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3-STAAR TEST

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 2hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A person with swollen gums rinses his mouth with warm salt water, and the swelling decreases. Which has occurred?

a)

The swollen gums have absorbed the saltwater solution

b)

The saltwater solution lowers the temperature in the gums

c)

The salt in the solution has moved against the concentration gradient

d)

The water in the gums has moved from a high to a low concentration of water

2.

Which organism is most likely to use anaerobic respiration?

a)

bird

b)

moss

c)

tree

d)

yeast

3.

Which amino acid sequence can be coded from the DNA sequence CAG TAG CGA?

a)

Valine - Isoleucine - Glycine

b)

Valine - Aspartic Acid - Alanine

c)

Valine - Isoleucine - Alanine

d)

Valine - Phenylalanine - Alanine

4.

Which disease most likely occurs after excessive exposure to ultraviolet radiation?

a)

malaria

b)

asthma

c)

skin cancer

d)

polio

5.

RNA and DNA are which type of organic compound?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

nucleic acid

d)

protein

6.

Which is an example of osmosis?

a)

potassium ions moving in and out of an animal cell

b)

carbon dioxide moving into the leaf cells of a plant

c)

oxygen moving into the bloodstream from the lungs

d)

water moving into the root cells of a plant

7.

A scientist treats a cell with a chemical that destroys the ribosomes. As a result, which cell process will be stopped?

a)

osmosis

b)

photosynthesis

c)

protein synthesis

d)

respiration

8.

Hitchhiker’s thumb (H) is dominant to no hitchhiker’s thumb (h). A woman who does not have hitchhiker’s thumb marries a man who is heterozygous for hitchhiker’s thumb. What is the probable genotypic ratio of their children?

a)

0% Hh : 100% hh

b)

50% Hh : 50% hh

c)

75% Hh : 25% hh

d)

100% Hh : 0% hh

9.

What will most likely be the result if all of the mitochondria are removed from a plant cell?

a)

It will be unable to carry out respiration

b)

It will lose water through osmosis

c)

It will break down the ribosomes in the cell

d)

It will be unable to photosynthesize

10.

During strenuous exercise, body temperature increases. The body responds to the increase in temperature by sweating, which helps to reduce the body temperature. Which is demonstrated in this situation?

a)

excretion

b)

metabolism

c)

homeostasis

d)

synthesis

11.

What is the function of autotrophs in the carbon cycle?

a)

To use oxygen to produce glucose

b)

To take in excess water

c)

To use carbon dioxide to produce glucose

d)

To feed herbivores

12.

A strand of DNA has these bases:

AGC CAT GTA TAC

What is the complementary DNA strand?

a)

ACG GAT CTA TAG

b)

TCG GTA CAT ATG

c)

TGC CTA GAT ATC

d)

UCG CUA CAU AUG

13.

What is the difference between the full classification of organisms and their scientific names?

a)

The full classification of organisms and their scientific names vary in different countries.

b)

The scientific names of organisms include the order and family of the organisms, but the full classification includes only the species name.

c)

The full classification of organisms will include more categories of organisms than their scientific names.

d)

The scientific names of organisms include a single nomenclature, but the full classification includes various nomenclatures.

14.

What type of organic molecule are enzymes?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

proteins

15.

How does the amount of energy resulting from fermentation compare with that of aerobic respiration?

a)

Aerobic respiration results in less energy

b)

Aerobic respiration results in more energy

c)

Each process results in equal amounts of energy

d)

Each process results in variable amounts of energy

16.

Which best explains why muscle cells are different from blood cells?

a)

A mutation occurs during the development of muscle cells but not in blood cells.

b)

Different genes are activated in muscle cells than in blood cells.

c)

Muscles cells experience different environmental influences than blood cells.

d)

Muscle cells are produced by the brain, but blood cells are produced by the heart.

17.

During which phase of the cell cycle is the cell growing and preparing for cellular division?

a)

cytokinesis

b)

anaphase

c)

prophase

d)

interphase

18.

The yucca plant releases a strong scent at night when the yucca moth is active. The yucca moth, attracted by the scent, gathers pollen from the yucca flower. The yucca moth then deposits her eggs and the pollen on another plant. This ensures that the plant will be cross-pollinated and that the yucca moth larvae have a steady food supply. Which relationship does this best illustrate?

a)

commensalism

b)

mutualism

c)

parasitism

d)

predation

19.

Which environmental concern is most associated with burning fossil fuels?

a)

global climate change

b)

pollution of ocean waters

c)

ozone layer destruction

d)

decrease in levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide

20.

