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Complete Economic Quiz Multiple Choice

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 11hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Why does scarcity exist?
a)
Each year workers tend to produce less than previously 
b)
Machines wear out in time
c)
There are not sufficient resources to meet everyone's wants
d)
There is a limit to people's wants 
2.
What factor of production's function is to make decisions and take risks?
a)
Capital
b)
Enterprise 
c)
Land 
d)
Labour 
3.
What type of factor of production is a road?
a)
Capital
b)
Enterprise
c)
Labour
d)
Land 
4.
What is meant by 'labour' in economics?
a)
Hard physical work used to produce manufactured goods 
b)
Human mental and physical effort used for producing goods and services
c)
Natural resources used in the productive process
d)
Risk taking and organising the factors of production
5.

Which of these is not one of the key economic decisions?

a)

what to produce?

b)

how to produce?

c)

who is to benefit from the goods and services produced?

d)

how much to charge for the goods and services produced?

6.
 The difference between a good and a service is that:
a)
Goods are available in unlimited quantaties and services are not 
b)
Goods are tangible and services are not 
c)
Services are available in unlimited quantaties and goods are not 
d)
goods help satisfy unlimited wants and services do not
7.

What happens every time we make a decision?

a)

We win!

b)

We incur an opportunity cost

c)

We incur an opportunity loss

d)

We incur an opportunity cost of multiple other options

8.
What term describes the tools and technology used to make a product?
a)
capital goods
b)
human capital
c)
exports
d)
imports
9.

Which of these is a description of a 'trade-off'?

a)

Having more than you want, or need.

b)

When people work in jobs where they produce a few special goods, or services.

c)

When you get a little less of one thing in order to get a little more of something else.

d)

Something one person does for someone else.

10.

What is the world's 3rd largest economy?

a)

USA

b)

China

c)

UK

d)

Japan

11.

What is this?

a)

A supply curve

b)

A demand curve

c)

A supply shift line

d)

A demand shift line

12.

What does this show?

a)

A shift in supply

b)

An expansion of demand

c)

A shift in demand

d)

An expansion of supply

13.

What does this show?

a)

An increase shift in demand

b)

A decrease shift in demand

c)

An expansion of demand

d)

A contraction of demand

14.

The _______ considers the weighted averages of a group of consumer goods and services.

a)

Consumer price index

b)

Aggregate supply

c)

Producer price index

d)

Aggregate demand

15.

Which of the following causes of inflation is often described as “too much money chasing too few goods”?

a)

Demand-pull inflation

b)

Cost-push inflation

c)

Demand-push inflation

d)

Cost-pull inflation

16.

Fill in the blank: When inflation is high the _______________of the pound decreases.

a)

cost value

b)

purchasing power

c)

importance

d)

validity

17.
An index that measures the prices of a market basket of goods that typical consumers purchase.
a)
Consumer Price Index
b)
Federal Reserve
c)
Bank
d)
Deflation
18.

Which of the following groups DO NOT suffer from high inflation?

a)

Businesses

b)

Lenders

c)

Borrowers

d)

Consumers

19.
GDP that is adjusted for inflation
a)
real GDP
b)
nominal GDP
c)
price level
d)
net national product
20.

What causes cost-push inflation?

a)

An increase in demand for goods and services

b)

An increase in supply

c)

A rise in production costs passed on to consumers

d)

A fall in the price of imports

21.
Which one of these correctly describes how lenders and borrowers are affected by inflation?
a)
lenders hurt, borrowers helped
b)
lenders hurt, borrowers hurt
c)
lenders helped, borrowers hurt 
d)
lenders helped, borrowers helped
22.
How can we measure inflation?
a)
Money Supply
b)
Federal Reserve
c)
Interest Rates
d)
Consumer Price index
23.

Price stability occurs when

a)

Prices are rising rapidly

b)

Inflation is high

c)

There is significant deflation

d)

Price level in an economy does not change much over time.

24.

Wages rise by 3%, when inflation is 7%. Real wages

a)

are rising faster than inflation

b)

have fallen by 4%

c)

have risen by 10%

d)

have fallen by 7%

25.

The CPI is a weighted index, this means

a)

Some price changes are given more importance than others in the index

b)

All price changes are equally important

c)

price changes in energy would have less relevance than price changes of window cleaning

26.

