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Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

____________ is/ are a real asset(s).

a)

Only hand

b)

Only machines

c)

Only stocks and bonds

d)

Only knowledge

e)

Land, machines, and knowledge are real assets

2.

Financial assets ______. 

a)

directly contribute to the country's productive capacity

b)

indirectly contribute to the country's productive capacity

c)

contribute to the country's productive capacity both directly and indirectly

d)

do not contribute to the country's productive capacity either directly or indirectly

e)

are of no value to anyone

3.

A fixed-income security pays ____________. 

a)

a fixed level of income for the life of the owner

b)

a fixed stream of income or a stream of income that is determined according to a specified formula for the life of the security

c)

a variable level of income for owners on a fixed income

d)

a fixed or variable income stream at the option of the owner

e)

a riskless return that is fixed for life

4.

Money market securities ____________. 

a)

are short term

b)

are highly marketable

c)

are generally very low risk

d)

are short term, highly marketable, and generally very low risk

e)

highly marketable and generally very low risk

5.

An example of a derivative security is/are ______. 

a)

a common share of Microsoft

b)

an Intel bond

c)

a commodity futures contract and a call option on Intel stock

d)

a call option on Intel stock and an Intel bond

e)

a common share of Intel stock

6.

Financial assets can permit all of the following except ____________

a)

consumption timing

b)

allocation of risk

c)

separation of ownership and control

d)

elimination of risk

e)

easy transfer of ownership

7.

The ____________ refers to the potential conflict between management and shareholders. 

a)

agency problem

b)

diversification problem

c)

liquidity problem

d)

solvency problem

e)

regulatory problem

8.

Which of the following are mechanisms that have evolved to mitigate potential agency problems?

a)

Compensation in the form of the firm's stock options

b)

Hiring bickering family members as corporate spies

c)

Underperforming management teams being forced out by boards of directors

d)

Security analysts monitoring the firm closely

e)

Takeover threats 

9.

Theoretically, takeovers should result in ___________. 

a)

improved management

b)

increased stock price

c)

increased benefits to existing management of taken over firm

d)

improved management and increased stock price

e)

worse management and decreased stock price

10.

Asset allocation refers to ____________

a)

choosing which securities to hold based on their valuation

b)

investing only in "safe" securities

c)

the allocation of assets into broad asset classes

d)

bottom-up analysis

e)

top-down analysis

11.

Security selection refers to ____________. 

a)

choosing which securities to hold based on their valuation

b)

investing only in "safe" securities

c)

the allocation of assets into broad asset classes

d)

top-down analysis

e)

moving assets between stocks and bonds

12.

Commercial banks differ from other businesses in that both their assets and their liabilities are mostly ________.

a)

illiquid

b)

financial

c)

real

d)

owned by the government

e)

regulated

13.

Investors trade previously issued securities in the ________ market(s). 

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

primary and secondary

d)

derivatives

e)

primary and derivatives

14.

Which of the following is true about mortgage-backed securities?

a)

They aggregate individual home mortgages into homogeneous pools.

b)

The purchaser receives monthly interest and principal payments received from payments made on the pool.

c)

The banks that originated the mortgages maintain ownership of them

d)

The banks that originated the mortgages continue to service them.

15.

________ specialize in helping companies raise capital by selling securities. 

a)

commercial bankers

b)

investment bankers

c)

investment issuers

d)

credit raters

e)

commercial bankers, investment bankers, investment issuers, and credit raters

16.

Financial intermediaries exist because small investors cannot efficiently ________. 

a)

diversify their portfolios

b)

assess credit risk of borrowers

c)

advertise for needed investments

d)

diversify their portfolios, assess credit risk of borrowers, or advertise for needed investments

e)

diversify their portfolios or assess credit risk of borrowers

17.

_______ are examples of financial intermediaries

a)

Commercial banks

b)

Insurance companies

c)

Investment companies

d)

Credit unions

e)

Commercial banks, insurance companies, investment companies, and credit unions

18.

Which of the following portfolio construction methods starts with asset allocation? 

a)

Top-down

b)

Bottom-up

c)

Middle-out

d)

Buy and hold

e)

Asset allocation

19.

The means by which individuals hold their claims on real assets in a well-developed economy are 

a)

Investment assets

b)

Depository assets

c)

Derivative assets

d)

Financial assets

e)

Exchange-driven assets

20.

The material wealth of a society is a function of _________. 

a)

all financial assets

b)

all real assets

c)

all financial and real assets

d)

all physical assets

e)

all commodities

21.

Which of the following is/are not characteristic of a money market instrument? 

a)

Liquidity

b)

Marketability

c)

Long maturity

d)

Liquidity premium

e)

Long maturity and liquidity premium

22.

Which one of the following is not a money market instrument? 

a)

A Treasury bill

b)

A negotiable certificate of deposit

c)

Commercial paper

d)

A Treasury bond

e)

A Eurodollar account

23.

T-bills are financial instruments initially sold by ________ to raise funds

a)

commercial banks

b)

the U.S. government

c)

state and local governments

d)

agencies of the federal government

e)

the U.S. government and agencies of the federal government

24.

