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Pneumatic Control Systems Quiz

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is an actuator in pneumatic control systems?

a)

A device that senses a variable other than the controlled variable and sends a feedback signal.

b)

A mechanical device that operates a final control element such as a valve or damper.

c)

The actual value of the controlled variable.

d)

A varying air pressure signal from a controller to an actuator.

2.

What does a controller do in a pneumatic control system?

a)

It operates the final control element directly.

b)

It adjusts the control point of a given controller to compensate for changes in a measured variable.

c)

It senses the controlled variable or receives an input signal from a remote sensing element, compares the signal with the setpoint, and outputs a control signal (branchline pressure) to an actuator.

d)

It reverses the compensation effect when switching from summer to winter or vice versa.

3.

What does the term "Manipulated variable" refer to in pneumatic control systems?

a)

The air line from the air supply system to controllers

b)

Media or energy controlled to achieve a desired controlled variable condition

c)

A device that detects and measures the controlled variable

d)

The variation in the sensed media that causes the sensor output to vary

4.

What is the purpose of a "Restrictor" in an air line?

a)

It controls the pressure of the air supply

b)

It detects and measures the controlled variable

c)

It limits the flow of air

d)

It provides a setpoint on the controller scale

5.

What is the definition of "Offset" in the context of pneumatic control systems?

a)

The pressure required to change the controlled variable from 3 to 13 psi

b)

The difference between the actual system control point and its controller setpoint under stable operating conditions

c)

The air leaving an air handling system

d)

A device that responds to changes in temperature and outputs a control signal

6.

What does "N.C." stand for in the abbreviations section?

a)

Normally connected

b)

Normally closed

c)

Normally controlled

d)

Normally clear

7.

What does "Sensor Span" mean?

a)

The air line from the air supply system to controllers

b)

The pressure required to change the controlled variable from 3 to 13 psi

c)

The variation in the sensed media that causes the sensor output to vary between 3 and 15 psi.

d)

The value on the controller scale at which the controller is set

8.

What are the main elements that make up a pneumatic control system?

a)

Compressor, filter, and pressure gauge

b)

Main line distribution system, sensors, and actuators

c)

Valves, dampers, and compressed air supply system

d)

Compressed air supply system, main line distribution system, branch lines, sensors, controllers, actuators, and final control elements

9.

What is the function of the controller in a basic pneumatic control system?

a)

It filters the air coming from the main line.

b)

It regulates its output pressure as a function of temperature, pressure, humidity, or other variable.

c)

It stores the air until it is needed by control equipment.

d)

It removes moisture from the air.

10.

What is the typical pressure range that a controller can vary from zero to energize the actuator in a basic pneumatic control system?

a)

0 to 5 psi

b)

3 to 13 psi

c)

13 to 18 psi

d)

18 to 25 psi

11.

What is the maximum safe air pressure for most pneumatic controls?

a)

13 psi

b)

18 psi

c)

25 psi

d)

30 psi

12.

What is the purpose of the air dryer in the compressed air supply system?

a)

To regulate the output pressure

b)

To remove moisture from the air

c)

To store the air until it is needed

d)

To increase the air pressure

13.

According to the text, what is the role of the final control element in a typical control system?

a)

To filter and dry the air supply

b)

To regulate the branchline pressure

c)

To produce the desired control results

d)

To store the air in a tank

14.

What is the function of a restrictor in a pneumatic control system?

a)

To increase the air pressure in the main line

b)

To control the air supply to the nozzle-flapper assembly

c)

To measure the temperature, humidity, and pressure changes

d)

To amplify the pilot pressure in a bleed system

15.

What happens when the flapper is near the nozzle in a nozzle-flapper assembly?

a)

The branch line pressure decreases significantly

b)

The controller positions the actuator at a preset pressure

c)

Very little air can escape, and the branch line pressure is off zero

d)

The spring tension prevents air from moving through the nozzle

16.