Cassie is going to start a business and can buy either wood or cloth. If she buys wood, she can make toy boats. If she buys cloth, she can make dolls. What is the opportunity cost of Cassie’s buying cloth?

a)

The cost of making toy boats and dolls

b)

The opportunity to make toy boats

c)

The cost of starting a business

d)

The opportunity to make dolls

27.

Based on the map above, what is a major source of income for Ohio?

a)

Mining

b)

Tourism

c)

Industry

d)

Fishing

28.

Tom, the owner of Tom’s Pizza, recently bought a faster dough maker and a larger pizza oven for his shop. His sales have doubled. Which statement describes why Tom decided to buy a faster dough maker and larger pizza oven?

a)

As a producer, he invested in capital goods to increase production

b)

As a producer, he paid less for ingredients to make a profit

c)

As a consumer, he wanted to have a successful restaurant

d)

As a consumer, he wanted to spend less time cooking

29.

A company makes a popular fruit juice. It makes cough drops. A main ingredient in both products is oranges. Because of a drought, the company has enough oranges to produce only fruit juice or cough drops. The company chooses to make fruit juice. What is the opportunity cost of the company’s decision to make fruit juice?

a)

The demand for fruit juice will increase.

b)

The company will earn less money selling fruit juice.

c)

The farmers will decrease the amount of oranges that they grow.

d)

The company will be unable to earn money by selling cough drops.

30.

What does an increase in supply of an item usually mean for consumers?

a)

The item will be bought by fewer customers.

b)

The item will be removed from the market.

c)

The item will be difficult to buy.

d)

The item will be lower in price.

31.

A product that is brought into a country to be sold is called an import.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Using income for purchases, expenses, and debt

a)

Spending

b)

Savings

c)

Services

d)

Goods

33.

The iPhone 7 came out a few years ago, the demand for it is down, so the price is now...

a)

Up

b)

Down

c)

The Same

34.

The class took a vote on their favorite sports and created a pie graph. How many total students are in the class?

a)

24

b)

25

c)

10

d)

28

35.

When you spend your money to buy a piece of candy, you are acting as a...

a)

Producer

b)

Importer

c)

Consumer

d)

Exporter

36.

Which of the following best describes gross domestic product?

a)

The growth in the number of goods and services bought over a period of time

b)

The value of good and services bought over a period of time

c)

The number of goods and services produced over a period of time

d)

The value of goods and services produced over a period of time

37.

Which formula is the correct way to measure economic growth rate?

a)

Original GDP / Change in GDP x 100

b)

Original GDP - Change in GDP x 100

c)

Change in GDP / Original GDP x 100

d)

Change in GDP - Original GDP x 100

38.

What is GDP per capita?

a)

GDP x population

b)

GDP / population

c)

GDP + population

d)

GDP - population

39.

If GDP is £300 billion and the population is 30 million. What is GDP per capita?

a)

£270 billion

b)

£100,000

c)

£10,000

d)

£1,000

40.

Which of the following DOESN’T cause economic growth?

a)

Increased investment

b)

Improved technology

c)

Increased labour productivity

d)

Less investment in education

41.

Which of the following is a benefit of economic growth?

a)

A rise in the standard of living

b)

Increased pollution

c)

Increased congestion

d)

Inequalities in income and wealth

42.

Which of the following is a cost of economic growth?

a)

A fall in unemployment

b)

A rise in employment

c)

A reduction in poverty

d)

Loss of non-renewable resources

43.

Calculate the economic growth rate if GDP was £60 billion in Year 1 and £63 billion in Year 2.

a)

1%

b)

5%

c)

10%

d)

15%

44.

Calculate the economic growth rate if GDP was £100 billion in Year 1 and £102 billion in Year 2.

a)

1%

b)

2%

c)

10%

d)

20%

45.

Calculate GDP per capita if GDP is £200 billion and the population is 40 million.

a)

£1,000

b)

£2,000

c)

£5,000

d)

£10,000

46.

Which of the following is the correct definition of inflation?

a)

A sustained rise in the general price level over time

b)

A increase in prices of goods and services

c)

An addition to the number of goods in a ‘basket’

47.

