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Master Mind Retina

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

IRVAN stands for

a)

Idiopathic Retinitis Vasculitis Aneurysym and Neuroretinitis

b)

Idiopathic retinal vasculitis, veins, arteritis and neuroretinitis

c)

Immediate retinal vasculitis arteritis in newborn

d)

Intermediate recurrent vasculitis, arteritis in neuroretinitis

e)

None

2.

OCTA is beneficial in BRVO prognostication

a)

To assess macular edema

b)

To look at SCP

c)

To look at DCP

d)

None

3.

Extent of muller cells:

a)

ILM-ELM

b)

GCL-ELM

c)

ILM-IS OS

d)

RPE-ILM

4.

CME is seen in which layers of retina

a)

OPL and INL

b)

OPL and IPL

c)

ILM and ELM

d)

Between RPE and bruchs membrane

5.

Indication of Vitrectomy in Stage 4 ROP is

a)

Anteroposterior traction

b)

Traction at disc

c)

Both

d)

None

6.

In pathological myopia posterior staphyloma and CNVM are best imaged on OCT using

a)

Horizontal scan because of large base curve of scan

b)

Vertical scan because of large base curve of scan

c)

Both

d)

None

7.

Dome shaped maculopathy in pathological myopia, all are true except

a)

It's a convex shaped anterior protrusion of macula

b)

Can be due to sub retinal detachment or CNVM

c)

Best seen on vertical scan in OCT

d)

Best seen on horizontal scan on OCT

8.

Amsler’s sign is seen?

a)

Herpetic uveitis

b)

Bechet’s disease

c)

Fuch’s uveitis

d)

Sarcoidosis

9.

What is the level of oil fill in aphakic eyes?

a)

Anterior to the iris diaphragm

b)

Just upto the iris diaphragm with superior PI

c)

Anterior to ora serrata

d)

Just upto the iris diaphragm with inferior PI

10.

Myopic tractional maculopathy includes all of the following except

a)

ELM detachment

b)

Foveoschisis

c)

ILM detachment

d)

Lamellar holes

11.

Which of the following correctly explains the absorption spectrum of Verteporfin?

a)

Single peak at 682 nm

b)

Double peak at 682 and 1054 nm

c)

Single peak at 1054 nm

d)

Double peak at 435 and 682 nm

12.

Treatment of choice for ocular syphilis consist:

a)

Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM in a single dose

b)

Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million unit IM 2 doses

c)

Aqueous crystalline penicillin G 18–24 million units/day for 10-14days

d)

None

13.

360-degree KP's are seen in

a)

Fuchs Uveitis

b)

Viral Uveitis

c)

Intermediate uveitis

d)

All of them

14.

Cilioretinal artery is supplied by which of the following

a)

Short posterior ciliary artery

b)

Central retinal artery

c)

Long posterior ciliary artery

d)

Muscular artery

15.

Increased arm to retina time is seen in all of the following except

a)

Takayasu arteritis

b)

Giant cell arteritis

c)

Central retinal vein occlusion

d)

Carotid vessel disease

16.

Subretinal fluid optical density ratio is a biomarker of disease activity for which of the following condition?

a)

Vogt Koyanagi Harada disease

b)

Central serous chorioretinopathy

c)

Choroidal neovascularisation

d)

Diabetic macular edema

17.

Why is the angiogram clearer than fundus picture in asteroid hyalosis

a)

Pseudofluorescence property

b)

Scattered short wavelength by the asteroids are blocked by the barrier filter

c)

Scattered longer wavelengths by the asteroids are blocked by the excitation filter

d)

Sodium fluorescein is a magical dye

18.

The autoflouroscence of the leakage point in acute CSCR shows

a)

Focal Hypoautoflouroscence

b)

Diffuse Hypoautoflouroscence

c)

Focal hyperautofloursoscence

d)

Diffuse hyperautofloursoscence

19.

In CSCR, photoreceptor outer segments on OCT show?

a)

Shortening

b)

Elongation

c)

No change

d)

Depends on the stage of disease

20.

