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genetics exam

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 3hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Because DNA polymerase at a replication fork occurs as a dimer

a)

Only one strand serves as a template during DNA replication

b)

Both strands at one fork are lagging, and both strands at the other fork are leading

c)

the lagging strand template loops out so both strands can be synthesized in the same direction

d)

Nucleotides are added to the 5' end of DNA on the lagging strand and the 3' end on the leading

2.

What is the major enzyme that drives transcription

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

protein polymerase

d)

reserve transcriptase

3.

Which of the following statements about promoters is true?

a)

promotors are proteins

b)

the location of the promoter is usually described by a negative number

c)

the promotor sequences are the first to be transcribed into RNA

d)

Every chromosome contains only a single promoter

4.

In bacteria, the function of 3' to 5' exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase 3 is

a)

to remove RNA nucleotides in primers

b)

to relieve supercoiling tension ahead of the replication fork

c)

to bind Okazaki fragments together

d)

to proofread, removing nucleotides that were not paired correctly

5.

When nucleotides are added to a growing strand of DNA during DNA replication

a)

adenine pair with cytosines on the template strand

b)

uracil bases are converted to thymines

c)

helicase reforms hydrogen bonds between phosphate groups

d)

two phosphate groups are removed

6.

DNA replication occurs during the G0 phase of the cell cycle

a)

true

b)

false

7.

which of the following is a true statement about proteins

a)

the function of all proteins is to catalyze (speed up) chemical reactions

b)

the information needed to create proteins is contained in DNA

c)

proteins are made up of long chains of nucleotides

d)

All amino acids are made up of protein subunits

8.

The protein component of telomerase serves what primary function?

a)

replaces the enzyme primase and creates DNA primer at the telomere

b)

breaks phosphodierster bonds at the telomere, causing it to shorten

c)

acts as a reverse transcriptase, making a DNA copy of the RNA template

d)

causes a protein to separate from the DNA template strand

9.

because telomerase is not expressed, or expressed at very low levels, in most somatic cells

a)

their telomere length is maintained during cell division

b)

cells can divide an infinite # of times

c)

#of times the cell can divide is limited

d)

the mutation rate is kept at a low level

10.

The 3' C of the pentose sugar in nucleic acids

a)

covalently bonded to an amino acid

b)

forms a hydrogen bond with a nucleoside

c)

involved in the formation of a phosphodiester bond

d)

cleaved during the polymerization of DNA

11.

the basic function of mitosis is to

a)

create a haploid gamete or sex cell

b)

two haploid daughter cells from one diploid cell

c)

two diploid daughter cells from one diploid cell

d)

a molecule of RNA from a DNA template

12.

The function of a kinetochore is to attach

a)

sister chromatids to each other

b)

spindle fibers to the centromere

c)

centriole to the centromere

d)

transcription start site to the promoter

13.

A metacentric chromosome is defined as one that

a)

is found on the metaphase plate

b)

has a centromere located in the middle

c)

is more than 1000 base pairs long

d)

does not contain any genes

14.

For bacterial transcription to begin

a)

the initiator protein must bind to the oriC region

b)

primers must first be removed from the promoter

c)

DNA must separate from RNA in the replication bubble

d)

sigma factor must bind to RNA poymerase to form the holoenzyme

15.

Which of the following is typical of most bacterial chromosomes?

a)

only 1 strand of each fork is replicated during DNA replication

b)

there is a single origin of replication

c)

DNA is always single stranded

d)

All of the above

16.

The short, discontinuous pieces of DNA on the lagging strand are referred to as

a)

obama fragments

b)

Chargaff fragments

c)

Watson fragments

d)

Okazaki fragmens

17.

Which of the following occurs during anaphase of mitosis

a)

Nuclear envelope begins to condense

b)

chromnosomes begin to condense

c)

the sister chromatids separate from each other

d)

homologous chromosomes separate from each other

18.

which of the following list sequences elements in the correct order reading in the 5' to 3' direction along the non-template strand of a transcription unit

a)

Termination, transcription start site, promotor

b)

transcription start site, Termination, promotor

c)

promotor, transcription start site, Termination,

19.

primers are necessary for DNA replication because

a)

RNA polymerase cannot carry out proofreading to remove errors

b)

DNA is always replicated in a 3' to 5' direction, whereas RNA is replicated in the 5' to 3' direction

c)

DNA polymerase cannot "start from scratch" it can only add to the 3' end of an existing strand

d)

they seal up breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone

20.

