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Cybersecurity Quiz

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The fraudulent practice of sending emails claiming to be from reputable companies in order to induce individuals to reveal personal information, such as passwords and credit card numbers, is also known as ____.

a)

phishing

b)

white hat hacking

c)

instant messaging

d)

surfing

2.

When thieves steal your personal information to take over or open new accounts, file fake tax returns, rent or buy properties, or do other criminal things in your name, you have been a victim of identity ____.

a)

theft

b)

spamming

c)

encryption

d)

surfing

3.

Denial of access or of misusing websites or computer networks is known as _____.

a)

hacking

b)

spoofing

c)

skipping

d)

spyware

4.

A type of malicious software that threatens to publish the victim's information or block access to it unless a fee is paid is called ____.

a)

ransomware

b)

cryptoware

c)

spyware

d)

trojan

5.

After an intrusion has occurred and the intruder has been removed from the system, the next step is to ____.

a)

recover and restore functionality

b)

deploy new countermeasures

c)

update the security policy

d)

delete all logs regarding the incident

6.

An important aspect of evidence gathering is _____.

a)

backing up all log files

b)

monitoring user access to compromised systems

c)

purging transaction logs

d)

restoring damaged data from backup media

7.

The network administrator has recently discovered information on a computer drive that might indicate evidence of illegal activity. To perform forensic activities on the disk to see what kind of information it contains, the first step is to _____.

a)

make a bit-level copy of the disk

b)

fire the employee who uses the computer

c)

obtain a search warrant

d)

run forensic tools to examine the hard drive contents

8.

A security incident is best described as ____.

a)

violation of a company security policy

b)

inappropriate web surfing

c)

activity by tailgating

d)

compromise of local hard drive resources

9.

It would be most acceptable for an organization to accept a risk if the likelihood of a risk is _____ and the impact is _____.

a)

low and the impact is extremely low

b)

low and the impact is extremely high

c)

high and the impact is extremely low

d)

high and the impact is extremely high

10.

A hacker successfully exploits a vulnerability in a computer or device and gains access to its files and network. This is called a/an _____.

a)

breach

b)

spoof

c)

attack

d)

passport

11.

_____ is an umbrella term that describes all forms of malicious software designed to wreak havoc on a computer such as viruses, trojans, worms, and ransomware.

a)

malware

b)

spyware

c)

morphware

d)

mountware

12.

A piece of malware included within another program that often allows a hacker to gain remote access to a computer is called a/an _____.

a)

trojan horse

b)

ransomware

c)

virus

d)

worm

13.

An attack that aims to make a service such as a website unusable by "flooding" it with malicious traffic or data from multiple sources is called ________.

a)

Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)

b)

a virus

c)

ransomware

d)

phishing

14.

To convert 8750 kilobytes to megabytes, one would _____.

a)

Divide 8750 by 1024.

b)

Multiply 8750 by 1000.

c)

Multiply 8750 by 1024.

d)

Divide 8750 by 1000.

15.

A cipher where each letter represents a different letter is called a ________ cipher.

a)

substitution

b)

static

c)

polyalphabetic

d)

monolithic

16.

_____ cipher rearranges the letters in the message.

a)

transposition

b)

monolithic

c)

substitution

d)

dynamic

17.

One of the oldest and simplest forms of encrypting a message is a substitution cipher known as ________.

a)

Caesar

b)

Two-Square

c)

Beaufort

d)

Running Key

18.

When creating a secret message, the use of a cipher to create that message is called ________.

a)

cryptography

b)

steganography

c)

cartography

d)

stenography

19.

Making small, imperceptible changes to images to mark them in a manner that is invisible to the unaided eye is an example of ________.

a)

steganography

b)

cryptography

c)

polyalphabetic changes

d)

monolithic changes

20.

In cryptography, when a cipher is only used one time, it is known as ________.

a)

One Time Pass code

b)

Playfair

c)

Railfence

d)

ROT13

21.

What encryption process uses the same key for encryption and decryption? _____

a)

symmetric

b)

transposition

c)

asymmetric

d)

block

22.

Data encryption is the process of _____.

a)

translating data into secret codes to safeguard it

b)

unscrambling coded data into its original form

c)

destroying data that is no longer needed

d)

restricting data access to individuals with appropriate passwords

23.

A user selects a news article hyperlink and accidentally installs malware. This is known as _____.

a)

clickjacking

b)

pharming

c)

injection attack

d)

buffer overflow

24.

An attack in which the password is compared against a list of words is called a/an _____ attack.

a)

dictionary

b)

injection

c)

known plaintext

d)

static

25.

A computer was originally configured to launch the company’s website when a web browser was accessed, but the web browser is now being automatically redirected to a malicious website. A technician should check the _____ to see if it was modified.

a)

proxy server configuration

b)

security level for the internet

c)

advanced privacy settings

d)

general browsing history

26.