The bid price of a T-bill in the secondary market is 

a)

the price at which the dealer in T-bills is willing to sell the bill

b)

the price at which the dealer in T-bills is willing to buy the bill.

c)

greater than the asked price of the T-bill

d)

the price at which the investor can buy the T-bill

e)

never quoted in the financial press

25.

Which of the following is not a component of the money market? 

a)

Repurchase agreements

b)

Eurodollars

c)

Real estate investment trusts

d)

Money market mutual funds

e)

Commercial paper

26.

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding municipal bonds?

a)

A municipal bond is a debt obligation issued by state or local governments

b)

A municipal bond is a debt obligation issued by the federal government

c)

The interest income from a municipal bond is exempt from federal income taxation.

d)

The interest income from a municipal bond is exempt from state and local taxation in the issuing state. 

27.

Which of the following statements is true regarding a corporate bond? 

a)

A corporate callable bond gives the holder the right to exchange it for a specified number of the company's common shares

b)

A corporate debenture is a secured bond

c)

A corporate indenture is a secured bond

d)

A corporate convertible bond gives the holder the right to exchange the bond for a specified number of the company's common shares.

e)

Holders of corporate bonds have voting rights in the company

28.

In the event of the firm's bankruptcy 

a)

the most shareholders can lose is their original investment in the firm's stock.

b)

common shareholders are the first in line to receive their claims on the firm's assets.

c)

bondholders have claim to what is left from the liquidation of the firm's assets after paying the shareholders

d)

the claims of preferred shareholders are honored before those of the common shareholders.

e)

the most shareholders can lose is their original investment in the firm's stock and the claims of preferred shareholders are honored before those of the common shareholders

29.

Which of the following is true regarding a firm's securities? 

a)

Common dividends are paid before preferred dividends

b)

Preferred stockholders have voting rights

c)

Preferred dividends are usually cumulative.

d)

Preferred dividends are contractual obligations

e)

Common dividends usually can be paid if preferred dividends have been skipped

30.

The price quotations of Treasury bonds in the Wall Street Journal show an ask price of 104:08 and a bid price of 104:04. As a buyer of the bond what is the dollar price you expect to pay?

a)

$1,048.00

b)

$1,042.50

c)

$1,044.00

d)

$1,041.25

e)

$1,040.40

31.

If a Treasury note has a bid price of $995, the quoted bid price in the Wall Street Journal would be 

a)

99:50

b)

99:16

c)

99:80

d)

99:24

e)

99:32

32.

A form of short-term borrowing by dealers in government securities is

a)

reserve requirements

b)

repurchase agreements

c)

banker's acceptances

d)

commercial paper

e)

brokers' calls

33.

Which of the following securities is a money market instrument? 

a)

Treasury note

b)

Treasury bond

c)

Municipal bond

d)

Commercial paper

e)

Mortgage security

34.

Bond market indexes can be difficult to construct because 

a)

they cannot be based on firms' market values

b)

bonds tend to trade infrequently, making price information difficult to obtain

c)

there are so many different kinds of bonds

d)

prices cannot be obtained for companies that operate in emerging markets

e)

corporations are not required to disclose the details of their bond issues

35.

A bond that can be retired prior to maturity by the issuer is a ____________ bond.

a)

convertible

b)

secured

c)

unsecured

d)

callable

e)

Yankee

36.

Which of the following are characteristics of preferred stock?

a)

It pays its holder a fixed amount of income each year, at the discretion of its managers.

b)

It gives its holder voting power in the firm

c)

Its dividends are usually cumulative

d)

Failure to pay dividends may result in bankruptcy proceedings

37.

In the context of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) the relevant measure of risk is 

a)

unique risk

b)

beta

c)

standard deviation of returns

d)

variance of returns

e)

skewness

38.

In the context of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) the relevant risk is 

a)

unique risk

b)

market risk

c)

tandard deviation of returns

d)

variance of returns

e)

semi-variance

39.

According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) a well diversified portfolio's rate of return is a function of 

a)

market risk

b)

unsystematic risk

c)

unique risk

d)

reinvestment risk

e)

interest rate risk

40.

According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) a well diversified portfolio's rate of return is a function of 

a)

beta risk

b)

unsystematic risk

c)

unique risk

d)

reinvestment risk

e)

interest rate risk

41.

Which statement is not true regarding the market portfolio? 

a)

It includes all publicly traded financial assets

b)

It lies on the efficient frontier

c)

All securities in the market portfolio are held in proportion to their market values

d)

It is the tangency point between the capital market line and the indifference curve

e)

it lies on a line that represents the expected risk-return relationship

42.

Which statement is true regarding the market portfolio? 

a)

It includes all publicly traded financial assets.

b)

It lies on the efficient frontier

c)

All securities in the market portfolio are held in proportion to their market values

d)

It is the tangency point between the capital market line and the indifference curve

e)

It includes all publicly traded financial assets, lies on the efficient frontier, and all securities in the market portfolio are held in proportion to their market values

43.