For a species of turtle, the value of N is 20, Which of the following statements is true?

a)

The value of N for turtle sperm will be 10

b)

each chromosome has 20 genes

c)

During prophase of mitosis, 40 chromosomes will be presented in a cell

d)

The two daughter cells of mitosis will contain 20 chromosomes

21.

What function does the helicase activity of the rho factor serve in rho-dependent termination of transcription?

a)

Creates hydrogen bonds between RNA and a protein

b)

opens up a fork in a replication bubble

c)

releases the RNA molecule from the DNA template strand

d)

removes two phosphate groups

22.

The term "polymer" refers to

a)

linear molecule composed of many similar subunits

b)

an enzyme that binds many DNA fragments together

c)

a small organic molecule with hydroxyl group

d)

an enzyme that catalyzes the addition of nucleotides to the 3' end of a DNA strand

23.

A sequence of DNA is transcribed to produce the following RNA sequence

5' AACGUCGG 3'

What sequence of the non-template strand in the DNA that produced it?

a)

3' AACGUGG 5"

b)

3' TTGCAGCC 5'

c)

5' GTTCCGAC 3'

d)

5' AACGTCGG 3'

24.

Chromatin is

a)

a complex composed of DNA wrapped around histones proteins

b)

a highly condensed form of DNA that is present only during mitosis

c)

found only in bacteria

d)

all of the above

25.

A cell is diploid. This means that

a)

the cell is in the process of diving into two

b)

2 members of each homologous pairs are present

c)

2 sister chromatids are presented for each chromosome

d)

the cell has two nuclei

26.

which of the following occurs during prophase of mitosis

a)

two daughter cell undergo cytokinesis

b)

homologous pairs line up along the central plate

c)

sister chromatids separate from each other

d)

Chromatin condenses and spindle fibers begin to form

27.

How do structures of DNA and RNA differ?

a)

RNA, but not DNA, has a hydroxyl group on the 2'C of the pentose sugar

b)

DNA is double stranded, and RNA is generally single stranded

c)

DNA contains thymine, RNA contains uracil

d)

all of the above

28.

promoters contain a "consenus sequence". this means that

a)

their sequences are indentical in all organisms

b)

their sequences are similar but not always identical in different organisms

c)

scientists have reached a consensus that an enzyme binds to them

d)

they contain many errors

29.

the purpose of translation is to

a)

produce RNA copy of a gene

b)

synthesized a protein or polypeptide using information in a codon sequence

c)

produce two identical molecules of DNA before cell divison

d)

generate genetic variation resulting in new alleles

30.

the 5' and 3' of an intron can be recognized by the presence of

a)

amino acids

b)

7-methyl guanosine cap

c)

consensus sequences

d)

hairpin loops

31.

which of the following are typically NOT found in eukaryotes?

a)

poly A tail

b)

polycistronic mRNAs

c)

promoters

d)

spliceosomes

32.

The degeneracy of the genetic code refers to the fact that

a)

a codon can code for multiple amino acids

b)

there is more than one start codon

c)

mRNAs are easily degraded

d)

multiple codons can code for the same amino acid

33.

Before newly transcribed tRNA can serve its function at the ribosome

a)

it must fold up and form double-stranded loops

b)

some nucleotides are chemically modified to rare bases

c)

it must be charged with an amino acid

d)

all of the above

34.

When a glucose is present at high levels, the rate of transcription of structural genes in the lac operon is reduced because

a)

binds to a repressor, causing the repressor to bind near the promoter

b)

inhibits the production of cAMP, which must be present for CAP to bind

c)

unwinds the chromatin structure of DNA

d)

Binds to a regulatory element, preventing a repressor from binding there

35.

A regulatory element is

a)

always found in the termination sequence of a transcription unit

b)

sequence of nucleotides where a regulatory protein binds

c)

protein that turns on or off translation

d)

gene that codes for a structural protein

36.

Alternative splicing creates

a)

most of the known genetic diseases

b)

several different protein products from the same gene

c)

mRNAs that are unstable

d)

homologous chromosomes with different alleles

37.