Running outdated or older software increases the chances of _____.

a)

exploitable vulnerabilities

b)

system overheating

c)

system crashing

d)

not being able to upgrade hardware

27.

To protect user accounts and web application accounts, the best practice is to _____.

a)

use different passwords for different accounts

b)

change password every 15 days

c)

use at least six characters for each account

d)

use uppercase and lowercase letters

28.

To reduce the risk of email exploitation attacks, _____ should never be allowed to the network.

a)

.exe

b)

.doc/.docx

c)

.zip

d)

.txt

29.

An anti-virus, anti-malware scanner operates by searching for _____.

a)

signatures of known threats

b)

trojans

c)

worms

d)

executables in external email

30.

_____ should be installed on a system to detect malicious code and help prevent theft or corruption of information.

a)

anti-virus software

b)

firewall hardware

c)

IDS hardware

d)

IPS software

31.

To prevent a threat from spreading throughout the network, _____.

a)

remove the compromised computer from the network

b)

restart the computer and log in to the network

c)

reimage the computer

d)

shut down the computer

32.

If a computer appears to be infected, the network administrator should first _____.

a)

run an antivirus scan with the latest virus definitions

b)

restart the computer immediately

c)

run an antivirus scan upon bootup

d)

shut down the computer and reimage the drive

33.

Virus files contain bits of code that, when broken down, display certain patterns called _____.

a)

signatures

b)

autographs

c)

images

d)

portfolios

34.

An incoming employee is given the profile that has been pre-established for the job they have been hired to fill. This is called _______.

a)

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

b)

Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

c)

Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

d)

Unrestricted Access Control (UAC)

35.

_____ is the least restrictive access control.

a)

Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

b)

Role-Based User Account (RBUA)

c)

Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

d)

User Account Control (UAC)

36.

When someone is assigned only the rights and privileges necessary to do his/her job, this is referred to as _____.

a)

least privilege

b)

controlled access

c)

administrator privilege

d)

super user

37.

A zero day exploit is a vulnerability that _____.

a)

has no known fix yet

b)

does not get used

c)

is patched immediately

d)

remains undetected

38.

A client receives an email asking to verify credit card information. The client's best response is to _______.

a)

use the contact information on the back of the credit card and call the credit card company

b)

respond to the email, asking for more information to clarify the request

c)

use the contact information in the email and call the credit card company

d)

do exactly what the email asks them to do

39.

A ping of death attack, to mitigate the attack, the best response is to _______.

a)

block the ICMP protocol at the firewall

b)

disconnect the server from the network

c)

unplug the power from the server

d)

reboot the server to stop the attack

40.

A physical configuration that allows only one person access at a time is called a _______ trap.

a)

man

b)

person

c)

animal

d)

verification

41.

Maintaining the latest versions of anti-virus software, anti-spyware, and anti-malware is _____.

a)

part of a regular preventive maintenance program

b)

not necessary as all programs automatically update

c)

performed annually by the system administrator

d)

the first steps after installation

42.

To help mitigate exploits after a new system installation, the network system administrator should _______.

a)

disable any non-essential services

b)

ensure strong passwords are reset

c)

reboot and then backup the network

d)

disconnect the system from the internet

43.

An existing host system that has been secured should be _____.

a)

should be validated periodically according to company security policy

b)

should be checked annually for updates to operating systems

c)

can have anti-virus software removed to improve performance

d)

can be left alone because once it is secured, it needs nothing else

44.

When a software company releases fixes for specific security vulnerabilities and/or bugs in their program, it is known as a _____.

a)

firmware update

b)

patch

c)

feature update

d)

program upgrade

45.

When a software update is released, it should be _____.

a)

tested before being installed companywide

b)

installed immediately to get the new features

c)

ignored if the OS is functioning properly

d)

installed during non-peak hours

46.

A wireless router manufacturer has released a firmware update and a client installed it. Now the client's wireless network is not visible when attempting to connect to it. The most likely cause is that the _____.

a)

router settings were reset to the default

b)

wireless adapter in the laptop is disabled

c)

connection to the ISP is down

d)

client changed the SSID

47.

Data in the cloud is backed up and stored across multiple servers in the world. This is an example of _____.

a)

data redundancy

b)

decreased data capacity

c)

increased data capacity

d)

data degradation

48.

An unknown person closely following an authorized person into a limited access secure area is called _____.

a)

tailgating

b)

sharing

c)

following

d)

cruising

49.

Unauthorized viewing of a computer display to gain information is referred to as shoulder _____.

a)

surfing

b)

watching

c)

peeking

d)

nesting

50.

A whaling attack targets _____.

a)

high-profile employees

b)

the biggest server

c)

the main firewall

d)

large companies

51.

To access the network, the Access Control List in the _____.

a)

firewall

b)

host

c)

system

d)

server

52.

