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APES Review Units 1-5

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 3hrs 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. What is the best description of an ecosystem?

a)

A. Biotic and Abiotic factors interacting.

b)

B. All interspecies interactions.

c)

C. The populations of all organisms in a given area interacting.

d)

D. The interactions of plants and animals in a given area.

2.

2. A scientist wants to create a diagram showing all of the complex interactions between species living in a local forest preserve, which type would be the most appropriate?

a)

A. Energy pyramid

b)

B. Food pyramid

c)

C. Food web

d)

D. Food chain

3.

4. As energy moves within an ecosystem, how is the majority of it lost?

a)

A. Cellular respiration

b)

B. Light

c)

C. Metabolism

d)

D. Heat loss

4.

5. Net Primary Productivity (NPP) is:

a)

A. The total amount of energy stored by producers.

b)

B. The potential energy that producers can make.

c)

C. The total amount of energy from the sun.

d)

D. The total amount of energy available.

5.

7. The most abundant element in Earth's atmosphere is

a)

A. Water

b)

B. Nitrogen

c)

C. Carbon

d)

D. Oxygen

6.

8. A group of living organisms play a large role in the nitrogen cycle. Which group do they belong to?

a)

A. Producers

b)

B. Detritivores

c)

C. Virus

d)

D. Bacteria

7.

9. Humans have altered the phosphorus cycle by

a)

A. Clear-cutting forests.

b)

B. Burning fossil fuels

c)

C. Damming rivers for hydroelectric power.

d)

D. Using fertilizers.

8.

12. Earth's terrestrial biome with the greatest biodiversity is

a)

A. Deserts

b)

B. Savannahs

c)

C. Rainforests

d)

D. Grasslands

9.

13. A scientist is tracking reindeer migrations and notices that they spend a significant amount of time on the permafrost. What type of biome are they in?

a)

A. Chaparral

b)

B. Tundra

c)

C. Grasslands

d)

D. Forest

10.

15. An ecologist is writing up documentation to convince developers to leave a wetland as it is. What fact is inaccurate about the benefits of wetlands?

a)

A. Wetlands filter pollutants out of the water.

b)

B. Wetlands are a breeding site for fish and birds.

c)

C. Wetlands are ideal for grazing cattle and other livestock.

d)

D. Wetlands are areas of high primary productivity.

11.

What properties will define a biome? Choose all correct

a)

temperature

b)

precipitation

c)

country

d)

wildlife

12.

In the carbon cycle, something that gives off carbon would be called a what?

a)

a sink

b)

a source

c)

a reseivoir

d)

deposit

13.

Reorder the following from bottom of the food chain to top 1 - lowest 5 - highest

a)

primary producer

b)

primary consumer

c)

secondary consumer

d)

tertiary consumer

e)

top predator

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
14.

The general enjoyment of a park that you can take a hike, swim or boat in, would fall under the category of which ecosystem service?

a)

Provisioning

b)

Supporting

c)

Cultural

d)

Regulating

15.

The wood you could chop down and sell, or the fish you could catch and sell, would fall under the category of which ecosystem service?

a)

Provisioning

b)

Supporting

c)

Cultural

d)

Regulating

16.

The bees pollinating crops or trees providing oxygen would fall under the category of which ecosystem service?

a)

Provisioning

b)

Supporting

c)

Cultural

d)

Regulating

17.

If an island is closer to the mainland, how will this impact the biodiversity?

a)

There will be a higher level of biodiversity here than an island that is further away.

b)

There will be a lower level of biodiversity here than an island that is further away.

c)

There will be no difference in biodiversity on islands based on distance to mainland.

18.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that impacts ecological tolerance?

a)

Temperature

b)

pH

c)

Humidity

d)

Level of biodiversity

19.

What is ecological succession?

a)

A set of environmental conditions within which an organism can best survive

b)

An organism's ability to adapt to its environment

c)

A peak community where the organisms are stable

d)

The process of change in the species structure of an ecological community over time

20.

What is ecological succession?

a)

A set of environmental conditions within which an organism can best survive

b)

An organism's ability to adapt to its environment

c)

A peak community where the organisms are stable

d)

The process of change in the species structure of an ecological community over time

21.

What stage of ecological succession is being shown?

a)

Primary succession

b)

Secondary succession

c)

Tertiary succession

d)

Climax community

22.

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a natural disruption to an ecosystem?

a)

Volcanic eruption

b)

Hurricane

c)

Air pollution

d)

Earthquake

23.