Which of the following is a cause for posterior hyaloid precipitates

a)

CMV retinitis

b)

Sarcoidosis

c)

MEWDS

d)

Sympathetic ophthalmia

21.

Myoid Zone comprises of

a)

Inner portion of inner segment of photoreceptors packed with smooth endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Outer portion of inner segment of photoreceptors packed with mitochondria

c)

Inner portion of outer segment of photoreceptors

d)

Outer portion of outer segment of photoreceptors in contact with Retinal Pigment Epithelium

22.

Disorganisation of inner retinal layers (DRIL) occurs due to:

a)

Hypoperfusion and ischemia of inner retinal layers

b)

Mechanical stretching leading to snapping of axons of bipolar cells

c)

Epiretinal membrane causing distortion of retinal architecture

d)

Hypoperfusion and ischemia of inner retinal layers and mechanical stretching leading to snapping of axons of bipolar cells

23.

Pearl necklace sign on OCT in DME denotes:

a)

Collection of hyperreflective dots within the outer nuclear layer

b)

Collection of hyperreflective dots subfovealy forming a discoid plaque

c)

Hyperreflective dots lining large cystoid spaces intraretinally

d)

Hyperreflective dots seen in chronic SRF

24.

Orefice’s sign in DUSN denotes:

a)

Increased Internal limiting membrane reflex

b)

Formation of subretinal tunnels

c)

Diffuse RPE degeneration

d)

Retinal arterioler narrowing

25.

What is classic CNVM on FFA

a)

Early , lacy hyperfluorescence with well defined margins

b)

Late , speckled hyperfluorescence with well defined margins

c)

Early , lacy hyperfluorescence with ill defined margins

d)

Late , speckled hyperfluorescence with ill defined margins

26.

Type 1 CNVM on OCT is

a)

Sub retinal

b)

Sub retinal pigment epithelium (RPE)

c)

Intra retinal

d)

Sub ILM

27.

Most common type of CNVM in age related macular degeneration is

a)

Classic CNVM

b)

Occult CNVM

c)

RAP

d)

None

28.

What is prominent middle limiting membrane (p- MLM) sign on OCT

a)

Hyper reflective area at level of outer nuclear layer

b)

Hyper reflective area at level of inner nuclear layer

c)

Hyper reflectivity at inner portion of outer plexiform layer

d)

Hyper reflectivity at outer portion of outer plexiform layer

29.

Which is the gold standard investigation to diagnose PCV

a)

FFA

b)

ICGA

c)

OCT

d)

OCTA

30.

Which of the following OCT sign indicates conversion of non-ischemic to ischemic type of CRVO

a)

Prominent middle limiting membrane sign

b)

Hyperreflective foci in NSR

c)

DRIL

d)

Disruption of ellipsoid zone.

31.

Yellow ring sign is seen around the haemorrhage in which of the following conditions

a)

Sub hyaloid hg

b)

Sub ILM hg

c)

Intraretinal hg

d)

Superficial flame shaped hgs

32.

Which of the following is the most common location of RAP at the beginning of presentation

a)

Foveal

b)

Juxtafoveal

c)

Extrafoveal

d)

Peripapillary

33.

Maximum expansion of SF6 gas occurs in

a)

<12 hours

b)

12-24 hours

c)

24-48 hours

d)

48- 96 hours

34.

Which of the following is not an accepted intervention in acute CRAO:

a)

Digital/ gonioscopy massage

b)

Pars plana vitectomy

c)

AC paracentensis

d)

Anti-VEGF injection

35.

FAZ is best visualized in which slab of OCTA?

a)

Superficial capillary plexus

b)

Deep capillary plexus

c)

Outer retina

d)

Choriocapillaris

36.

All are poor OCT biomarkers in BRVO except?

a)

Hyerreflective dots

b)

GCL cyst

c)

Degenerative changes like foveal atrophy,ERM

d)

CRT>500 micron at initial presentation

37.