What is the rate of inflation?

a)

The change in inflation over time

b)

The percentage rise in the general price level over time

c)

The change in the price level over time

d)

The percentage change in the general price level over time

48.

What is a nominal value?

a)

One that takes inflation into account

b)

One that does not take inflation into account

c)

One that is referred to as a number

d)

One that is referred to in money terms

49.

What is a real value?

a)

One that takes inflation into account

b)

One that does not take inflation into account

c)

One that is referred to as a number

d)

One that is referred to in money terms

50.

If the original value is £100 and the new nominal value is £102 what is the percentage change in nominal income?

a)

1%

b)

2%

c)

3%

d)

4%

51.

If the original value is £100, the new nominal value is £102, and the rate of inflation is 3%, what is the percentage change in real income?

a)

-1%

b)

-2%

c)

1%

d)

2%

52.

What is the correct definition of ‘demand-pull’ inflation?

a)

When aggregate (total) supply exceeds aggregate demand

b)

When aggregate demand exceeds aggregate supply

c)

When there is a rise in aggregate demand

d)

When there is a rise in the exchange rate

53.

What is the correct definition of ‘cost-push inflation’?

a)

When there is a rise in aggregate supply

b)

When firms seek to rise prices to increase profits

c)

When costs of production rises

d)

When workers ask for wage increase

54.

What is a consequence of inflation for consumers?

a)

Increase in consumer confidence

b)

Shoe leather costs

c)

Real incomes increase

d)

Consumers who are debtors lose

55.

What is a consequence of inflation for producers?

a)

Menu costs decrease

b)

Less flexibility

c)

Producers lack business confidence

d)

Producers gain as creditors

56.

Which is the correct definition of fiscal policy:

a)

A policy that aims to control the total supply of money in an economy to try and achieve the government’s economic objectives

b)

A government policy affecting the amount of supply in an economy

c)

A policy that uses government spending and taxation to affect the economy as a whole

d)

Laws to control the way people and organisations behave

57.

What is the main source of government spending?

a)

Education

b)

Social protection

c)

Health

d)

Defence

58.

‘A tax on income and wealth’ is describing indirect tax

a)

True

b)

False

59.

What is the definition of a budget surplus?

a)

When tax revenue is greater than government spending

b)

When government spending is greater than tax revenue

c)

The source of finance for government spending

d)

A tax on spending, on goods/services

60.

Which of these is not a government objective that fiscal policy is used to achieve?

a)

A balance in the balance of payments

b)

Price stability

c)

Low unemployment

d)

Income and wealth distribution

61.

An increase in government spending and a reduction in tax is likely to lead to a budget deficit. True or false?

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Fiscal policy can be used to achieve economic growth by:

a)

Increasing government spending and increasing tax

b)

Increasing government spending and decreasing tax

c)

Decreasing government spending and increasing tax

d)

Decreasing government spending and decreasing tax

63.

Fiscal policy can be used to achieve low unemployment by:

a)

Increasing government spending and increasing tax

b)

Increasing government spending and decreasing tax

c)

Decreasing government spending and increasing tax

d)

Decreasing government spending and decreasing tax

64.

Fiscal policy can be used to achieve price stability by:

a)

Increasing government spending and increasing tax

b)

Increasing government spending and decreasing tax

c)

Decreasing government spending and increasing tax

d)

Decreasing government spending and decreasing tax

65.

Fiscal policy can be used to create a healthier balance of payments by:

a)

Increasing government spending and increasing tax

b)

Increasing government spending and decreasing tax

c)

Decreasing government spending and increasing tax

d)

Decreasing government spending and decreasing tax

66.

Which of these is the correct definition of monetary policy:

a)

A policy that aims to control the supply of money in the economy

b)

A policy that aims to achieve economic growth

c)

A policy that controls taxes

d)

A policy that aims to contribute to the supply of money

67.

In order to achieve economic growth, monetary policy changes interest rates. Would these be increased or reduced?

a)

Increased

b)

Reduced

68.

In order to achieve low unemployment, monetary policy changes interest rates. Would these be increased or reduced?

a)

Increased

b)

Reduced

69.

In order to achieve price stability, monetary policy changes interest rates. Would these be increased or reduced?

a)

Increased

b)

Reduced

70.