Which is a step in the process of producing transgenic bacteria?

a)

A plasmid is used to replace a faulty gene in a human cell.

b)

A chain of bacterial amino acids is inserted into human DNA.

c)

A human gene is inserted into a bacterial plasmid.

d)

A mutation is produced in a bacterial cell.

21.

Unit 4

In order to make a new cell, there is a process that must be followed in a particular order. We usually abbreviate it as IPMAT.

Place the following stages of making a new cell in the correct order.

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
22.

Unit 4

Scientists determined the total mass of DNA from a sample of animal cells. The masses of equal numbers of cells were taken during three different stages of the cell cycle. Stage I contains cells massed during G1 of the cell cycle.

Which statement best describes the cells during Stage II ?

a)

The cells have replicated their DNA but have not completed mitosis and cytokinesis

b)

The cells have completed mitosis and cytokinesis without replicating their DNA

c)

The cells have replicated their DNA and completed mitosis and cytokinesis

d)

The cells have temporarily exited the cell cycle without replicating their DNA

23.

Unit 4

The life cycle of a frog is illustrated in the diagram.

Which statement best explains how the cell cycle is important to the life cycle of the frog?

a)

It enables frogs to produce tadpoles that are clones

b)

It allows frogs to grow, develop, and reproduce

c)

It prevents overproduction of frog offspring

d)

It ensures the best adapted frogs survive and pass on traits to offspring

24.

Unit 4

The diagram shows the major stages of the cell cycle and the percentage of time spent in each phase.

Which statement best describes why a cell spends the majority of its time in interphase?

a)

The cell is growing and carrying out processes such as metabolism and DNA replication

b)

The cell is aging and processes are stopping as lysosomes clear dead cell matter away

c)

The cell needs time to synthesize spindle fibers to complete mitosis

d)

The cell needs time to complete cytokinesis

25.

Unit 4

Some cells can die as a result of external agents such as poison or trauma. If this event occurs to the cell, then the cell receives a chemical message that indicates the cell must die. This programmed cell death is called ---​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
apoptosis
nuclear division
a tumor
reduction division
26.

Unit 4

Indicate on the cell cycle image the place where DNA is unzipped and binds with its complementary strand to then create a duplicate of its DNA. This is sometime referred to as DNA replication.

27.

Unit 4

Using the image of the cell cycle, label the cell cycle.

(Make sure you drag the labels and place on the letters in the diagram.)

28.

Unit 4

Which of these processes does not occur as part of the cell cycle in animal cells?

a)

Mitochondrial DNA is released into the cytoplasm

b)

Two identical copies of chromosomes are produced

c)

Cell growth and mRNA synthesis occurs

d)

Nuclear DNA is replicated

29.

Unit 4

Erwin Chargaff examined DNA samples from different organisms to study base pairing. Some data from the samples is shown here in the table.

Which conclusion is supported by the data in the table?

a)

Each organism contains more cytosine than any other base

b)

The three organisms have the same sequence of nucleotides.

c)

All three organisms contain the same types of nitrogen bases.

d)

The presence of each base is dependent on the size of the organism.

30.

Unit 4

The DNA backbone is made up of 2 components which are ​ (a)   ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​​

Choose from the below words
deoxyribose and phosphate group
pyrimidines and purines
phosphate groups and pyrimidines
31.

Unit 5

Match the correct complementary DNA bases for this segment of DNA

3' AGGTCAGGTAACGTA 5'

a)

TCC

b)

AGT

c)

CCA

d)

TTG

e)

CAT

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
32.

Unit 6

In Texas Longhorn cattle, coat coloration is an inherited trait. What is the genetic basis of coat-color variation in Texas Longhorn cattle?

a)

Differences in the nucleotide sequences of genes.

b)

Differences in the numbers of chromosomes in cells.

c)

Differences in the diets of individual cattle.

d)

Differences in the environmental conditions of different geographic areas.

33.

Units 4, 5, and 6

Which statement best describes a similarity among trees, cats, amoebas, bacteria, fungi, moss, birds, humans...?

a)

They are prokaryotic organisms

b)

They are classified as members of the same kingdom

c)

They have genomes that consist of the same number of genes

d)

They contain DNA composed of the same four types of nucleotides.

34.

Unit 4

Identify the part of the DNA segment that is labeled "X" in the diagram.​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
hydrogen bond
phosphate
adenine
guanine
deoxyribose sugar
cytosine
thymine
35.

Units 4, 5, and 6

Which area of the DNA is associated with the coding of genetic information?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

None

36.

Unit 4

Using the diagram, identify the parts that make up the DNA backbone. ​ (a)   and ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
A
B
C
37.