An Access Control List (ACL) can restrict a user or group's ability to _____.

a)

read, write, and execute files

b)

copy, delete, and write files

c)

read, write, and view files

d)

edit, view, and execute files

53.

When creating a directory inside a directory, the new sub-directory _____ the default Access Control List.

a)

inherits

b)

creates

c)

removes

d)

absorbs

54.

Select the most secure password from the list below.

a)

078uhBU*38

b)

hbacon68

c)

qwerty

d)

93niGhkL

55.

The process of verifying the identity of the user is _____.

a)

authentication

b)

checking

c)

authorization

d)

flashing

56.

A combination of two or more authentication techniques is _____ authentication.

a)

multi-factor

b)

user-level

c)

network-level

d)

uni-factor

57.

The process of enforcing policies after the user has been authenticated is _____.

a)

authorization

b)

accounting

c)

authentication

d)

identification

58.

Which of the following is an example of the authentication method, something the user will have?

a)

smart card

b)

PIN

c)

thumbprint

d)

signature

59.

When a user uses one authentication to gain access to all network resources, this is known as ____.

a)

single sign-on

b)

authorization

c)

network login

d)

credentials

60.

A strong password contains ____.

a)

numbers, letters, and special characters

b)

only numbers

c)

only uppercase letters

d)

only lowercase letters

61.

Established ____ methods, such as Secure Sockets Layer (SSL), encode credit card numbers and other information to prevent theft.

a)

encryption

b)

password

c)

programming

d)

digitizing

62.

Iris patterns are an example of ____ recognition.

a)

eye

b)

voice

c)

facial

d)

fingerprint

63.

Keystroke, signature, and voice recognition can be categorized as ____ biometric technology.

a)

behavioral

b)

cognitive

c)

computerized

d)

physical

64.

Which security method analyzes the user's own physical characteristics?

a)

biometrics

b)

firewalls

c)

door access cards

d)

password keys

65.

A security administrator needs to secure the servers located in the data center. A ____ would provide the best physical protection.

a)

biometric

b)

safe

c)

sign-in and sign-out sheet

d)

CCTV

66.

The Human Resource Director would like to implement a biometric time clock at the work site. What method could be used to record employee time and attendances?

a)

fingerprint recognition

b)

video surveillance

c)

faraday cage

d)

sign-in and sign-out sheet

67.

A biometric device is reporting that an authentic user is not recognized. The error is described as a ____.

a)

false negative

b)

false acceptance rate

c)

false positive

d)

crossover error rate

68.

Only ____ should have access to a secure evidence container.

a)

the investigators in the group

b)

the primary investigator

c)

the system administrator

d)

senior-level management

69.

A list of people who have had physical possession of the evidence shows the chain of ________.

a)

custody

b)

officers

c)

users

d)

command

70.

What type of system collects log files that can be used to identify breaches?

a)

intrusion detection

b)

man trap

c)

state machine

d)

digital signatures

71.

Which computer system application in a Windows system can be used to find the list displayed output(s)?

a)

registry

b)

disk management

c)

user document directory

d)

DOS

72.

When verifying that a data device has not been tampered with, which of the following bit-to-bit ratios must be verified?

a)

1:1

b)

2:1

c)

3:1

d)

4:1

73.

What is used to substantiate the integrity of digital evidence with inclusion and exclusion comparisons against known value sets?

a)

Hash Value

b)

Data Format Value

c)

Metadata Value

d)

Data Excluder Value

74.

A procedure that converts plain text to symbols to prevent anyone except the intended recipient from reading the complete message is called ________.

a)

encryption

b)

de-hashing

c)

hashing

d)

de-encryption

75.

To prevent the alteration of digital evidence during collection, who should first document any activity on the computer, devices, or components?

a)

first responders

b)

supervisor

c)

security

d)

CEO

76.

Investigators who have the education, training, and experience to properly analyze sensitive evidence are known as _______.

a)

Certified Digital Forensic

b)

Certified Analog Media

c)

Certified Enforcement

d)

Certified Investigator

77.

Forensic analysis steps include procedure development, evidence assessment, evidence acquisition, evidence examination, documenting, and _______.

a)

reporting

b)

posting

c)

copying

d)

printing

78.

The form that records who, when, and who collected evidence is called _______.

a)

chain of custody

b)

forensic

c)

evidence

d)

timeline

79.

Evidence taken from a crimescene has been bagged, sealed, and labeled. What should the investigator do in order to document every point from the crimescene to the court room?

a)

begin the chain of custody paperwork

b)

make an audio recording of witness statements

c)

analyze digital evidence collected from the scene

d)

record evidence collected from the scene

80.

Evidence collected from a crimescene that is stored or transported should be _______.

a)

secured

b)

opened and checked

c)

video recorded

d)

analyzed