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WorksheetsProjectGo AWSB
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A weighting system is a tool for which area of procurement?
a)
Plan contracting
b)
Request seller responses
c)
Select sellers
d)
Plan purchase and acquisition
2.
Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?
a)
Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials
b)
Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price
c)
Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis
d)
Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive
3.
Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?
a)
Contract plan
b)
Procurement plan
c)
Closure process
d)
Procurement audits
4.
Which of the following is a project constraint?
a)
Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.
b)
The technology to be used is cutting-edge.
c)
Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.
d)
The product is needed in 250 days.
5.
A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?
a)
Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages
b)
Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment
c)
Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives
d)
Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects
6.
Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration"?
a)
Changing project specifications continuously
b)
Elaborate tracking of the project progress
c)
Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system
d)
Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses
7.
What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?
a)
To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations' or the client's overall business objectives.
b)
To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.
c)
To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.
d)
To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.
8.
A project manager is responsible for managing which of the following at the project level?
a)
Methodology
b)
Standards
c)
Constraints
d)
Interdependencies
9.
Company A is launching a new communications satellite system. Resource B was assigned combined projects of design, construction, integration, and launch of the satellite.
Resource B's role is that of a:
a)
Project manager
b)
Portfolio manager
c)
Work breakdown manager
d)
Program manager
10.
Which of the following defines a characteristic of a project?
a)
Repetitive
b)
Unique
c)
No outcome
d)
Permanent
11.
Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling and Closing are called:
a)
process groups
b)
phase gates
c)
knowledge areas
d)
project phases
12.
Which of the following is the definition of a project?
a)
Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a temporary business process or product
b)
Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
c)
Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
d)
Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
13.
The Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide) should be considered as a:
a)
guide to project management processes, tools and techniques.
b)
methodology for managing projects.
c)
guide for project, portfolio and program management.
d)
standard for project, portfolio and program management.
14.
Which of the following is a Process Group?
a)
Scoping
b)
Budgeting
c)
Closing
d)
Quality
15.
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
a)
Strategic plan
b)
Project charter
c)
Project management plan
d)
Service level agreement
16.
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
a)
Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
b)
Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
c)
Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
d)
Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
17.
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
a)
Document analysis
b)
Observations
c)
Product analysis
d)
Expert judgment
18.
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
a)
Independent estimates
b)
Market research
c)
Analytical techniques
d)
Bidder conferences
19.
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
a)
Communication models.
b)
Enterprise environmental factors.
c)
Organizational communications,
d)
Organizational cultures and styles.
20.
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
a)
Expert judgment
b)
Forecasting methods
c)
Earned value management
d)
Analytical techniques
21.
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
a)
Executing
b)
Monitoring and Controlling
c)
Initiating
d)
Planning
22.
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
a)
Control Scope
b)
Define Scope
c)
Plan Scope Management
d)
Collect Requirements
23.
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?
a)
Identify Risks
b)
Control Risks
c)
Plan Risk Management
d)
Plan Risk Responses
24.
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
a)
Plan Schedule Management.
b)
Develop Project Charter.
c)
Develop Schedule.
d)
Plan Scope Management.
25.
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?
a)
Issue log
b)
Change log
c)
Expert judgment
d)
Change requests
26.
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
a)
The project charter.
b)
The stakeholder analysis.
c)
A communication management plan.
d)
A stakeholder register.
27.
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
a)
Cost estimates.
b)
Resource calendars,
c)
The project charter,
d)
The risk register.
28.
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:
a)
Product analysis.
b)
Variance analysis.
c)
Document analysis,
d)
Decomposition.
29.
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
a)
Develop Project Team.
b)
Manage Project Team.
c)
Acquire Project Team.
d)
Plan Human Resource Management.
30.
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?
a)
Mandatory
b)
Discretionary
c)
Internal
d)
External
31.
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?
a)
Monitor and Control Project Work
b)
Perform Quality Assurance
c)
Close Project or Phase
d)
Control Scope
32.
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
a)
Work performance reports.
b)
Change requests.
c)
Activity resource requirements.
d)
Enterprise environmental factors.
33.
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
a)
Procurement statement of work
b)
Purchase order
c)
Source selection criteria
d)
Bidder conference
34.
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?
a)
Executing
b)
Planning
c)
Monitoring and Controlling
d)
Closing
35.
The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:
a)
Planning.
b)
Executing,
c)
Monitoring and Controlling.
d)
Closing.
36.
Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
a)
Manage Project Team
b)
Acquire Project Team
c)
Develop Project Team
d)
Plan Human Resource Management
37.
Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
a)
Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques
b)
Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings
c)
Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis
d)
Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings
38.
A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?
a)
Projectized
b)
Weak matrix
c)
Functional
d)
Balanced matrix
39.
A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
a)
Executing
b)
Planning
c)
Initiating
d)
Closing
40.
Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?
a)
Inspection
b)
Variance analysis
c)
Decomposition
d)
Product analysis
41.
An element of the project scope statement is:
a)
Acceptance criteria.
b)
A stakeholder list.
c)
A summary budget,
d)
High-level risks.
42.
Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?
a)
Cost baseline
b)
Service level agreement
c)
Memorandum of understanding
d)
Business case
43.
Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?
a)
Project team
b)
Focus group
c)
Change control board
d)
Project stakeholders
44.
Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?
a)
Project Scope Management
b)
Project Human Resource Management
c)
Project Integration Management
d)
Project Time Management
45.
An output of the Validate Scope process is:
a)
A requirements traceability matrix.
b)
The scope management plan.
c)
Work performance reports.
d)
Change requests.
46.
The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?
a)
Initiating
b)
Executing
c)
Monitoring and Controlling
d)
Planning
47.
Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?
a)
Project charter
b)
Enterprise environmental factors
c)
Stakeholder register
d)
Organizational process assets
48.
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
a)
Control Quality
b)
Control Scope
c)
Monitor and Control Project Work
d)
Perform Integrated Change Control
49.
The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:
a)
Work performance information.
b)
Inspections and audits.
c)
Payment systems.
d)
Procurement performance reviews.
50.
The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?
a)
Project Communications Management
b)
Project Integration Management
c)
Project Risk Management
d)
Project Scope Management
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