In a food web, what is another term for "top predator"?

a)

Tertiary consumer

b)

Climax consumer

c)

Parasite

d)

Apex predator

24.

Which of the following is NOT a type of ecosystem service?

a)

Cultural

b)

Regulating

c)

Recreational

d)

Provisional

25.
Have wide tolerance range; have ability to live in a wide array of habitats or use a wide array of resources
a)
Specialist
b)
Generalist
26.
Competitive interactions among members of the same species
a)
Intraspecific
b)
Interspecific
27.
This picture illustrates which concept?
a)
Ecological Succession
b)
Plant growth
c)
Different forest types
d)
None of these
28.
The _____________ succesion is the succession wich start after a natural desaster, like fire.
a)
primary 
b)
secondary 
c)
tertiary 
d)
quaternary 
29.
The number and abundance of species in a biological community is called ____.
a)
Species Diversity
b)
Genetic Diversity
c)
Ecosystem Diversity
d)
Biomass
30.
Which organisms are affected most by biological magnification?
a)
Algae
b)
Plants
c)
Wolves
d)
Mice
31.
What type of growth is represented in this graph?
a)
exponential
b)
logistics
c)
a good kind
d)
representative
32.

Which soil has 40% sand, 30% silt, and 30% clay?

a)

Loam

b)

Clay Loam

c)

Sandy Clay Loam

d)

Sandy Clay

33.

Larger pore spaces generally create soils with

a)

high permeability.

b)

low permeability.

34.
Which soil component has the least capacity for holding water?
a)
silt
b)
clay
c)
sand
d)
humus
35.

In which atmospheric layer do meteors burn up in?

a)

Mesosphere

b)

Exosphere

c)

Stratosphere

d)

Thermosphere

36.

The SECOND most common gas in our atmosphere is ____.

a)

N

b)

O

c)

Ne

d)

Ar

37.

Which is a direct result of the Coriolis Effect?

a)

Upwellings

b)

tides

c)

ocean conveyor belt

d)

Tsunami

e)

Ocean gyres

38.

Which two factors allow earth to experience four distinct seasons?

a)

latitude & solar intensity

b)

tilt of axis & rotation of axis

c)

tilt of axis & rotation around sun

d)

distance from sun & place in orbit around sun

39.

What is the correct sequence of layers of the earth's atmosphere from earth's surface to space?

a)

troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere.

b)

mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere, troposphere.

c)

troposphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere.

d)

stratosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, thermosphere.

40.
This is the side of the mountain that is often drier and warmer.
a)
Leeward Side
b)
Wet Lapse Rate
c)
Windward Side
d)
Wild Side
41.
What is "upwelling"?
a)
when wind near a shore pushes surface water away, nutrient rich cold water rises from the depths
b)
water rises from springs at the bottom of lakes
c)
it is when cold water sinks in the Norwegian Sea
d)
It is when the Coriolis effect makes currents go around in a circle
42.
The Coriolis Effect is caused by
a)
Earth rotating around the sun
b)
Earth rotating on its axis
c)
The tides
d)
Gravity
43.

Observe this diagram of a plate boundary. One statement BEST describes what is happening. It is that

a)

the oceanic crust is melting.

b)

the denser ceanic crust is subducting under the less dense oceanic crust

c)

volcanic islands are forming.

d)

the tectonic plates are moving away from each other.

44.
Which is the correct order of soil horizons starting at the surface?
a)
A, B, E,C, O
b)
O, A, B, C, E
c)
O, E, A, B, C
d)
O, A, E, B, C
45.

A divergent boundary occurs when plates ....

a)

Pull apart

b)

Come together

c)

Slide past each other

d)

subducting

46.

What type of event will occur at this boundary?

a)

Earthquake

b)

Volcano Eruption

c)

Tornado

d)

Mountain Building

47.

The type of plate boundary where two plates come together is a .....

a)

Convergent Boundary

b)

Divergent Boundary

c)

Transform Boundary

d)

Plate Boundary

48.
Which is the correct order of the convection cells starting from the equator?
a)
polar, ferrell, hadley
b)
ferrell, hadley, polar
c)
polar, hadley, ferrell
d)
hadley, ferrell, polar
49.

Which of the following is the largest carbon sink?

a)

Atmosphere

b)

Plants

c)

Animals

d)

Ocean

50.

Which of the following would NOT lead to a decrease in TFR?

a)

Increased access to birth control

b)

Increased women's rights

c)

Increased access to education

d)

Improved drinking water

51.

