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Study Guide Midterm Exam April 2024

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 1hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Scarcity is best defined as

a)

the difference between limited wants and limited economic resources.

b)

the difference between the total benefit of an action and the total cost of that action.

c)

the difference between unlimited wants and limited economic resources.

d)

the opportunity cost of pursuing a given course of action.

e)

the difference between the marginal benefit and marginal cost of an action.

2.

Economics is best defined as the study of

a)

how society manages its scarce resources.

b)

how to run a business most profitably.

c)

how to predict inflation, unemployment, and stock prices.

d)

how the government can stop the harm from unchecked self-interest

3.

Protection of property rights exist in

a)

Capitalist economy

b)

command economy

4.

In a command economy...

a)

Public ownership of the means of production

b)

the individual owns the means of production

c)

there is wealth and protection of private property

5.
The opportunity cost of increasing production from 7 to 9 trucks is
a)
Scarcity
b)
2 boats
c)
2 trucks
d)
3 boats
6.

What is the opportunity cost of moving from production from point B to D?

a)

100 units of food

b)

25 units of food

c)

35 units of clothes

d)

50 Units of food

7.
What can cause a production possibilities curve to move to the right?
a)
thousands of people move out of the country
b)
an epidemic kills thousands of young men and women
c)

a new technology invention

d)
the population is growing increasingly old
8.

Points B, D, and C represent ___________ use of resources.

a)

Ineffecient

b)

Efficient

c)

Unfeasible

9.

The producer that can produce the most output OR requires the least amount of inputs (resources)

a)

Comparative Advantage

b)

Trade Offs

c)

Absolute Advantage

d)

Opportunity Cost

10.

Ana takes 30 minutes to wash the dishes and one hour to vacuum the house. Her husband, Joe, takes 15 minutes to wash the dishes and 45 minutes to vacuum. Who has the absolute advantage for vacuuming?

a)

Ana

b)

Joe

11.
The US can produce 200 airplanes or 400 trucks. Japan can produce 300 trucks or 100 airplanes. 
Which country has the absolute advantage in producing airplanes? 
a)
Japan
b)
US
12.

Josie works part-time at a local convenience store and earns $10 per hour. She wants to spend next Saturday afternoon attending a music concert. The full price of a concert ticket is $75, but Josie was able to get a discounted price of $40 from a friend who purchased the ticket but has become unable to attend. If Karen took 4 hours off from her job to attend the concert, what was her opportunity cost of attending the concert?

a)

$80

b)

$85

c)

$35

d)

$10

13.
When a consumer consumes two goods X and Y , she will attain equilibrium when
a)
MUx = MUy
b)
MUx/Px = MUy/Py
c)
Px/MUx = Py/MUy
d)
None of these
14.

Sam often consumes biscuits or cakes.

If the supply of biscuits decreases, which graph will represent Sam's change in demand for cakes?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

15.

When the price of hot dogs decreases and the demand for hot dog buns increases, this explains the demand of

a)

Complementary goods

b)

Capital Goods

c)

Substitute Goods

d)

Consumer Goods

16.
Suppose there is a 6 percent increase in the price of good X and a resulting 6 percent decrease in the quantity of X demanded. Price elasticity of demand for X is
a)
0
b)
1
c)
6
d)
36
17.

HyVee increases the price of milk from $2.50 to $3.00. Total revenue from milk increases by $200 each day. The demand for this product would be:

a)

elastic

b)

inelastic

c)

static

d)

dynamic

18.

If a 10 percent increase in the price of good J results in a 20 percent decrease in the quantity of good Y demanded, which of the following is true?

a)

Good J and good Y are complementary goods, and the cross-price elasticity is −2 .

b)

Good J and good Y are substitute goods, and the cross-price elasticity is −2 .

c)

Good J and good Y are complementary goods, and the cross-price elasticity is −0.5 .

19.

A decrease in the demand for antique lanterns, a normal good, would be caused by which of the following?

a)

An increase in the price of antique lanterns

b)

An increase in the price of lamp oil, a complementary good

20.

When the price is P1, consumer surplus is

a)

A

b)

A + B

c)

A + B + C

d)

A + B + D

21.

When the price rises from P1 to P2, consumer surplus

a)

Increases by an amount equal to A

b)

Decreases by an amount equal to B + C

c)

Increases by an amount equal to B + C

d)

Decreases by an amount equal to C

22.