CNVM in angioid streak is most commonly

a)

Type I CNVM, peripapillary

b)

Type II CNVM, peripapillary

c)

Type I CNVM, involving fovea

d)

Type II CNVM, involving fovea

38.

Which of the following best describes the criteria for ‘Threshold ROP’

a)

Stage 3 ROP with plus disease in 5 contiguous clock hours and 8 non-contiguous clock hours in zone I or II

b)

Stage 3 ROP without plus disease in 5 contiguous clock hours and 8 non-contiguous clock hours in zone I or II

c)

Stage 3 ROP with plus disease in 5 contiguous clock hours and 8 contiguous clock hours in zone I and II

d)

Stage 3 ROP with plus disease in 5 contiguous clock hours or 8 non-contiguous clock hours in zone I or II

39.

Which of the following is not true about timing of initial screening

a)

37 weeks Post conceptual age or 3-4 weeks after birth (whichever is earlier)

b)

Complete one ROP screening session before Day 30 of life

c)

GA <3 weeks or BW <1200 grams – screen by day 20 or week 2-3 after birth

d)

31 week Post conceptual age or 3-4 weeks after birth (whichever is earlier)

40.

How do you suspect progression to panophthalmitis in a patient with endophthalmitis on B scan

a)

Fluid in tenon’ space seen as hypoechoeic reflectivity

b)

Presence of choroidal detachment

c)

Fluid in tenon’ space seen as hyperechoeic reflectivity

d)

Increase in the membranous echoes in vitreous cavity

41.

What is the B scan characteristic feature of Ocular cysticercosis

a)

Round hypeechoeic cystic lesion with dot like hyporechoeic lesion within the cyst

b)

Round hypoechoeic cystic lesion with dot like hyperechoeic lesion within the cyst which is almost always associated with retinal detacment

c)

Round hypeechoeic cystic lesion with dot like hyporechoeic lesion within the cyst which is almost always associated with retinal detacment

d)

Round hypoechoeic cystic lesion with dot like hyperechoeic lesion within the cyst

42.

Vasculogenesis leads to the development of –

a)

Inner plexus of retina

b)

Outer plexus of retina

c)

Radial peri-papillary capillaries

d)

Formation of vessels at the raphe and in the perifoveal and peripheral regions

43.

Angiogenesis leads to the development of all of the following except

a)

Inner plexus of retina

b)

Outer plexus of retina

c)

Radial peri-papillary capillaries

d)

Formation of vessels at the raphe and in the perifoveal and peripheral regions

44.

Dilating drops used for ROP screening is/are

a)

10% phenylephrine

b)

2.5% phenylephrine + 0.5 %Tropicamide

c)

5% phenylephrine + 1% tropicamide

d)

5% Tropicamide

45.

Earliest sign of diabetic retinopathy is

a)

Capillary basement membrane thickening

b)

Microaneurysms

c)

Loss of pericytes

d)

Dot hemorrhages

46.

All of the statements are true except

a)

Renal failure is an absolute contraindication of doing FFA in diabetic retinopathy

b)

FFA can be used to investigate vision loss incompletely explained by ophthalmoscopy

c)

FFA is not indicated for screening of diabetic retinopathy

d)

1st trimester of pregnancy is contradiction for performing FFA

47.

Increase in FAZ in macular ischemia is best appreciated in which phase of FFA

a)

Arterial phase

b)

Early venous phase

c)

Late venous phase

d)

Recirculation phase

48.

What is the size of bore of OZURDEX needle injector system?

a)

20G

b)

21G

c)

22G

d)

23G

49.

Inheritance pattern in familial exudative vitreoretinopathy(FEVR) is/are

a)

Autosomal dominant

b)

Autosomal recessive

c)

X linked recessive

d)

Autosomal dominant or Autosomal recessive or X linked recessive

50.

Which type of IOL should be avoided in silicone field eyes

a)

PMMA

b)

Acrylic

c)

Silicone

d)

Patient should be left aphakic