How does a "bleed" control because air "bleeds" continuously from the nozzle?

a)

By increasing the branch line pressure to the mainline pressure

b)

By reducing the branch line pressure to zero

c)

By maintaining the branch line pressure at a constant level

d)

By preventing the spring tension from affecting the nozzle

17.

What is the role of the spring in a nozzle-flapper assembly?

a)

It controls the air supply to the branch line

b)

It measures the changes in the sensed variable

c)

It controls the amount of air escaping by holding the flapper against the nozzle

d)

It restricts the air flow to the main line

18.

In a pilot bleed system, what is the function of the capacity amplifier?

a)

To control the direction and magnitude of the change at the sensing element

b)

To supply air only to a pneumatic amplifier that provides a proportional response

c)

To increase the branch line pressure by supplying air to the system

d)

To provide greater airflow capacity to the pilot pressure but not to the main system

19.

What is the primary function of a signal amplifier in a pneumatic system?

a)

To decrease the level of the input signal

b)

To convert the input signal into an electrical signal

c)

To increase the level of the input signal

d)

To maintain the input signal at a constant level

20.

Why are modern nozzle-flapper systems preferred over feed and bleed systems?

a)

Because they are more complicated and efficient

b)

Because they consume more air

c)

Because they consume less air and are more efficient

d)

Because they require constant adjustment

21.

What is the role of the bleed valve in a feed and bleed system?

a)

To supply main air to the branch line

b)

To exhaust air from the branch line

c)

To increase the branch line pressure

d)

To maintain a constant pressure in the feed valve

22.

What happens to a bimetal strip in a sensing element when it is heated?

a)

It contracts and bends towards the metal with a higher coefficient of expansion

b)

It expands and bends towards the metal with a lower coefficient of expansion

c)

It expands and bends towards the metal with a higher coefficient of expansion

d)

It remains straight and unchanged

23.

Which of the following is a reason why feed and bleed systems are no longer popular?

a)

They are too sensitive to changes in temperature

b)

They are more efficient than modern systems

c)

They consume more air than modern systems

d)

They provide a higher level of amplification

24.

What does a temperature controller consist of according to the text?

a)

A bimetal element linked to a diaphragm

b)

A bimetal element linked to a flapper

c)

A capillary tube linked to a flapper

d)

A rod-and-tube sensor linked to a diaphragm

25.

What is the purpose of the setpoint screw in a temperature controller with a bimetal sensing element?

a)

To adjust the temperature at which the bimetal element reacts

b)

To connect the flapper to the spring

c)

To adjust the branchline pressure directly

d)

To measure the temperature in the duct, tank, or pipe

26.

How does the rod-and-tube sensor operate when the temperature rises?

a)

The rod contracts and the tube expands

b)

The rod and tube both expand

c)

The rod expands and the tube contracts

d)

The rod and tube both contract

27.

What is the typical capillary length for remote-bulb temperature sensors used in bleed-type controllers?

a)

Up to 1.5 meters

b)

Up to 2.5 meters

c)

Up to 3.5 meters

d)

Up to 4.5 meters

28.

What is the main difference between the averaging-element sensor and the remote-bulb sensor?

a)

The averaging-element sensor has no bulb

b)

The averaging-element sensor has a shorter capillary

c)

The averaging-element sensor uses a different liquid fill

d)

The averaging-element sensor has a wider bore

29.

At what temperature is the setpoint usually made for the throttling range of a temperature controller in a pneumatic system?

a)

47°F

b)

72°F

c)

70°F

d)

74°F

30.

What is the branchline pressure for the setpoint at 72°F for a direct acting controller?

a)

3 psi

b)

8 psi

c)

10 psi

d)

13 psi

31.

What type of device is used to adjust the throttling range in a pneumatic controller?

a)

A bimetal element

b)

A capillary tube

c)

A lever arm

d)

A diaphragm pad

32.

What is the function of relays in control circuits between controllers and controlled devices?

a)

To measure temperature

b)

To adjust the throttling range

c)

To perform a function beyond the capacity of the controllers

d)

To control a function between the controllers and controlled devices

33.