Which statement is not true regarding the Capital Market Line (CML)? 

a)

The CML is the line from the risk-free rate through the market portfolio

b)

The CML is the best attainable capital allocation line

c)

The CML is also called the security market line

d)

The CML always has a positive slope

e)

The risk measure for the CML is standard deviation

44.

. The Security Market Line (SML) is 

a)

the line that describes the expected return-beta relationship for well-diversified portfolios only

b)

also called the Capital Allocation Line

c)

the line that is tangent to the efficient frontier of all risky assets

d)

the line that represents the expected return-beta relationship

e)

also called the Capital Market Line

45.

According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), underpriced securities 

a)

have positive betas

b)

have zero alphas

c)

have negative betas

d)

have positive alphas

e)

have negative alphas

46.

The expected return-beta relationship 

a)

is the most familiar expression of the CAPM to practitioners

b)

refers to the way in which the covariance between the returns on a stock and returns on the market measures the contribution of the stock to the variance of the market portfolio, which is beta

c)

assumes that investors hold well-diversified portfolios

d)

assumes that investors hold well-diversified portfolios, is the most familiar expression of the CAPM to practitioners, and refers to the way in which the covariance between the returns on a stock and returns on the market measures the contribution of the stock to the variance of the market portfolio, which is beta

e)

assumes that investors do not hold well-diversified portfolios

47.

The capital asset pricing model assumes

a)

all investors are rational

b)

all investors have the same holding period

c)

investors have heterogeneous expectations

d)

all investors are rational, and all investors have the same holding period

e)

all investors are rational, all investors have the same holding period, and investors have heterogeneous expectations

48.

The capital asset pricing model assumes 

a)

all investors are price takers

b)

all investors have the same holding period

c)

investors pay taxes on capital gains

d)

all investors are price takers and all investors have the same holding period

e)

all investors are price takers, all investors have the same holding period, and investors pay taxes on capital gains

49.

In equilibrium, the marginal price of risk for a risky security must be 

a)

equal to the marginal price of risk for the market portfolio

b)

greater than the marginal price of risk for the market portfolio

c)

less than the marginal price of risk for the market portfolio

d)

adjusted by its degree of nonsystematic risk

e)

unrelated to the marginal price of risk for the market portfolio

50.

The risk premium on the market portfolio will be proportional to

a)

the average degree of risk aversion of the investor population

b)

the risk of the market portfolio as measured by its variance

c)

the risk of the market portfolio as measured by its beta

d)

both the average degree of risk aversion of the investor population and the risk of the market portfolio as measured by its variance

e)

both the average degree of risk aversion of the investor population and the risk of the market portfolio as measured by its beta

51.

An underpriced security will plot

a)

on the Security Market Line

b)

below the Security Market Line

c)

above the Security Market Line

d)

either above or below the Security Market Line depending on its covariance with the market

e)

either above or below the Security Market Line depending on its standard deviation

52.

The security market line (SML) 

a)

can be portrayed graphically as the expected return-beta relationship

b)

can be portrayed graphically as the expected return-standard deviation of market returns relationship

c)

provides a benchmark for evaluation of investment performance

d)

can be portrayed graphically as the expected return-beta relationship and provides a benchmark for evaluation of investment performance

e)

can be portrayed graphically as the expected return-standard deviation of market returns relationship and provides a benchmark for evaluation of investment performance

53.

In a well diversified portfolio 

a)

market risk is negligible

b)

systematic risk is negligible

c)

unsystematic risk is negligible

d)

nondiversifiable risk is negligible

e)

risk does not exist

54.

According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), which one of the following statements is false

a)

The expected rate of return on a security increases in direct proportion to a decrease in the risk-free rate

b)

The expected rate of return on a security increases as its beta increases

c)

A fairly priced security has an alpha of zero

d)

In equilibrium, all securities lie on the security market line

e)

All of these are correct

55.

The market risk, beta, of a security is equal to 

a)

the covariance between the security's return and the market return divided by the variance of the market's returns

b)

the covariance between the security and market returns divided by the standard deviation of the market's returns

c)

the variance of the security's returns divided by the covariance between the security and market returns

d)

the variance of the security's returns divided by the variance of the market's returns

e)

the variance of the security's return divided by the standard deviation of the market's returns

56.

The market portfolio has a beta of 

a)

0

b)

1

c)

-1

d)

0.5

e)

0.75

57.

The current yield on a bond is equal to ________. 

a)

annual interest payment divided by the current market price

b)

the yield to maturity

c)

annual interest divided by the par value

d)

the internal rate of return

e)

None of these is correct

58.

If a 7% coupon bond is trading for $975.00, it has a current yield of ____________ percent. 

a)

7.00

b)

6.53

c)

7.24

d)

8.53

e)

7.18

59.

. If a 6.75% coupon bond is trading for $1016.00, it has a current yield of ____________ percent

a)

7.38

b)

6.64

c)

7.25

d)

8.53

e)

7.18

60.

If a 6% coupon bond is trading for $950.00, it has a current yield of ____________ percent

a)

6.5

b)

6.3

c)

6.1

d)

6.0

e)

6.6