The market is currently in equilibrium. In a competition equilibrium consumer surplus is the area of

a)

UVZ

b)

WYZ

c)

RVUT

d)

XVZY

e)

0YZS

23.

The diagram shows the demand curve for a good. If the price increases from P1 to P2, and quantity consumed decreases from Q2 to Q1, consumer surplus decreases by the area

a)

BDC

b)

P1P2BC

c)

P1P2BD

d)

Q1DCQ2

e)

P2P3B

24.
At the price of 1.00 there is a 
a)
shortage of 200
b)
surplus of 200
c)
shortage of 400
d)
surplus of 400
25.

How much will the country import at a price of Pw?

a)

B-A

b)

C-E

c)

A' - B'

d)

A - B

e)

A - E

26.

If an excise tax is imposed on a product, consumer surplus and producer surplus for this good will most likely change in which of the following ways:

a)

Consumer surplus decreases and producer surplus decreases

b)

Consumer surplus decreases and producer surplus increases

c)

Consumer surplus decreases and producer surplus does not change

d)

Consumer surplus does not change and producer surplus increases

e)

Consumer surplus does not changes and producer surplus does not change

27.

The formula for PES is...

a)

% change Q / % change in Y

b)

% change P / % change Q

c)

% change QS / % change P

d)

% change QD / % change P

28.

The formula for PED is...

a)

% change Q / % change in Y

b)

% change P / % change Q

c)

% change D / % change S

d)

% change Q / % change P

29.

XED is the...

a)

responsiveness to change in price of a related good

b)

responsiveness to change in price

c)

responsiveness to change in demand of a related good

d)

responsiveness to change in demand of supply

30.

Which of the following describes an eventual decline in the productivity of factor inputs as additional units of variable factors are added to fixed resources?

a)

Law of diminishing marginal utility

b)

Law of diminishing marginal returns

c)

Laffer curve

d)

Law of diminishing total product

31.

In the long run...

a)

All inputs are fixed

b)

All input are variable

c)

at least one input is variable and one input is fixes

d)

at most one input is variable and one input is fixed

32.

Fixed cost

a)

long run ATC rises as output increases

b)

long run ATC falls as output rises

c)

costs that do not vary with the quantity of output produced

d)

long run ATC stays the same as the quantity of output changes

33.

Variable cost is

a)

Long run ATC stays the same as the quantity of output changes

b)

Fixed + variable cost

c)

Costs that vary with the output (Q) produced

d)

An explicit cost

34.

Which of the following is the equation for Economic Profit?

a)

Total Revenue - Explicit Costs

b)

Total Revenue + Explicit Costs

c)

Total Revenue - (Explicit Costs + Implicit costs)

d)

Total Revenue - (Explicit Costs - Implicit costs)

35.

Which of the following are the two types of profits?

a)

Accounting Profit

b)

Mathematical Profit

c)

Financial Profit

d)

Economic Profit

36.

If a business makes $85 dollars/day and spends $43 on explicit costs, what is their Accounting Profit?

a)

$43

b)

$85

c)

$128

d)

$42

37.

A woman recently quit her job as a teacher, which earned her $75/day, to become a tailor. She earns $85/day, during that day she spends a total of $25 on materials. What is her Economic Profit ?

a)

$75

b)

$15

c)

-$75

d)

-$15

38.
This perfect competitor will maximize profits at what output level?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
39.
At price G, the area of which rectangle represents total revenue for the profit-maximizing perfect competitor?
a)
0GKC
b)
0FJC
c)
FGKJ
d)
EFJH
40.

If marginal revenue is equal to P1

a)

Total revenue will equal total costs

b)

Total revenue will be less than total cost

c)

Total revenue will be greater than total costs

41.

What is the profit-maximizing price and quantity?

a)

P1, Q1

b)

P2, Q4

c)

P3, Q3

d)

P4, Q2

e)

P5, Q1

42.

For the unregulated, single-price monopoly shown in the figure above, when its profit is maximized, output will be

a)

4 units per year and the price will be $6.

b)

4 units per year and the price will be $4.

c)

6 units per year and the price will be $4.

d)

None of the above answers is correct.

43.

Perfect Price-Discriminating Monopoly

a)
b)
c)
d)
44.