In order to achieve a healthier balance of payments, monetary policy changes interest rates. Would these be increased or reduced?

a)

Increased

b)

Reduced

71.

Nominal interest rates are different from real interest rates because:

a)

Real interest rates are the current bank lending rates

b)

Real interest rates take into account inflation

c)

Real interest rates take into account changes in house prices

d)

Nominal rates are rates which only apply to borrowers and not lenders

72.

Quantitative easing is the common name for which policy instrument?

a)

Lowering the interest rate at which commercial banks lend to each other

b)

Asset selling by a central bank

c)

Asset purchasing by a central bank

d)

When a central bank reduces interest rates

73.

A significant rise in interest rates is most likely to lead to an increase in:

a)

Consumer spending

b)

Investment spending

c)

Unemployment

d)

Short run aggregate supply

74.

Which of the following scenarios would cause the nation’s money supply to increase?

a)

Decreasing government spending

b)

Lowering interest rates

c)

Raising interest rates

d)

Selling bonds to investors

75.

_________ is a general rise in prices that can be caused by a number of things, but one of them is the amount of money that circulates:

a)

Inflation

b)

Deflation

c)

Foreclosure

76.

A situation of market failure is said to exist if;

a)

buyers and sellers pay for the true opportunity costs of their actions

b)

there are no externalities

c)

the government provides merit goods free

d)

third parties in society are affected and not compensated

77.

Which of the following statements is true about externalities?

a)

When externalities exist, resources are allocated efficiently

b)

When positive externalities exist, efficiency is improved by taxing the product

c)

From society's point of view, the output of goods for which a positive externality exists is too low

d)

The price system overproduces goods with positive externalities

78.

In which of the following situations is market failure least likely to occur? A situation where;

a)

externalities exist

b)

many producers compete in the market

c)

there is a sole producer in market

d)

there is a very uneven distribution of income and wealth

79.

When social costs are greater than private costs, there is a;

a)

positive externality

b)

negative externality

c)

less than socially optimal output

d)

socially optimal output

80.

In a market for a product with positive externalities;

a)

all benefits are not internalized

b)

there is too much production

c)

profits are too low

d)

profits are too high

81.

When there is a _______ production externality, the free market _________ resources to the production of the good and too ______ of it is produced relative to the social optimum. This is shown by _______and _______ at the point of production, Qm, *

a)

negative; misallocate; little; Qm > Qopt; MSC < MSB

b)

positive; underallocate; much; Qm > Qopt; MSB > MSC

c)

negative; overallocate; much; Qm > Qopt; MSC > MSB

d)

positive; misallocate; much; Qm > Qopt; MSC > MSB

82.

Public goods, such as defence, are not supplied by the price system because;

a)

the capital cost is too high

b)

the benefits would - ceteris paribus - not be restricted to buyers but would be available to non-buyers as well

c)

public goods are necessities and therefore cannot be left to the price system

d)

monopolies would make supernormal profits

83.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a merit good?

a)

It could be provided by the free market, but not in sufficient quantities

b)

It is always provided free to consumers

c)

It tends to generate negative externalities, so governments restrict its consumption

d)

Once the good has been supplied to one consumer, there is no additional cost in supplying it to others

84.

Governments use cost-benefits analysis to;

a)

measure the net social benefit of a project

b)

make consumers pay for the net social benefit they receive

c)

minimize social costs

d)

make producers pay for the social costs of a project

85.

Fill in the blank. Economies of scale is when as output _________, unit costs ________ in the long run.

a)

increases; decrease

b)

increases; increase

c)

decreases; increase

d)

decreases; decrease

86.

Internal economies of scale are those that

a)

Result from changes in production techniques

b)

Increase due to the growth of the industry as a whole

c)

Generate lower per unit production costs

d)

Reduce production costs in the short run

87.
Internal diseconomies of scale can be caused by
a)
Being unable to purchase stocks at a discounted price
b)
Management control being weakened with a larger workforce
c)
Traffic congestion causing delays to delivery of important stocks
d)
Advertising costs to a global audience
88.
Which of the following is not a cause of internal diseconomies of scale?
a)
Poor communication between different departments
b)
Lack of staff morale and motivation
c)
Less control, direction and coordination of human resources
d)
Late deliveries due to congestion in busy locations
89.