During the elongation phase of translation, transfer RNAs will move from

a)

The A site to the P site to the E site of the ribosome

b)

The P site to the E site to the A site of the ribosome

c)

The E site to the P site to the A site of the ribsome

d)

the promoter to the termination sequence

38.

Gene A encodes Enzyme A, which converts Molecule B to Molecule C. When molecule B is present, it binds to an activator protein which then binds to a site near the promoter of Gene A, turning on transcription of the gene. This is an example of

a)

Positive inductible control

b)

Negative inductible control

c)

positive repressible control

d)

negative repressible control

39.

In which of the following are features of a eukaryotic transcription unit for a protein-coding gene arranged in the correct order from 5' to 3' on the coding strand? The gene contains a single intron.

a)

Promoter, start codon, +1 site , intron , termination sequence, stop cofon

b)

Promoter, +1 site, start codon, intron, stop codon, termination sequence

c)

+1 site , start codon, promoter, stop codon, termination sequence

d)

shine- Dalgarno sequence, start codon, +1 , stop codon, termination sequence

40.

A key step in the post-transcriptional modification of messenger RNA in Eukaryotes is

a)

addition of a 5' cap

b)

termination of the anti-codon

c)

rho-dependent termination

d)

formation of many hairpin loops to form a clover leaf structurr

41.

which of the following is an example of a regualator gene

a)

the binding site for an activator protein

b)

gene that is always expressed

c)

a gene that codes for a tRNA

d)

gene that codes for a repressor protein

42.

The results of the experiment suggest that K is a binding site for a regulatory protein. What kind of protein binds there

a)

repressor

b)

activator protein

c)

helicase

d)

ribosome

43.

What part of the reported gene is inserted, is an experiment such as this one

a)

the upstream regulatory region only

b)

both the regulatory region and the coding region

c)

introns

d)

coding region only

44.

A tRNA contains the anticodon: 5' CGA 3'. What amino acid would be carried by the tRNA that binds to this anticodon?

a)

Arg

b)

ser

c)

ala

d)

histidine

45.

A spliceosome is

a)

binding site for histone proteins that regulates gene expression in eukaryotes

b)

found only in bacteria

c)

a structure composed of RNA and protein that removes introns

d)

an enzyme that adds a poly A tail to a messenger RNA in bacteria

46.

The molecule GTP is the primary source of energy that drives what process?

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

DNA replication

d)

charging of rRNAs

47.

Transfer RNA genes are transcribed and then translated

a)

true

b)

false

48.

N-formly fmet is always found

a)

at the amino or N terminus of a newly translated bacterial gene

b)

at the carboxyl or C terminus of a newly translated eukaryotic gene

c)

bound to a tRNA with the anti-codon CCC

d)

at the 3' end of a strand of DNA

49.

Proteins are composed of , attached to each other by __ to form a polymer

a)

nucleotides / phosphodiester bonds

b)

amino acids / peptide bonds

c)

nucleotides / hydrogen

d)

amino acids / phosphodiester

50.

the acetylation of histones is thought to have what effect

a)

prevent ribosomes from splicing out introns

b)

catalyzes the charging of ribosomes

c)

it causes DNA to be less tightly bound to histones

d)

it breaks hydrogen bonds between DNA and RNA in the replication bubble

51.

besides their roles in stabilizing RNA, the 5' cap and poly A tail are known to play a role in

a)

transcription of polycistronic mRNA

b)

DNA proofreading

c)

the processing of glucose by E. coil cells

d)

initiation of translation

52.

in the lac operon of E. coil, when lactose is present

a)

binds to the repressor, changing the repressor's shape and removing it from the operator

b)

binds to CAP, changing CAP's shape and removing from the CAP binding site

c)

binds to RNA polymerase, causing the enzyme to be removed from the repressor

d)

it causes the spliceosome to break down into several subunits

53.

chromatin remodeling takes place in and is a mechanism of ___

a)

bacteria/ regulation of gene expression

b)

euk / reg of gene express

c)

bacteria / posttranslational proofreading

d)

euk / DNA synthesis

54.

which of the following would NOT be found in a pre-mRNA transcribed from a eukaryotic gene for a protein

a)

a start codon

b)

poly A tail

c)

promoter

d)

both B and C

55.

in E. coil, the rate of transcription of the B galatosidase gene is highest when

a)

lactose is absent and glucose is present

b)

lactose and glucose are both absent

c)

the messenger RNA exits from the nucleus

d)

lactose is present and glucose is absent

56.