Price discrimination is defined as a business charging different consumers ... prices for the ... product, whereby the price difference is not due to the differences in the cost of supplying the customers.

a)

different …same

b)

same …same

c)

same...different

d)

different …different

45.

Monopolistically Competitive, Long-Run Equilibrium

a)
b)
c)
d)
46.

Single-Price Monopoly, Economic Loss

a)
b)
c)
d)
47.
According to the payoff matrix, what will YELLOW do if white goes high?
a)
high
b)
low
48.
Evergreen and Nature View are bidding for
a landscaping contract. The payoff matrix shows what each firm’s total weekly profits from all its operations will be for each combination of bids. The first entry in each cell shows Evergreen’s profit, and the second entry in each cell shows Nature View’s profit. A Nash equilibrium results under which of the following conditions? 
a)
When both firms bid low 
b)
When Evergreen bids high and Nature View bids low 
c)
When both firms bid high and when both firms bid low 
d)
When Evergreen bids low, no matter what Nature View’s bid is 
49.

Blammo Inc. produces greeting cards in a perfectly competitive market. The table below shows the total number of greeting cards produced using different amounts of labor. The market price for a greeting card is $4.


What is the marginal revenue product of labor (MRPL) of the fifth worker?

a)

$4

b)

$60

c)

$160

d)

$400

e)

$0

50.
In the short run, the firm will realize an economic loss but will continue to produce if the price is:
a)
below P2
b)
between P1 and P2 
c)
between P2 and P3 
d)
between P3 and P4 
51.

The graph above shows the marginal product (MP) and the average product (AP) of labor for a firm that uses labor as the only variable input. At which quantity of labor does marginal cost change from decreasing to increasing?

a)

L1

b)

L2

c)

L3

d)

L5

52.

What does this graph represent?

a)

a perfectly competitive labor market

b)

an imperfectly competitive labor market

53.
a)

Monopsony

b)

Perfect Competition

c)

Oligopsony

d)

All of the above

54.

Which is the competitive labour market wage?

a)

B

b)

A

c)

C

55.
In the monopsonistic labor market shown in the diagram, which of the following indicates the number of workers the firm will hire and the wage rate it will pay, respectively? 
a)
L1, W1
b)
L1, W3
c)
L2, W2
d)
L1, W2
56.
In the diagram, what would be the competitive quantity of workers hired and wages, respectively?
a)
L2, W4
b)
L1, W3
c)
L2, W2
d)
L1, W2
57.
The graph shows the conditions that a monopsonist faces in a labor market. How many workers would this monopsonist hire and what wage rate would it pay, respectively? 
a)
5, $37.50
b)
10, $30
c)
10, $20
d)
14, $24
58.

The market should produce the quantity where

a)

marginal social cost equals marginal social benefit.

b)

marginal private cost equals marginal social benefit.

c)

external cost equals external benefit.

d)

private cost is greater than social cost.

59.

When there is a _______ production externality, the free market _________ resources to the production of the good and too ______ of it is produced relative to the social optimum. This is shown by _______and _______ at the point of production, Qm, *

a)

negative; misallocate; little; Qm > Qopt; MSC < MSB

b)

positive; underallocate; much; Qm > Qopt; MSB > MSC

c)

negative; overallocate; much; Qm > Qopt; MSC > MSB

d)

positive; misallocate; much; Qm > Qopt; MSC > MSB

60.

Refer to the image. Given the position of the marginal social cost curve, one can conclude that

a)

production of good X creates a negative externality.

b)

private cost of producing good X exceeds the social cost of production at all levels of output.

c)

market quantity, Q3, is the socially optimal quantity.

d)

free market will produce too little of good X.

61.

According to this graph, which of the following nations is the 'most equal'?

a)

USA

b)

Brazil

c)

Norway

d)

None of the above

62.

According to this graph, which of the following nations is the 'most equal'?

a)

USA

b)

Brazil

c)

Norway

d)

None of the above

63.

laws to control monopoly power and to preserve and promote competition

a)

Clayton Antitrust Act

b)

Sherman Antitrust Act

c)

anti-trust laws

d)

Federal Trade Commission

64.

An example of a public good is...

a)

Firefighters

b)

police officers

c)

parks

d)

all answers are correct

65.

Fair return to Price and Quantity

a)
Q1 & P1
b)
Q2 & P3
c)
Q1 & P4
d)
Q3 & P2