What is the purpose of a typical switching relay in a pneumatic control system?

a)

To reduce the air pressure in the system

b)

To amplify, reverse, average, select, and switch controller outputs

c)

To filter the air supply

d)

To connect the controlling pressure to the air compressor

34.

What happens when the pressure at the pilot port reaches the relay operating point?

a)

The diaphragm moves up and connects the normally connected port (O) to the common port

b)

The diaphragm moves down, blocking the normally disconnected (X) port, and connects the normally connected port (O) to the common port

c)

The spring pressure is adjusted

d)

The air compressor stops

35.

What does a pneumatic control system require?

a)

A supply of clean, dry, compressed air

b)

A supply of hydraulic fluid

c)

A supply of refrigerant

d)

A supply of natural gas

36.

What components are typically included in an air supply system?

a)

Compressor, filter, air dryer, air filter, pressure reducing valve, and air tubing

b)

Compressor, hydraulic pump, air dryer, air filter, pressure increasing valve, and air tubing

c)

Filter, air dryer, pressure reducing valve, and hydraulic tubing

d)

Compressor, filter, refrigerant, pressure reducing valve, and air tubing

37.

What is the function of the air compressor in a pneumatic control system?

a)

To provide the power needed to operate all control devices in the system

b)

To filter the air before it enters the system

c)

To reduce the air pressure to a usable level

d)

To cool the air before it is used in the system

38.

How often does a standard air compressor typically start per hour?

a)

Up to six times per hour

b)

Up to twelve times per hour

c)

Up to twenty-four times per hour

d)

Up to thirty times per hour

39.

What triggers the air compressor to stop in a pneumatic control system?

a)

When the air pressure is too low

b)

When the air pressure exceeds a high limit setting

c)

When the air filter is clogged

d)

When the pressure reducing valve fails

40.

What is the purpose of having two compressors or a dual compressor in some applications?

a)

To increase the air pressure

b)

To filter the air more efficiently

c)

To provide redundancy and ensure continuous operation

d)

To reduce the noise level

41.

What is the purpose of a compressor intake filter in oil-less compressors?

a)

To regulate the air pressure

b)

To remove particles that could damage the compressor pump

c)

To cool down the air before it enters the compressor

d)

To collect moisture and oil residue

42.

Where is the intake filter usually located in the equipment room with the compressor?

a)

Outside the room

b)

Inside the air handling unit

c)

At the bottom of the tank

d)

Near the pressure safety relief valve

43.

What is the function of a high pressure safety relief valve?

a)

To filter the air

b)

To cool the air

c)

To open on excessively high tank pressures

d)

To remove moisture from the air

44.

What is the coldest ambient temperature to which tubing is exposed, according to the DRY AIR REQUIREMENT section?

a)

The temperature at which moisture condenses

b)

The temperature of the equipment room

c)

The lowest temperature to which an air line will be exposed

d)

The temperature at which the safety relief valve opens

45.

According to Figure 12, Winter Dew Point Requirement, what happens to the required dew point as the outdoor air temperature increases?

a)

The required dew point decreases

b)

The required dew point remains constant

c)

The required dew point increases

d)

The required dew point is not related to outdoor air temperature

46.

What does Figure 13, Twelve-Month Composite Dew Point Requirement, illustrate?

a)

The relationship between indoor and outdoor temperatures

b)

The average dew point required over a year

c)

The maximum dew point allowed for safety

d)

The dew point requirement for summer only

47.

Which type of drying may be used when main air piping is kept away from outside walls and chilling equipment?

a)

Refrigerant Drying

b)

Desiccant Drying

c)

High-Pressure Drying

d)

Low-Pressure Drying

48.

What is the main advantage of using a refrigerant dryer compared to other methods?

a)

It requires manual drain valve operation.

b)

It has the ability to hold more water.

c)

It provides the greatest system reliability and requires minimal maintenance.

d)

It uses a non cycling operation with a hot gas bypass control.

49.

At what tank pressure can a constant dew point of approximately 35°F be maintained using a refrigerant dryer?

a)

20 psi

b)

50 psi

c)

70 psi

d)

100 psi

50.