What type of population growth is being shown in this population pyramid?

a)

Rapid growth

b)

Stable growth

c)

Declining growth

52.

Why does the Earth have seasons?

a)

Tilt of the Earth on its axis

b)

Earth's shape

c)

Earth's rotation around the Sun

d)

Earth's rotation on its own axis

53.

ENSO events take place in which ocean basin?

a)

Atlantic

b)

Indian

c)

Pacific

d)

Arctic

54.

What is the shortest day of the year?

a)

Summer solstice

b)

Winter solstice

c)

Spring equinox

d)

Fall equinox

55.

Which wind system is closest to the equator?

a)

Doldrums

b)

Westerlies

c)

Polar easterlies

d)

Trade winds

56.

In which layer of the atmosphere does weather take place?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

57.

What type of plate boundary is most likely to cause the formation of a new landform?

a)

Convergent

b)

Subduction

c)

Divergent

d)

Transform

58.
The geological layer, consisting of underground caverns and porous layers of sand, gravel, or bedrock, where groundwater flows, is called
a)
The zone of saturation
b)
Recharge point
c)
Aquifer
d)
bedrock
59.
All of the land that drains into a particular body of water is called a(n):
a)
watershed
b)
bedrock
c)
island
d)
aquifer
60.

Because global fisheries have dramatically seen a reduction in fish numbers, this technique has been used recently to supplement that loss.

a)

monocropping

b)

IPM

c)

contour farming

d)

aquaculture

61.

Which of the following would be an environmental impact of high density animal farming?

a)

bad smells

b)

livestock can escape

c)

water pollution due to runoff

d)

improvement of feeding efficiency

62.

One of the advantages to using genetically modified organisms (GMOs) is

a)

reduce the need for pesticides

b)

they are not regulated by the government

c)

the concern about safety to consume

d)

they can cause food allergies

63.

When roots become saturated with water due to over-irrigation, it causes death in plant roots. This is called:

a)

salinization

b)

desertification

c)

agroforestry

d)

waterlogging

64.

Over use of farmland can cause a depletion in soil nutrients and can lead to

a)

waterlogging

b)

desertification

c)

irrigation

d)

intercropping

65.

New technology and farming methods began as a result of the _____________ revolution

a)

red

b)

blue

c)

yellow

d)

green

66.

When irrigation water evaporates, salts are left behind on the soil surface and can cause plant death or lead to

a)

soil salinization

b)

desertification

c)

waterlogging

d)

monocropping

67.

What is the definition of the tragedy of the commons?

a)

When humans overuse a natural resource

b)

When the short-term, positive effects go to the individual, while the long-term, negative effects are spread out to the group

c)

When humans act selfishly, thinking of their own self-interest

d)

When plants and animals compete for space, resources, and/or food

68.

Which of the following are both examples of the tragedy of the commons?

a)

Overfishing and earthquakes

b)

Flooding and tsunamis

c)

Pollution and overpopulation

d)

Super-germs and virus outbreaks

69.

Which of the following is an example of a solution to the tragedy of the commons?

a)

Improving literacy among urban populations

b)

Raising tax rates for large corporations

c)

Inventing stronger antibiotics

d)

Passing a law to set limits for fishermen

70.

What are considered "the commons"

a)

Common house hold items like knifes, spoons, and forks.

b)

A renewable resource owned by no one and available for use by anyone at little or no charge

c)

A field where college students can sit outside in between classes

71.

In the movie "The Lorax" what was considered the commons?

a)

The barbaloo bears

b)

The truffula trees

c)

The Once-ler

72.

What is overgrazing?

a)

When cows eat so much they get sick and throw up

b)

When a section of land is used for extended periods of time, or without sufficient recovery periods.

c)

When horses eat too much grass

73.

What is one negative consequence oversfishing can lead to?

a)

Fish can grow two heads

b)

Fish species can adapt in order to escape fishermen

c)

Fish species can either become depleted or very underpopulated in that given area.

74.

Clearcutting is

a)

A timber harvesting practice where all trees larger than 20 feet tall are cut harvested.

b)

When logging companies plant new saplings in an area bigger than 1 hectare.

c)

A timber harvesting practice where all of the trees in a given area are harvested at the same time.

d)

When forestry services clear out the underbrush in a given area.

75.