Unit 5

An illustration of how a particular DNA mutation will most likely affect the polypeptide produced is shown.

What type of mutation is illustrated?

a)

Insertion

b)

Translocation

c)

Substitution

d)

Deletion

38.

Unit 6

Exposure to the building material asbestos has been linked to certain types of cancers. Asbestos causes mutations in the p53 gene, which controls tumor suppression.

Which statement best explains why people with cancer due to asbestos exposure do not pass the mutation on to their offspring?

a)

The mutation occurred in gametic cells

b)

The mutation occurred in somatic cells

c)

The mutation is recessive

d)

The mutation is sex-linked

39.

Unit 4 and Unit 6

Which statements explain how a mutation in a somatic cell is different from a mutation that occurs in a gamete cell?

a)

Somatic cell mutations occur in cells that give rise to gamets. Gamete mutations occur in cells that result in apoptosis.

b)

Somatic cell mutations are maintained in the gene pool. Gamete mutations are expelled from the gene pool.

c)

Somatic cell mutations are generally not passed to offspring. Gamete mutations are usually passed to offspring.

d)

Somatic cell mutations will not be expressed by the individual that contains the mutation. Gamete mutations will be expressed by the individual.

40.

Unit 5

The model shows a mutation to a partial sequence of bases in a gene.

Which type of mutation does the model demonstrate?

a)

Deletion

b)

Insertion

c)

Substitution

d)

Translocation

41.

Unit 4 (HINT...pay attention to the word somatic)

When a new mutation occurs in a somatic cell of a sexually reproducing organism, what percentage of the individual's offspring are likely to inherit the mutation?

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

0%

42.

Unit 8

A cladogram of 5 species is shown.

Looking at the labels in the diagram, highlight the area with the words that identifies what 2 traits the ancestral species most likely had.

43.

Unit 6

Some angelfish colors are determined by codominance. Possible phenotypes and genotypes of angelfish colors are shown.

Which table shows the expected phenotypes of offspring resulting from a cross between a black angelfish and a black-lace angelfish?

a)
b)
c)
d)
44.

Unit 6

A model of the genetic control of coat color in rabbits is shown.

Which Punnett square represents a cross that would produce albino offspring?

a)
b)
c)
d)
45.

Unit 6

In domesticated dogs, hair type is controlled by two different alleles.

The allele for wire hair is (H) and the allele for smooth hair is (h).

When two heterozygous dogs are crossed, what percentage of the offspring is expected to be homozygous for smooth hair?

Hint...what are the alleles to make a smooth hair dog?

a)

HH

b)

Hh

c)

hH

d)

hh

46.

Unit 6

A cellular process is shown.

Which of these is the most likely result of the process shown in the diagram?

a)

Chromosome replication will cease to avoid errors that result in mutations.

b)

Offspring will no longer express traits from previous generations.

c)

Gametes will contain new allele combinations.

d)

Chromatids will have less genetic variety.

47.

Unit 3

A model of an enzyme and its corresponding substrate are shown.

Which model best represents the molecules at the end of the reaction?

a)
b)
c)
d)
48.

Unit 1

A table comparing characteristics of four samples is shown.

Which sample most likely is identifying viruses?

a)

Sample 1

b)

Sample 2

c)

Sample 3

d)

Sample 4

49.

Unit 9

Breaking down food for nutrients involves many body systems. A student made a partial list of the processes that occur.

Which body systems interact most directly in the three listed processes?

a)

Digestive

Integumentary

Muscular

b)

Excretory

Immune

Muscular

c)

Circulatory

Excretory

Immune

d)

Circulatory

Digestive

Endocrine

50.

Unit 1

A student makes a Venn diagram to compare the functions of carbohydrates and lipids.

Which cellular function of carbohydrates and lipids should be placed in the shared section of the Venn diagram?

a)

Hormone production

b)

Structural support of cell walls

c)

Energy storage

d)

Catalyst for chemical reactions

51.

Unit 11

Place the following in the correct order from smallest to largest.

​ (a)   --> organ system --> (b)   --> population--> ​ (c)  

Choose from the below words
organ
organism
Community
ecosystem
tissue
cell
52.

Unit 6

The inheritance pattern for an autosomal dominant trait is shown in the pedigree. Shaded symbols represent individuals that express the dominant trait.

Based on this pedigree, what are the most likely genotypes of individuals I-1 and I-2?

a)

I-1: aa

I-2: Aa

b)

I-1: AA

I-2: Aa

c)

I-1: Aa

I-2: aa

d)

I-1: aa

I-2: AA

53.

Unit 11

A partial Texas food web is shown.