What is the purpose of a desiccant in pneumatic control systems?

a)

To cool the air passing through it

b)

To remove moisture from air

c)

To heat the air before it enters the compressor

d)

To filter contaminants from the air

51.

What percentage of its own weight in water is a molecular sieve desiccant capable of absorbing?

(a)  

52.

How is a desiccant regenerated?

a)

By cooling it down to a certain temperature

b)

By heating the desiccant material and removing the resulting water vapor

c)

By passing it through a refrigerant dryer

d)

By increasing the pressure in the desiccant chamber

53.

What is the purpose of the air filter in a pressure reducing valve station?

a)

To regulate the air pressure

b)

To remove solid particulate matter and oil aerosols or mist from the control air

c)

To measure the air pressure

d)

To introduce moisture into the system

54.

What happens to the desiccant in the right chamber (E) of the Typical Heatless Desiccant Dryer Airflow Diagram when the air passes through the orifice (G)?

a)

It becomes saturated with moisture

b)

It becomes the drying agent connected to the compressor

c)

It reduces the chamber pressure to near atmospheric pressure

d)

It coalesces oil from the air

55.

What is the result of oil contamination in compressed air as it appears in the system?

a)

It enhances the performance of the system

b)

It remains in a vapor state throughout the system and does not interfere with operations

c)

It can coalesce while flowing through the system and collect in device filters, orifices, and small passages

d)

It solidifies and blocks the airflow completely

56.

How long does the moisture removal cycle last in the Typical Heatless Desiccant Dryer Airflow Diagram?

a)

15 minutes

b)

30 minutes

c)

45 minutes

d)

60 minutes

57.

What is the most important element of the pressure reducing valve station, as mentioned in the text?

a)

The solenoid

b)

The check valve

c)

The air filter and the PRV

d)

The desiccant chambers

58.

What is the normal setting for outlet pressure after it passes through the Single-Pressure Reducing Valve?

a)

10 psi

b)

20 psi

c)

25 psi

d)

50 psi

59.

What is the typical set relief valve pressure in PRV assemblies to protect control system devices from overpressurization?

a)

10 psi

b)

20 psi

c)

24 psi

d)

50 psi

60.

What happens when the switch-over occurs in a Two-Pressure Reducing Valve?

a)

The valve switches to a lower setting.

b)

The valve exhausts the switch-over chamber.

c)

The valve increases the pilot pressure.

d)

The valve operates an E/P relay to switch the main pressure.

61.

Which type of thermostat is described as a high-capacity, single-temperature thermostat with a capacity amplifier added?

a)

A low-capacity, single-temperature thermostat

b)

A high-capacity, single-temperature thermostat

c)

A pilot-bleed, two-pipe, proportioning thermostat

d)

A dual-acting (heating/cooling) thermostat

62.

What is a dual-acting thermostat typically used for?

a)

Providing proportional control for one specific temperature

b)

Serving as cooling control only

c)

Heating and cooling control with two separate sensing elements

d)

Heating and cooling control with a single sensing element

63.

What is the function of the bimetal in a thermostat with a nozzle-flapper-bimetal assembly?

a)

To control the pilot pressure

b)

To adjust the setpoint temperature

c)

To rebalance the lever system when ambient temperature changes

d)

To switch the main pressure for a heating/cooling system

64.

What is the primary difference between a two-position controller and a proportional controller?

a)

A) A two-position controller changes branchline pressure incrementally, while a proportional controller changes it rapidly.

b)

B) A two-position controller changes branchline pressure in response to changes in the measured condition, while a proportional controller does not.

c)

C) A two-position controller changes branchline pressure rapidly from maximum to minimum or vice versa, while a proportional controller changes it incrementally.

d)

D) A two-position controller operates on a fixed schedule, while a proportional controller changes branchline pressure based on temperature changes.

65.