Large firms can afford to advertise and sell in larger quantities to develop brand loyalty. This is an example of

a)

Purchasing economies of scale

b)

Technical economies of scale

c)

Managerial economies of scale

d)

Marketing economies of scale

e)

Risk bearing economies of scale

90.

Large firms can negotiate better interest rates on loans; this reduces the costs of borrowing for larger companies. This is an example of

a)

Financial economies of scale

b)

Technical economies of scale

c)

Managerial economies of scale

d)

Marketing economies of scale

e)

Risk bearing economies of scale

91.

Fill in the blank. __________ economies of scale occur due to an increase in the scale of production within a single firm

a)

Internal

b)

External

c)

Complex

d)

Simple

92.
External economies of scale are cost savings available to the whole ________ as a result of its __________.
a)
Industry, Location
b)
Business, Location
c)
Industry, Size
d)
Business, Size
93.

Which is the correct definition of demand?

a)

The quantity of a product that consumers are willing and able to demand at a given price.

b)

The quantity of a product that consumers are willing and able to purchase at a given prices at a given period of time.

c)

The quantity of a product that suppliers are willing and able to supply at a given price at a given period of time.

d)

The amount of a given product or service that suppliers are willing to offer to consumers at a given price level at a given period.

94.

For normal goods, as price increases demand will typically (a)  

95.

What is the definition of price elasticity of demand?

a)

The amount that price changes when demand changes

b)

The change in demand that impacts on price changes

c)

The responsiveness of consumer demand to a change in the price of a good or service

d)

The responsiveness of price to a change in consumer demand

96.

What is the equation for PED?

a)

% Change in quantity demanded ÷ % Change in income\%\ Change\ in\ quantity\ demanded\ \div\ \%\ Change\ in\ income

b)

% Change in price ÷ % Change in quantity demanded\%\ Change\ in\ price\ \div\ \%\ Change\ in\ quantity\ demanded

c)


% Change in quantity demanded ÷ % Change in price\%\ Change\ in\ quantity\ demanded\ \div\ \%\ Change\ in\ price

97.

For normal goods, the PED number will always be (a)  

98.

If PED > 1, demand for a good is said to be price (a)  

99.

The definition of AS is which of the following?

a)

Total supply of goods and services produced within an economy at a given price in a given period

b)

Total of consumer spending, investment, government spending, and net exports

c)

Total demand for goods and services produced within an economy at a given price in a given period

d)

Total supply of goods and services produced for export within an economy

100.

Why does the AS curve slope upwards?

a)

Due to the wealth effect on consumption

b)

As the price level falls the interest rate also tends to fall

c)

Lower prices leads to an increase in demand for exports

d)

Firms do not have flexibility to vary inputs in short run, so will only increase production by varying intensity of utilisation of inputs in response to higher prices

101.

A shift in the AD curve will have what impact on AS?

a)

Shift left

b)

Contraction / expansion

c)

Shift right

102.

The long run aggregate supply curve is influenced by which of the following factors? Choose three.

a)

Size of the workforce

b)

Level of education and training

c)

Prices

d)

Consumer expenditure

e)

Labour productivity

103.

The type of government that has total control over the people and the police use power by force is called what?

a)

Anarchy

b)

Monarchy

c)

Limited

d)

Authoritarian

104.
In this type of economy, the people decide the supply, demand, and price.  
a)
Market 
b)
Traditional
c)
Command 
d)
Mixed
105.

Which type of economy has central ownership, the government, and lack of individual choice?

a)

Market

b)

Mixed

c)

Command

d)

Traditional

106.
Which type of economy is usually paired with a Communist government?
a)
Mixed
b)
Market
c)
Command
d)
Traditional
107.

Capitalism is in what type of economy?

a)

Traditional

b)

Command

c)

Market

d)

Authortarian

108.