The populations of which organisms will most likely increase as a result of a disease that suddenly reduced the population of Texas horned lizards.

a)

Grasses and Ants

b)

Ants and Grasshoppers

c)

Grasshoppers and Texas cottonmouth snakes

d)

Texas cottonmouth snakes and Red-shouldered hawks

54.

Unit 11

The defenses of two flightless birds that have different habitats.

How do the wings of the Gentoo Penguin and the legs of the Common Ostrich provide an advantage in their habitat?

a)

Allows them to find prey

b)

Allows them to escape predators

c)

Allows them to control their body temperature

d)

Allows them to be camouflaged in their environment

55.

Unit 4

Which property is shared by the cells of all living organisms?

a)

The cells contain DNA composed of adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine

b)

The cells are surrounded by a phospholipid bilayer and a cell wall made of cellulose

c)

The cells have chromosomes that are located inside a membrane-bound nucleus

d)

The cells rely on mitochondria to carry out aerobic cellular respiration

56.

Unit 3

Photosynthesis always starts with plants.

Drag and drop the order of the chemical equation for photosynthesis.

6​ (a)   + 6​ (b)   + radiant energy -----> ​ (c)   + 6​ (d)  

Choose from the below words
CO2
H2O
C6H12O6
O2
57.

Unit 6

CRISPR-cas9 is a genetic modification technique that edits parts of the genome of an organism. Using this technique scientists can add, remove, or modify sections of the DNA sequence.

How can scientists use this technique to control gene expression?

a)

by activating or deactivating specific genes

b)

by calculating the number of genes different organisms produce

c)

by identifying how closely related one individual is to another

d)

by determining the number of chromosomes in an organism

58.

Unit 11

A biomass pyramid of an ecosystem is shown.

Which statement provides the best explanation for the difference in biomass of organisms found at each trophic level?

a)

Organisms at higher trophic levels have less energy available to them than organisms at lower trophic levels.

b)

Organisms at higher trophic levels require smaller habitats than organisms at lower trophic levels.

c)

Organisms at lower trophic levels provide less energy than organisms at higher trophic levels.

d)

Organisms at lower trophic levels outcompete organisms at higher trophic levels.

59.

Unit 2

Which statement describes the process of osmosis in an animal cell?

a)

sugar molecules move across the plasma membrane until the cell has enough energy to grow in size and divide.

b)

water molecules move across the plasma membrane until solute concentrations are equal on both sides of the membrane.

c)

ions move across the plasma membrane until the inside of the cell has a higher concentration of positive charges.

d)

enzymes move across the plasma membrane until the cell has completed metabolism.

60.

Units 3 and 4

Which statements best compare the function of an ATP molecule to a DNA molecule?

a)

ATP carries and transmits the genetic information of organisms.

DNA serves as a biological catalyst that speeds up the rate of chemical reactions.

b)

ATP provides energy for chemical reactions in the cell.

DNA carries and transmits the genetic information of organisms.

c)

ATP serves as a biological catalyst that speeds up the rate of chemical reactions.

DNA acts as a structural sugar in the cell walls of plants.

d)

ATP acts as a structural sugar in the cell wall of plants.

DNA provides energy for chemical reactions in the cell.

61.

Unit 1 and Unit 8

Look carefully at the picture and decide what the adaptations

CILIA, PSEUDOPOD and FLAGELLA are used for?

a)

breathing

b)

making ATP

c)

motility

d)

cell signaling

62.

Unit 8

Which is not an example of a plant-like protist?​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
Bacteria
Diatom
Euglena
Algae
Amoeba
Paramecium
63.

Unit 8

What type of cells are Protists?

a)

Prokaryotic cells

b)

Eukaryotic cells

64.

Unit 3

The diagram shows molecules that a mitochondrion uses and produces during a cellular process.

Which other molecule is a product of this process?

(pyruvate is a fuel used to power mitochondria)

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

C6H12O6

d)

ATP / Release of Heat

65.

Unit 1 and Unit 8

(HINT: left picture is a paramecium/ protist)

A prokaryotic cell and a eukaryotic cell are shown.

Which characteristic best distinguishes these cells as either prokaryotic or eukaryotic?

a)

The organization of the genetic material

b)

The location of the cytoplasm

c)

The role of the cell membrane

d)

The function of the flagella

66.

Unit 3

Animal cells carry out the process of cellular respiration.

Drag and drop in the correct order the chemical formula for cellular respiration

​ (a)   + 6​ (b)   -----> 6​ (c)   + 6​ ​ (d)   + release of body heat

Choose from the below words
C6H12O6
O2
CO2
H2O