What does a proportional-integral (PI) controller add to the proportional controller?

a)

A) It adds a component that takes offset into account and eliminates the control point offset from the setpoint.

b)

B) It adds a rapid switching mechanism between maximum and minimum branchline pressure.

c)

C) It adds a fixed schedule of operation independent of the measured condition.

d)

D) It introduces a delay in the response to changes in the measured condition.

66.

Which type of controller system uses a single pipe for both the controller and actuator?

a)

A) Two-pipe system

b)

B) One-pipe system

c)

C) Proportional system

d)

D) Proportional-integral system

67.

In a one-pipe controller system, what is the path of the main air?

a)

A) The main air goes through a restrictor to the actuator only.

b)

B) The main air goes through a restrictor to the controller and then to the actuator.

c)

C) The main air goes directly to the actuator without passing through the controller.

d)

D) The main air is split into two paths, one going to the controller and one to the actuator.

68.

What is the result of decreasing the setpoint in a direct acting thermostat as described in the text?

a)

A) It causes the branchline pressure to increase.

b)

B) It causes the branchline pressure to decrease.

c)

C) It has no effect on the branchline pressure.

d)

D) It reverses the direction of the branchline pressure.

69.

What type of controllers use a constant main air pressure that is alternately switched between two pressures, such as 13 and 18 psi for example?

a)

Temperature controllers

b)

Humidity controllers

c)

Single-pressure controllers

d)

Two-pressure controllers

70.

What happens to the main lever in a bleed-type, low-pressure controller when there is an increase in static pressure?

a)

It moves closer to the nozzle, restricting the airflow through the nozzle.

b)

It moves away from the nozzle, increasing the airflow through the nozzle.

c)

It remains stationary, as it is not affected by static pressure changes.

d)

It triggers the feedback bellows to balance the static pressure on the diaphragm.

71.

What is the primary difference between temperature and humidity controllers?

a)

The type of sensor element used.

b)

The range of pressure they control.

c)

The type of pressure they measure.

d)

The size of the diaphragms.

72.

High-pressure controllers are designed to measure and control pressures and vacuums in what units?

a)

Pounds per square inch or inches of water.

b)

Inches of mercury or inches of water.

c)

Pounds per square inch or inches of mercury.

d)

Cubic feet per minute or gallons per hour.

73.

What is the function of the feedback bellows in the bleed-type static pressure controller diagram?

a)

It measures the static pressure in the duct.

b)

It balances the static pressure on the diaphragm.

c)

It adjusts the setpoint spring tension.

d)

It controls the airflow through the nozzle.

74.

What is the function of a sensor-controller system in HVAC systems?

a)

To provide a 15 to 20 psi signal to the controller

b)

To provide a linear 3 to 15 psi signal to the controller over a fixed service range

c)

To provide a non-linear signal to the controller for temperature adjustment

d)

To act as a general-purpose pneumatic amplifier

75.

What is the primary difference between single-input and dual-input controllers?

a)

Single-input controllers use diaphragm logic, while dual-input controllers use PI logic

b)

Single-input controllers can only adjust the setpoint, while dual-input controllers can adjust both the setpoint and reset time

c)

Single-input controllers have one sensor input, while dual-input controllers have inputs from a primary sensor and a reset sensor

d)

Single-input controllers are used in HVAC systems, while dual-input controllers are not

76.

What is the purpose of the proportional band in PI controllers?

a)

To adjust the setpoint

b)

To eliminate deviation from setpoint by controlling the controller output

c)

To provide a fixed service range for the controller

d)

To amplify the signal from the sensor

77.

How can the setpoint be manually adjusted in a controller?

a)

By using a remote restrictor

b)

By adjusting the reset authority

c)

By using a dial on the controller

d)

By changing the proportional band

78.

What is the typical adjustable range for the proportional band setting in PI controllers?

a)

0 to 25 percent of the primary sensor span

b)

2.5 to 50 percent of the primary sensor span

c)

50 to 100 percent of the primary sensor span

d)

10 to 20 percent of the primary sensor span

79.

What is the range of reset authority that can be set according to Figure 23?

a)

0 to 50 percent

b)

10 to 300 percent

c)

20 to 100 percent

d)

0 to 100 percent

80.

