will discard the frame

c)

It will strip off the datalink frame to check the destination IP address

d)

It will remove the frame from the media

17.

Which network device makes forwarding decisions based on the destination

MAC address that is contained in the frame?

a)

router

b)

hub

c)

repeater

d)

switch

18.

Which network device has the primary function to send data to a specific destination based on the information found in the MAC address table?

a)

switch

b)

router

c)

modem

d)

hub

19.

Which function or operation is performed by the LLC sublayer?

a)

It adds a header and trailer to a packet to form an OSI Layer 2 PDU

b)

It is responsible for media access control

c)

It communicates with upper protocol layers

d)

It performs data encapsulation

20.

What happens to runt frames received by a Cisco Ethernet switch?

a)

The frame is broadcast to all other devices on the same network

b)

The frame is dropped

c)

The frame is sent to the default gateway

d)

The frame is returned to the originating network device

21.

What addressing information is recorded by a switch to build its MAC address table?

a)

the source Layer 2 address of incoming frames

b)

the destination Layer 3 address of incoming packets

c)

the destination Layer 2 address of outgoing frames

d)

the source Layer 3 address of outgoing packets

22.

What is auto-MDIX?

a)

a type of Cisco switch

b)

a feature that detects Ethernet cable type

c)

an Ethernet connector type

a feature to automatically determine speed and duplex

d)

a feature to automatically determine speed and duplex

23.

What type of address is 01-00-5E-0A-00-02?

a)

an address that reaches a specific group of hosts

b)

an address that reaches one specific host

c)

an address that reaches every host in the network

d)

an address that reaches every host inside a local subnet

24.

Which statement is true about MAC addresses?

a)

A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN

b)

MAC addresses are implemented by software

c)

The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI

d)

The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations

25.

What are the two sizes (minimum and expected maximum) of an Ethernet frame? (Choose two.)

a)

64 bytes

b)

1024 bytes

c)

1518 bytes

d)

128 bytes

e)

56 bytes

26.

Which two functions or operations are performed by the MAC sublayer?

(Choose two.)

a)

It handles communication between upper and lower layers

b)

It adds a header and trailer to form an OSI Layer 2 PDU

c)

It is responsible for Media Access Control

d)

It adds control information to network protocol layer data

e)

It performs the function of NIC driver software.

27.

Which OSI layer sends segments to be encapsulated in an IPv4 or IPv6 packet?

a)

data link layer

b)

network layer

c)

transport laver

d)

session layer

28.

Which layer is responsible for taking an IP packet and preparing it for transmission over the communications medium?

a)

physical layer

b)

network layer

c)

data link layer

d)

transport layer

29.

What is the term for splitting up an IP packet when forwarding it from one medium to another medium with a smaller MTU?

a)

encapsulation

b)

fragmentation

c)

segmentation

d)

serialization

30.

Which delivery method does not guarantee that the packet will be delivered fully without errors?

a)

connectionless

b)

best effort

c)

media independent

31.

What are the two most commonly referenced fields in an IPv4 packet header that indicate where the packet is coming from and where it is going? (Choose two.)

a)

destination IP address

b)

protocol

c)

Time to Live

d)

source IP address

e)

Differentiated Services (DS)

32.

Which statement is correct about IPv4 packet header fields?

a)

The source and destination IPv4 addresses remain the same while travelling

from source to destination

b)

The Time to Live field is used to determine the priority of each packet

c)

The Total Length and Header Checksum fields are used to reorder a fragmented packet

d)

The Version field identifies the next level protoco

33.

Which field is used to detect corruption in the IPv4 header?

a)

Header Checksum

b)

Time to Live

c)

Protocol

d)

Differentiated Services (DS)

34.

Which field includes common values such as ICMP (1), TCP (6), and UDP (17)?

a)

Header Checksum

b)

Time to Live

c)

Protocol

d)

Differentiated Services (DS)

35.

Which three options are major issues associated with IPv4? (Choose three.)

a)

IP address depletion

b)

increased network complexity and Internet routing table expansion

c)

Connessioni sempre attive

d)

lack of end-to-end connectivity

global and political boundaries

e)

too many IPv4 addresses available

36.

Which two options are improvements provided by IPv6 as compared to IPv4?

(Choose two.)

a)

header supports additional felds for complex packets

b)

increased the IP address space

c)

standardizes the use of NAT

d)

supports class-based networks

e)

uses a simpler header to provide improved packet handling

37.

Which is true of the IPv6 header?

a)

it consists of 20 octets

b)

it consists of 40 octets

c)

it contains 8 header fields

d)

it contains 12 header fields

38.

Which is true of the IPv6 packet header?

a)

The Hop Limit field replaces the IPv4 Time to Live field

b)

The Source and Destination IPv6 addresses change while travelling from

source to destination

c)

The Time to Live field replaces the DiffServ field

d)

The Version field identifies the next header

39.