All the clearcutting facts below are true. Which are benefits or pros of clearcutting?

a)

Clearcutting generates more consistent and higher rates of return for the logging companies and its investors

b)

Consumer timber/lumber prices are kept low and predictable when clearcutting is used, since savings are passed on to consumers.

c)

Clearcutting destroys plant life and animal habitats.

d)

Clearcutting is aesthetically unappealing.

76.

Which of the following agricultural inputs were the most recent technological innovations employed in less developed countries during the Green Revolution?

a)

Metal plows and harvesting equipment

b)

Irrigated farm fields

c)

Seed hybrids and animal breeds

d)

Chemical fertilizers and pesticides

e)

Terracing in highland terrain

77.

1. What is the Green Revolution?

a)

a large increase in crop production in developing countries achieved by the use of fertilizers.

b)

a large decrease in crop production in developing countries achieved by the use of fertilizers.

c)

Biotechnology production.

d)

I don’t even know.

78.

4. According to the GRAPH, did India's GRAIN production increase or decrease?

a)

YES India's GRAIN production increased.

b)

NO India's GRAIN production decreased.

c)

NEITHER India's GRAIN production increased or decreased.

79.

6. What biotechnology techniques were used during The Green Revolution?

a)

Chemical fertilizers.

b)

Chemical fertilizers, pesticides AND plant genetics.

c)

pesticides.

d)

plant genetics.

80.

An insect population in an agricultural field is affected by monthly applications of a pesticide, as shown in the graph below. A likely cause of the overall increase in the insect population over time is...

a)

a decrease in the moisture content of the soil

b)

an increase in soil salinity

c)

the survival of increasing numbers of resistant insects

d)

an increase in the population of insect predators

81.

environmental advantage of no-till agriculture

a)

less erosion

b)

decrease in labor costs

c)

increased use of herbicides and pesticides

d)

increased need for irrigation

82.

"Roundup ready" GM crops are genetically modified to

a)

be resistant to Roundup, a glyphosate herbicide

b)

resist freezing temperatures

c)

reproduce quickly and enable farmers to save seeds

d)

be easier to harvest

83.
Cross-breeding is a
a)
relatively old method of artificial selection
b)
new modern technique to blend multiple plants
c)
technique that takes decades to occur
d)
process that has produced limited benefits
84.
A farmer discovers pests have become resistant the the atrazine she's been using so she must use larger, more frequent doses.  This is known as 
a)
the pesticide treadmill
b)
both an acute and a chronic effect
c)
a synergistic effect
d)
an antagonistic effect
85.
Which would NOT be a reason to use GM crops?
a)
Using GM crops can increase crop yields.
b)
Using GM crops can reduce use of insecticide sprays.
c)
Using GM crops may be able to feed more people faster.
d)
Using GM crops can increase pesticide resistance in pests.
86.

This is the picture of __________ irrigation method

a)

A) Drip

b)

B) Sprinkle

c)

C) Surface

87.

The most expensive but most efficient method of irrigation is

a)

Sprinkler

b)

surface

c)

Drip

d)

Basin

88.

Which of the following is a commercially used method for harvesting trees and is most likely to lead to a fragmented landscape with serious impacts on biodiversity?

a)

Selective cutting

b)

Clear-cutting

c)

Shelter-wood cutting

d)

Slash and burn clearing

89.

This type of irrigation uses a large system of sprinklers that must be manually moved from field to field and has very large evaporative losses.

a)

Drip Irrigation

b)

Flood irrigation

c)

Furrow irrigation

d)

Spray irrigation

90.

All of these are soil conservation methods except

a)

no-till farming.

b)

contour plowing.

c)

building terraces.

d)

monocropping.

91.
Scientists have inserted a gene for the production of vitamin A into rice.  This practice of changing the genetic structure of agricultural products to improve desirable traits is known as
a)
Genetic Engineering.
b)
Transmodification.
c)
Selective Breeding.
d)
Natural Selection.
92.

Which IPM control relies on predation and parasitism?

a)

Biological Control

b)

Mechanical Control

c)

Cultural Control

d)

Genetic Control

93.

Which of the following is a downside of GM crops? Select all that apply.

a)

less biodiversity

b)

can better withstand extreme weather events

c)

possible harm to beneficial insects

d)

require less water and fertilizer

e)

higher crop yields

94.

Which of the following is an example of a mechanical pest management strategy?

a)

bringing in natural predators of the pest

b)

spraying insecticide

c)

filling up cracks in a building's exterior

95.

Which of the following is a benefit of CAFOs?

a)

decreased predation

b)

increased disease spread

c)

increased cost to consumer

d)

better animal welfare

96.