What does the velocity sensor-controller measure?

a)

Temperature

b)

Humidity

c)

Air velocity

d)

Air pressure

81.

What is the minimum air velocity that the velocity sensor-controller can accurately sense as mentioned in the text?

a)

100 feet per minute

b)

500 feet per minute

c)

3,500 feet per minute

d)

1,000 feet per minute

82.

According to the text, what is the function of the gap in the velocity sensor operation as shown in Figure 24?

a)

It measures the air temperature.

b)

It allows air to flow into the collector tube.

c)

It collects the air pressure data.

d)

It emits air to the environment.

83.

What is the throttling range of pneumatic sensors typically the same as?

a)

The sensors in the controller range

b)

The sensors and the throttling range adjustments

c)

The sensors in the same sensing element range

d)

The sensors and the air pressure range

84.

What type of pressure do low-pressure sensor measures as per the text?

a)

High static pressure

b)

Differential pressure

c)

Atmospheric pressure

d)

Absolute pressure

85.

What happens to the branchline pressure when the pressure differential increases, according to the text?

a)

The branchline pressure decreases.

b)

The branchline pressure remains constant.

c)

The branchline pressure increases.

d)

The branchline pressure fluctuates.

86.

What is the typical application of a thermostat and velocity controller as shown in Figure 25?

a)

To control the electrical power supply

b)

To regulate the Variable Air Volume (VAV) terminal unit with hot water reheat

c)

To monitor outdoor weather conditions

d)

To manage the lighting system in a building

87.

What is the function of a pneumatic actuator?

a)

To convert electrical signals into mechanical movement

b)

To regulate the flow of a medium through a valve or damper

c)

To measure the temperature in a room

d)

To provide insulation to pneumatic systems

88.

What is the action of a direct-acting damper actuator in response to an increase in branchline pressure?

a)

It retracts

b)

It extends

c)

It stops functioning

d)

It oscillates

89.

What is the typical stroke range for damper actuators?

a)

Between one-quarter and one-half inch

b)

Between one and two inches

c)

Between one-quarter and one inch

d)

Between one-half and one and a half inches

90.

What is the term used for pneumatic valve and damper actuator assemblies that are positioned in the valve body upon zero actuator air pressure?

a)

Normally open (N.O.)

b)

Normally closed (N.C.)

c)

Direct acting

d)

Reverse acting

91.

What determines the start pressure and pressure change required for full movement of the actuator from open to closed, or from closed to open in valve and damper actuators?

a)

Electrical signals

b)

Spring ranges

c)

Hydraulic pressure

d)

Manual control

92.

What type of valve body allows flow with the stem up and shuts off flow with the stem down?

a)

Normally open valve assembly

b)

Normally closed valve assembly

c)

Double-seated valve

d)

Reverse-acting valve body

93.

What happens to a reverse-acting valve body when the diaphragm moves downward?

a)

The valve stem moves toward the open position.

b)

The valve stem stays in the same position.

c)

The valve stem moves toward the closed position.

d)

The valve stem moves in a random direction.

94.

Which force is the only one available to close the valve in a normally open valve body when the actuator spring is compressed?

a)

Force F1

b)

Force F2

c)

Force F3

d)

The force of gravity

95.

In Figure 28B, what causes the diaphragm to move upward and open the valve?

a)

Decrease in branchline pressure

b)

Increase in branchline pressure

c)

Decrease in controlled-medium force

d)

Increase in controlled-medium force

96.

Why do double-seated valves generally not provide tight close-off?

a)

Because the actuator force needed to position the plug assembly is too high.

b)

Because the balance of forces between the two discs of the plug assembly reduces the actuator force needed.

c)

Because one disc can seat before the other and prevent the other disc from seating tightly.

d)

Because the valve stem does not move.

97.

What is the function of a double-seated valve as shown in Fig. 29?

a)

To control the flow of air in air-handling systems

b)

To operate butterfly valves

c)

To mix two inlets and a common outlet

d)

To provide isolation between branch lines