Which statement about host forwarding decisions is true?

a)

A host cannot ping itself

b)

A remote destination host is on the same local network as the sending host

c)

Local hosts can reach each other without the need of a router

d)

Routing is enabled on switches to discover the best path to a destination

40.

Which default gateway statement is true?

a)

A default gateway is required to send packets to other hosts on the local

network

b)

The default gateway address is the IP address of a switch on a remote

network

c)

The default gateway address is the IP address of the router on the local

network

d)

Traffic can only be forwarded outside the local network if there is no default gateway

41.

Which two commands could be entered on a Windows host to view its IPV4 and IPv6 routing table? (Choose two.)

a)

netroute -I

b)

netstat -r

c)

print route

d)

route print

e)

print net

42.

What is the command used on a Cisco IOS router to view the routing table?

a)

netstart -r

b)

route print

c)

show ip route

d)

show routing table

43.

What does a code of "O" indicate next to a route in the routing table?

a)

a directly connected route

b)

a route with an administrative distance of 0

c)

a gateway of last resort



d)

a route learned dynamically from OSPF

44.

This type of route is also known as a gateway of last resort.

a)

static route

b)

remote route

c)

default route

d)

directly connected route

45.

Which is a characteristic of static routes?

a)

They are manually configured.

b)

They are advertised to directly connected neighbors.

c)

They are appropriate when there are many redundant links.

d)

They automatically adjust to a change in network topology.

46.

True or False? A router can be configured with a combination of both static routes and a dynamic routing protocol.

a)

true

b)

false

47.

Which command can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table?

a)

tracert

b)

netstat -r

c)

show ip route

d)

netstat-s

48.

What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

a)

source and destination MAC

b)

source and destination IP address

c)

source and destination application protocol

d)

source and destination port number

49.

How does the network layer use the MTU value?

a)

The network layer depends on the data link layer to set the MTU, and adjusts the speed of transmission to accommodate it

b)

The MTU is passed to the network layer by the data link layer

c)

The network layer depends on the higher level layers to determine the MTU

d)

To increase speed of delivery, the network layer ignores the MTU

50.

Which characteristic describes an IPv6 enhancement over IPv4?

a)

Both IPv4 and IPv6 support authentication, but only IPv6 supports privacy capabilities

b)

The IPv6 address space is four times bigger than the IPv4 address space

c)

IPv6 addresses are based on 128-bit flat addressing as opposed to IPV4 which is based on 32-bit hierarchical addressing

d)

The IPv6 header is simpler than the IPvA header is, which improves packet

handling.

51.

Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of IPv4?

a)

IPvA has a 32-bit address space

b)

AIl Pv4 addresses are assignable to hosts

c)

An IPv4 header has fewer fields than an IPv6 header has

d)

IPvA natively supports IPsec

52.

When a router receives a packet, what information must be examined in order for the packet to be forwarded to a remote destination?

a)

source MAC address

b)

destination MAC address

c)

source IP address

d)

destination IP address

53.

A computer has to send a packet to a destination host in the same LAN. How will the packet be sent?

a)

The packet will be sent to the default gateway first, and then, depending on the response from the gateway, it may be sent to the destination host

b)

The packet will first be sent to the default gateway, and then from the default gateway it will be sent directly to the destination host

c)

The packet will be sent directly to the destination host

d)

The packet will be sent only to the default gateway

54.

Which IPv4 address can a host use to ping the loopback interface?

a)

127.0.0.0

b)

126.0.0.1

c)

127.0.0.1

d)

126.0.0.0

55.

When a connectionless protocol is in use at a lower layer of the OSI model, how is missing data detected and retransmitted if necessary?

a)

Network layer IP protocols manage the communication sessions if connection-oriented transport services are not available

b)

Upper-layer connection-oriented protocols keep track of the data received and can request retransmission from the upper- level protocols on the sending host

c)

The best-effort delivery process guarantees that all packets that are sent are received

d)

Connectionless acknowledgements are used to request retransmission

56.

What was the reason for the creation and implementation of IPv6?

a)

to relieve IPv4 address depletion

b)

to make reading a 32-bit address easier

c)

to allow NAT support for private addressing

d)

to provide more address space in the Internet Names Registry

57.

Which information is used by routers to forward a data packet toward its destination?

a)

destination data-link address

b)

destination IP address

c)

source IP address

d)

source data-link address

58.

Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its transmission?

a)

Flag

b)

Packet Length

c)

Time-to-Live

d)

Destination Address

59.

Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its transmission?

a)

Flag

b)

Packet Length

c)

Time-to-Live

d)

Destination Address

60.

Which field in an IPv6 packet is used by the router to determine if a packet has expired and should be dropped?

a)

Address Unreachable

b)

TTL



c)

No Route to Destination



d)

Hop Limit