What does CAFO stand for?

a)

Concentrated Animal Feeding Operation

b)

Community Animal Feeding Operation

c)

Community Agricultural Food Operation

d)

Concentrated Agricultural Federal Opportunities

97.

Why are cows fed corn in CAFOs?

a)

It is cheap and accelerates growth

b)

It prevents bacterial growth

c)

It is easily dried and stored

d)

Cows digest corn easily

98.

Cows in CAFOs require more antibiotics because

a)

they eat corn and stand in their own wastes

b)

they are densely packed

c)

the breed of cattle used in CAFOs tend to be weaker

d)

they are older than grass fed beef

99.

Producing meat always requires more land than a vegetarian diet because

a)

of the 10% rule

b)

cows are larger than grasses

c)

CAFOs take up land

d)

there are more calories in a steak than a salad

100.

Compared with people in developing countries, people in industrialized countries are more likely to eat…

a)

Beef

b)

Corn

c)

Rice

d)

Beans

101.
What is the relationship between a country's wealth and the amount of meat eaten per person?
a)
Wealthier countries eat more meat
b)
Wealthier countries eat less meat
c)
There is no relationship between the two.
102.

How are birds raised and slaugtered in 2008 different then 1950?

a)

The chickens are made smaller and slaughtered sooner.

b)

The chickens are made bigger and slaughtered later.

c)

The chickens are made smaller and slaughtered later.

d)

The chickens are made bigger and slaughtered sooner.

e)

None of the above

103.

What is the consequence of growing larger chickens?

a)

they have more health issues

b)

the meat has less flavor

c)

the process is less efficient

d)

they live longer

104.

Which type of fishing has high rates of bycatch and highly destructive of benthic communities.

a)

Pole Fishing

b)

Long Line Fishing

c)

Purse Seining

d)

Trawling

105.

What type of fishing has baited hooks are attached to a single fishing line that trails behind a ship

a)

Pole Fishing

b)

Long Line Fishing

c)

Purse Seining

d)

Trawling

106.

Acid mine drainage is the result of

a)

ash and air debris creating acid rain

b)

boulders and debris blocking the flow of rivers/streams

c)

toxins from water in mines drain into streams

d)

minerals from mining being left behind creating pollution

107.
What is the name of solid waste that was produced during mining?
a)
Tailings
b)
Rocks 
c)
Minerals 
d)
Deposits
108.
The _____ sets standards to minimize the surface effects of coal mining on the environment.
a)
Clean Water Act
b)
Comprehensive Response Compensation and Liability Act (1980)
c)
Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977
d)
Safe Drinking Water Act
109.

Which of the following is NOT environmental impacts of mining?

a)

Destroys natural communities over large areas.

b)

Acid drainage pollutes groundwater.

c)

Creates minimal dust.

d)

Causes erosion

110.
Which of the following is NOT a risk of mountaintop removal?
a)
dust/air pollution
b)
acid mine drainage
c)
boulders in houses
d)
men getting stuck in a mine
111.
Which is a negative effect of urban sprawl?
a)
new, affordable homes
b)
more farmland
c)
destruction of habitats
d)
more people pass their geography quiz
112.

How has Covid-19 helped to reduce some of the negative effects of urban sprawl?

a)

Covid-19 has encouraged people to shop online, which reduces the need for physical stores and helps to reduce pollution.

b)

The pandemic has caused a shift in public opinion, leading to more support for green initiatives and sustainable development.

c)

More people have switched to working from home, which has reduced the time taken to commute to work and the traffic issues and health problems that come with it

d)

The economic downturn has led to fewer people moving to urban areas, reducing the strain on infrastructure and services.

113.

What law regulates water pollution, including sewage systems?

a)

Pollution Control Act

b)

The Clean Water Act

c)

Safe Drinking Water Act

114.

Philadelphia is a relatively small city of 142 square miles. Over time, the urban area surrounding it expanded to 1800 square miles.



What is the name of this process?

a)

urban crawl

b)

urban sprawl

c)

rural extension

d)

urban stretch

115.

An ecological footprint is

a)

The amount of wilderness available on the earth

b)

The amount of biologically productive land and water a person uses

c)

A measure of the earth's biological capacity

d)

A measure of a person's contribution to creating a sustainable environment

116.

This method of forestry management reduces the probability of severe impacts from natural fires

a)

clearcutting

b)

selective cutting

c)

controlled burning

d)

reforestation