What do you call to the payment for the use of land?

a)

rent

b)

spending

c)

income

d)

capital

109.
Lotteries, markets, barter, rationing, and redistribution of income are all methods commonly used to 
 
a)
A allocate scarce resources.
b)
 B collect taxes.
c)
C improve productivity. 
d)
 D invest in education and technology.
110.
  Competition and free enterprise are most common in which type of economic system? 
a)
A traditional
b)
 B market
c)
C communist
d)
D planned
111.
If the US dollar appreciates relative to the Canadian dollar, what is a likely outcome?
a)
trade surplus in US
b)
trade deficit in Canada
c)
trade deficit in both
d)
trade surplus in Canada
112.
Importing more than exporting is
a)
trade surplus
b)
trade deficit
c)
balance of trade
d)
balance of payment
113.
Prices at which currencies are traded is called...
a)
Exchange Currency
b)
Exchange Rate
c)
Foreign Exchange Market
d)
Local Currency Demand
114.
What is inflation?
a)
rise in all prices
b)
rise in most prices
c)
rise in some prices
d)
rise in general prices
115.

According to the table, what is the Euro equivalent of 1 USD?

a)

1.32 Euros

b)

0.53 Euros

c)

.76 Euros

d)

1.59 Euros

116.

If the AUD were to appreciate in the relation to the USD, what effect would this have?

a)

Australian imports become cheaper.

b)

Australian exports become more expensive to American buyers.

c)

Australian imports become more expensive.

d)

Australian exports become less expensive to American buyers.

117.

What is the aim of contractionary monetary policy?

a)

Stimulate the economy

b)

Encourage people to buy more, increasing inflation

c)

Lower demand and reduce inflation

d)

Raise employment levels

118.

Which of these is a fiscal policy tool?

a)

Interest rates

b)

Exchange rate

c)

Money supply

d)

Taxation

119.

The graphs show how consumer prices and real GDP changed in a country between 1995 and 2005. Which conclusion may be drawn from the graphs?

a)

Living standards remained roughly constant between 1995 and 2005.

b)

The level of GDP was lower in 2005 than in 2000.

c)

The country experienced continuous economic growth between 1995 and 2005.

d)

The price level fell between 2000 and 2003.

120.

What is a tariff?

a)

Tax on imported goods

b)

To stop trading with a business or country

c)

A limit on imported goods

121.

A quota is a limit on an imported good. Which is an example of a quota helping local farmers?

a)

Taxing corn from another country.

b)

Allowing less corn to be bought from other countries' farms.

c)

To stop buying corn from another country

122.

1 A village is over 10 miles away from the nearest two towns. The village shop sells bread. For someone living in the village wanting to buy bread, the shop is a

a)

competitor

b)

monopolist

c)

oligopolist

d)

specialist

123.

Firms need to survive in a market. Which of the following is an example of a suitable method to survive?

a)

Encourage existing customers to return

b)

Enter into competition with consumers

c)

Provide an external economy of scale

d)

Reduce total supply

124.

An oligopoly differs from a competitive market because

a)

a competitive market has larger firms than an oligopoly

b)

a competitive market has lower barriers to entry than an oligopoly

c)

firms in an oligopoly do not differentiate their products

d)

firms in an oligopoly only compete on price

125.

A market is an oligopoly if

a)

each of the firms in the market has only a few customers

b)

each of the firms in the market makes many products

c)

most of the market is supplied by a small number of firm

d)

there is only one firm in the market

126.

A characteristic of a monopoly is that there is an absence of

a)

competition

b)

economies of scale

c)

opportunity cost

d)

productivity

127.
Which of the following is most likely built by the government with tax money?
a)
grocery stores
b)
barber shops
c)
roads
d)
your toys
128.

A market starts in equilibrium and then demand falls. Which of the following is most likely to happen?

a)

A higher equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity

b)

A higher equilibrium price and lower equilibrium quantity

c)

A lower equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity

d)

A lower equilibrium price and higher equilibrium quantity

129.

You put £100 into a bank account at the start of the year. One year later your account is worth £105. What is the interest rate you have received?

a)

0.5%

b)

5 %

c)

10 %

d)

15 %

130.

The table shows the total costs of a firm. It sells its output for £5 each. How many units of output per day does the firm need to sell to maximise profits?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

131.

In a competitive market...

a)

the government must control the price

b)

the item that is traded must be a good

c)

the item that is traded must be a service

d)

there must be many sellers

132.

The table shows the value of the output of an economy. Which of the following statements is true for this economy?

a)

The primary sector is the largest

b)

The tertiary sector is the largest

c)

The tertiary sector is the same size as the primary sector

d)

The value of the primary sector is £70 billion