DNA of bacteria is single stranded

a)

True

b)

False

57.

in the classic mendelian expectation of 9/16, 3/16, 3/16, 1/6 (9:3:3:1), the "9/16" refers to the expected fraction of

a)

phenotypes that express both recessive traits in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross

b)

phenotypes that express both dominant traits in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross

c)

genotypes that heterozygous for both genes in the f2 generation of a dihybrid cross

d)

dominant phenotypes in the f2 generation of a monohybrid cross

58.

you cross YYRR x yyrr parents to produce an F1 generation. According to mendelian principles individuals in the f1 generation will be heterozygous and express he dominant phenotype

a)

true

b)

false

59.

boveri and sutton are most famous for

a)

the molecular basis of crossing over

b)

all cells come from preexisting cells

c)

meiotic events are the biological basis of mendelian segreagation

d)

barr bodies and X-inactivation

60.

What is the mode of inheritance of the disease

a)

autosomal dominant

b)

autosomal recessive

c)

cannot be determined

61.

what is the genotype of the female indicated by an arrow

a)

homozygous for the normal allele

b)

heterozygous

c)

homozygous

62.

transition from diploid to haploid occurs during

a)

1st cell divison of meiosis

b)

second cell division of meiosis

c)

mitosis

d)

the S phase of the cell cycle

63.

An AaBb individual undergoes meiosis and produces only 2 kinds of gametes: AB and ab. Which of the mendels four major principles appears to be violated

a)

principle of segregation

b)

principle of independent assortment

c)

two factors control each trait

d)

principle of epistatasis

64.

in what model organism was genetic linkage first studied?

a)

polar bears

b)

mice

c)

peas

d)

fruit flies

65.

(1 out of 2 ) in a crossing experiment with fruit flies, you do a chi sqaure test to determine whether a model of simple mendelian inheritance fits your data. Your test returns X^2 value of 12.3 and a p value of 0.013. What do you conclude

a)

mendelian model of inheritance provides a good fit to your data

b)

you should reject a mendelian model of inheritance and look for another explanation

c)

you do not have enough data to test the model

66.

( 2 out of 2) a second trial of the same experiment yields a somewhat larger x^2 value of 15.4. The P value for the second trail would be

a)

greater then 0.013

b)

less than 0.013

c)

greather than 1

67.

You do a trihybrid cross between a homozygous tall, purple-flowered plant with yellow pollen and a homozygous short, white-flowered plant with grey polle. Tall , purple, and yellow are all dominant. What fraction of the f2 generations do you expect to be short, purple-flowered with grey pollen

a)

1/4

b)

1/64

c)

9/16

d)

3/64

68.

A man with type AB blood and a women with type O blood have children. What possible phenotypes could the children have?

a)

Type AB only

b)

Type B only

c)

Type O or type AB

d)

Type A or Type B

69.

a plant with leaves that are 4 cm long is corssed with a plant whose leaves are 2 cm long. The f1 generation has leaves that are 3 cm long. The most likely explanation for this result is

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

epistasis

c)

sex-linkage

d)

non-recombinant crossing over

70.

when one trait is epistatic over another, the F2 phenotypic ratios in a dihydbrid cross differ from mendel expectations because

a)

the two genes do not assort independently

b)

alleles at the two genes do not segregate

c)

one gene affects the expression of another

d)

all of the above

71.

If a a gamete contains 10 picograms of DNA, how many picograms of DNA are present in a cell of the same species at prophase 1 of meiosis

a)

20

b)

40

c)

10

d)

100

72.

the function of meiosis is to

a)

produce two diploid cells from one diploid cell for somatic growth

b)

replace diploid somatic cells that are damaged

c)

produced gametes

d)

repair DNA

73.

During anaphase of meiosis 2

a)

sister chromaids separate and migrate to opposite poles

b)

homologous chromosomes separate and migrate to opposite poles

c)

homo chromo find each other and pair up

d)

sister chromatid line up together and undergo crossing over

74.

the allele for sickle cell anemia is thought to be particularly common in some regions because

a)

sickle cell allele is dominiant there and common

b)

homoz dor the sickle cell have higher reproductive rates

c)

heteroz are resistance to malaria, which is common there

d)

heteroz in those regions express a more severe form of disease

75.

name the phase and cell divison type of each

a)

anaphase of mitosis, prophase of meiosis 1b

b)

anaphase of meosis 1 , anaphase 1 of meiosis

76.

mendels result were

a)

first published in 1412 in an obscure italian journal

b)

rediscovered by the broader scientific community in about 1900

c)

never published

d)

published after the structure of DNA had already been described

77.

you carry out a dihydrid cross of a plant. you should conclude that the genotype of f2 plants are

a)

TtRr

b)

TTRR

c)

TTRr

d)

TtRR

78.

crossing over occurs

a)

during metaphase of mitosis

b)

during prophase of meosis 1

c)

when gamates fuse to form a zygote

d)

during the S phase of the cell

79.

The synaptonemal complex has what function?

a)

attaches spindle fibrs to the homologous chromosomes to pull them apart during anaphase 1

b)

it binds two homologous chromosomes to each other during prophase of meosis 1

c)

it condenses and inactivates one X-chromosome

d)

it turns on genes that produce male characteristics

80.

when two genes are on different chromosomes, a testcross of the f1 of a dihybrid cross will produce

a)

4 different offspring phenotypes, half recombinant and half non-recombinant

b)

two different offsprings phenotypes, all non-recombinant

c)

offsprings that all express both dominant traits

d)

offsprings that all express both recessive traits

81.

a dominant allele is an allele that

a)

always is found in homozygous genotype

b)

has the highest fitness and is therefore selected for

c)

is expressed in heterozgote and hides the effect of the recessive allele

d)

it is the most common

82.

homozygous and heterozygous are words used to describe a

a)

phenotype

b)

genotype

c)

allele

d)

all of the above

83.

calico cat coloration is caused by random x-inactivation. the coat color gene is located on the X chromosome. If a black boy cat and orange female cat have kittens, what will be the phenotypes of the kittens

a)

1/2 orange males, 1/2 black females

b)

1/2 orange males , 1/2 calico females

c)

1/2 black males, 1/2 calico females

d)

both males and females will be calico

84.

which of the follow is often true in inheritance of X-linked traits, but typically not true with autosomal traits?

a)

females are always homozygous

b)

males are always homozygous for the recessive allele

c)

males always show an intermediate phenotype between the two homozygotes

d)

phenotypes produced can depend on the direction of the cross

85.

in the formation of a holliday junction the heteroduplex DNA that forms is composed of

a)

one strand of DNA from each of the 2 homo chromo

b)

one sister chromatid of each homologous chromosome

c)

1 recessive snd 1 dominant allele

d)

one strand of DNA and one strand of RNA

86.

a tetrad consist of

a)

4 pairs of homologous chromosome

b)

4 cell produced by the second meiotic division

c)

pair of homo chromo assembled during meiosis 1

d)

pair of centrioles that has divided once

87.

slipper limpets and jack in the pulpits show sequential hermaphroditism in which

a)

individuals reproduce clonally, producing genetically identical offsprings

b)

male and females both produce Y chromosomes

c)

males and females take turns caring for offspring

d)

individuals change from one sex to another in the course of their life

88.

how does gamate production differ in male and female mammals

a)

the two meiotic cell divisions produce 4 gametes in males but only 1 gamete in females

b)

males produce diploid gametes, but females produce haploid gametes

c)

females produce gametes containing both X and Y, while male gametes contain only Y

d)

male gametes are larger than female gametes

89.

you use a testcross to determine the gentoype of a dominant phenotype. to do so, you would cross it with a

a)

homozygous recessive individual

b)

heterozygous individual

c)

homozygous dominant individual

d)

individuals of a different species

90.

the pseudoautosomal region or PAR of the mammalian Y chromosomes play what essential role

a)

produces all of the male characteristics

b)

it contains most of the functional genes in the Y chromosome

c)

it causes the Y to pair with another Y to create a male gamete

d)

it allows X and Y chromosomes to pair up during meiosis

91.

the basic principle underlying genetic mapping is that the frequency of crossing over increases

a)

as the distance between genes decrease

b)

as the distance genes increase

c)

in genes that are involved in epistatic interactions

d)

the closer they are to the centromere of a chromosome